Daily Current Affairs Questions August 2022 Part 11

 

Daily Current Affairs Questions

August 2022 Part 11

Why in News?

1.        Aarti Prabhakar

2.        Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)

3.        Andaman Sea

4.        Antimicrobial resistance

5.        Asia Pacific Sustainability Index

6.        Association of Indian Universities

7.        Atal Bhujal Yojana

8.        Australia

9.        Ayurveda Ratna Award

10.     Baltic Sea

11.     Base effect

12.     BCG vaccine

13.     Bee

14.     Blockchain-based digital degree

15.     Carbon monoxide (CO).

16.     Cellular Operators Association of India

17.     Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)

18.     Chess Olympiad 2026

19.     Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Amendment Act

20.     CII Quality Ratna Award

21.     Common Service Centres (CSCs)

22.     Commonwealth Games 2022 table

23.     Defence Expo

24.     Deloitte

25.     Dolphins

26.     Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)

27.     Exercise Skylight

28.     Financial Action Task Force

29.     First food safety museum

30.     First Mountain Warfare Training School

31.     First woman President of Indian Mountaineering Foundation

32.     Fly ash

33.     Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs)

34.     GAIL

35.     Gravitational Waves

36.     Gustavo Petro

37.     India Innovation Index

38.     India Ki Udaan’ project

39.     International Court of Justice (ICJ)

40.     International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples

41.     International Fund for Agricultural Development

42.     International Space Station (ISS)

43.     Invasive species

44.     Javelin Throw Day

45.     Jonny Bairstow

46.     Karnataka Ratna’ award

47.     Kharchi festival

48.     Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme

49.     Malaria

50.     Mangrove swamps

51.     Medicep

52.     Michelle Li

53.     Mosses

54.     Mustafizur Rahman

55.     NABARD

56.     Nagasaki day

57.     Namibia

58.     National Education Policy (NEP)

59.     National Handloom Day

60.     National High Speed   Rail Corporation Limited

61.     National Informatics Center

62.     National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive’ (PRASHAD)

63.     National Stock Exchange

64.     Net zero emissions

65.     NotPetya

66.     Panchamrut Yojana

67.     PM-DAKSH Yojana

68.     Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)

69.     Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme

70.     Pramod K Mittal

71.     Press Council of India

72.     Prosthetic knee

73.     Quick Response (QR)  code

74.     Quit India Movement

75.     Raising and Accelerating Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise Performance (RAMP)

76.     Rajendra Prasad

77.     Ramsar Convention on Wetlands

78.     Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS)

79.     Reserve Bank of India

80.     Saubhagya scheme

81.     SBI General Insurance

82.     semiconductor park

83.     Sherpa

84.     Shiromani Award

85.     Sri Lankamalleswara Sanctuary

86.     Suranjan Das

87.     SVAMITVA Scheme

88.     Tihan

89.     V Pranav

90.     Varun

91.     World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS)

92.     World Trade Organisation(WTO)

93.     World’s Best SME Bank

94.     world’s largest electric cruise ship

95.     World’s longest land border

96.     Wormholes

97.     Wormholes

98.     writ of mandamus

99.     Youth in India

100.  Zero Budget Natural Farming

101.  zero coupon zero principal instruments (ZCZP)

 

1.        Who will be appointed as the Science Advisor to the President of America? – Aarti Prabhakar

2.        Consider the following statements about the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF).
1.  It is a medium - long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets through interest subvention and credit guarantee.
2.  Agricultural Produce Market Committees are eligible to avail loans under AIF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  The Government of India launched the Central Sector Scheme of financing facility under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) in 2020.
•  Statement 1 is correct: AIF is a medium - long term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets through interest subvention and credit guarantee.
•  AIF aims at bringing farmers & agribusinesses together with newer partnership models emerging for the creation of distributed infra near farm-gate in a hub & spoke model. These assets will enable farmers to get greater value for their produce as they will be able to store and sell at higher prices, reduce wastage, and increase processing and value addition.
•  The duration of the scheme is from FY2020 to FY2029 (10 years).
•  Under the scheme, Rs. 1 Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans with interest subvention of 3% per annum and credit guarantee coverage under Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) for loans up to Rs. 2 Crores.
o  Launched in 2000, CGTMSE makes available collateral-free credit to the micro and small enterprise sector. The corpus of CGTMSE is being contributed by the Government of India and SIDBI in the ratio of 4:1 respectively.
•  Eligible beneficiaries: Farmers, Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Primary Agricultural Credit Society (PACS), Marketing Cooperative Societies, Self Help Groups (SHGs), Joint Liability Groups (JLG), Multipurpose Cooperative Societies, Agri-entrepreneurs, Start-ups, and Central/State agency or Local Body sponsored Public-Private Partnership Projects.
New Changes
•  Last year, the Union Cabinet approved modifications in the guidelines of the Rs 1-lakh-crore Agriculture Infrastructure Fund.
•  Statement 2 is correct: Eligibility to avail loans from AIF has now been extended to state agencies/Agricultural Produce Market Committees (APMCs), national and state federations of cooperatives, federations of farmers producers organisations (FPOs) and federations of self-help groups (SHGs).
•  The overall period of the scheme has been extended from 10 years to 13 years up to 2032-33.

3.        India and which country has organized the 38th joint patrol exercise in the Andaman Sea? – Indonesia

4.        Which of the following pathogens can develop antimicrobial resistance?
1.  Bacteria
2.  Fungi
3.  Parasite
4.  Virus
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
Sol:
What is antimicrobial resistance?
•  Antimicrobial resistance happens when microorganisms (such as bacteria, fungi, viruses, and parasites) change when they are exposed to antimicrobial drugs (such as antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, antimalarials, and anthelmintics).
•  Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are sometimes referred to as “superbugs”.
•  As a result, the medicines become ineffective and infections persist in the body, increasing the risk of spreading to others.
What accelerates the emergence and spread of antimicrobial resistance?
•  Antimicrobial resistance occurs naturally over time, usually through genetic changes.
•  However, the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials is accelerating this process.
•  In many places, antibiotics are overused and misused in people and animals, and often given without professional oversight.
•  Examples of misuse include when they are taken by people with viral infections like colds and flu, and when they are given as growth promoters in animals or used to prevent diseases in healthy animals.
•  Antimicrobial resistant-microbes are found in people, animals, food, and the environment (in water, soil and air).
•  They can spread between people and animals, including from food of animal origin, and from person to person.
•  Poor infection control, inadequate sanitary conditions and inappropriate food-handling encourage the spread of antimicrobial resistance.

5.        Who has topped the Asia Pacific Sustainability Index recently released by Knight Frank? – Singapore

6.        Who has been appointed as the President of Association of Indian Universities? – Suranjan Das

7.        Consider the following statements about Atal Bhujal Yojana.
1.  It is a central sector scheme implemented in all Indian states.
2.  The scheme is partly funded by the World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: Atal Bhujal Yojana (Atal Jal) is a Central Sector Scheme with focus on community participation and demand side interventions for sustainable groundwater management in identified water stressed areas of seven States in the country viz. Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
•  Statement 2 is correct: The scheme, partly funded by the World Bank, was launched in 2019 and is being implemented from 1.04.2020 for a period of 5 years.
•  ABHY envisages sustainable groundwater management, mainly through convergence among various on-going schemes, with emphasis on demand side measures through active involvement of local communities and stakeholders.
•  The scheme aims at increasing the capacity of States to manage their ground water resources and for ensuring their long-term sustainability with active participation of the local communities through a mix of top-down and bottom-up approaches.

8.        The Indian women’s cricket team beats which country to win a silver medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games? Australia
India won silver medal after losing to Australia in cricket. The Indian women’s cricket team has created history and secured the country’s first-ever medal in cricket in history of the Commonwealth Games (CWG).

9.        Who has been given Ayurveda Ratna Award by UK Parliament? – Tanuja Nesari

10.     Recently NATO has organized naval exercises with NATO allies and partners in which sea? – Baltic Sea

11.     The term “Base effect” refers to which of the following?
A.  Persistent high inflation combined with high unemployment in a country's economy
B.  Impact of the rise in price level in the previous year over the corresponding rise in price levels in the current year
C.  Use of financial measures and tax planning to reduce the size of a company's taxable profits in a country
D.  None of the above
Which of the statements given above is correct?
Answer: B
Sol:
•  Base effect refers to the impact of the rise in price level in the previous year over the corresponding rise in price levels in the current year.
•  For example: While calculating inflation, if the price index had risen at a high rate in the corresponding period of the previous year leading to a high inflation rate, some of the potential rise is already factored in, therefore a similar absolute increase in the Price index in the current year will lead to a relatively lower inflation rates.
•  On the other hand, if the inflation rate was too low in the corresponding period of the previous year, even a relatively smaller rise in the Price Index will arithmetically give a high rate of current inflation.

12.     Consider the following statements.
1.  The BCG vaccine is a known treatment for dengue fever.
2.  It is a part of the national childhood immunisation programme in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: The bacille Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine is a known treatment for childhood tuberculosis (TB). It was first developed by French researchers Albert Calmette and Camille Guerin.
•  Statement 2 is correct: One of the most widely used vaccines in the world, the BCG vaccine is mandatory for newborns in Africa, Asia and South America. It is also a part of the national childhood immunisation programme to prevent tuberculosis in India.
•  The BCG vaccine has a documented protective effect against meningitis and disseminated TB in children, according to the World Health Organisation. However the protection provided against pulmonary TB in adults is very variable. So the vaccine is not generally given to adults.

13.     In which country the work of killing bees is being done to save the honey business? – Australia

14.     Blockchain-based digital degree has been launched at IIT Kanpur by whom?- Narendra Modi

15.     Consider the following statements about Carbon monoxide (CO).
1.  Carbon monoxide is produced by the incomplete combustion of any fuel that contains carbon.
2.  When people are exposed to CO gas, the CO molecules will displace the oxygen in their bodies and lead to poisoning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Carbon monoxide (CO) is an odorless, colorless, tasteless gas that is slightly lighter than air. It is sometimes called carbonic oxide, exhaust gas or flue gas.
•  Statement 1 is correct: Carbon monoxide is produced by the incomplete combustion of any fuel that contains carbon. This includes petrol, natural gas, oil and propane, as well as coal and wood products.
•  Statement 2 is correct: It can also kill within minutes in high concentrations. When inhaled, it bonds with the hemoglobin in the blood, which is responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body.
•  The carbon monoxide replaces the oxygen molecules in hemoglobin and deprives the heart, brain and body of the oxygen it needs to function. High concentrations can displace enough oxygen in your body to cause oxygen starvation.
•  Carbon monoxide is not considered a direct greenhouse gas, mostly because it does not absorb terrestrial thermal IR energy strongly enough. However, CO is able to modulate the production of methane and tropospheric ozone.

16.     Who has been named as the new chairperson of industry body Cellular Operators Association of India- Pramod K Mittal

17.     Consider the following statements about the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC).
1.  A CBDC is a central bank issued digital currency which is backed by some kind of assets, recognised by the central banks as a monetary asset.
2.  Cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin are examples of CBDC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is in the process of implementing the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) in a phased manner for wholesale and retail segments.
•  The introduction of CBDC was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23, by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman and necessary amendments to the relevant section of the RBI Act, 1934 have been made with the passage of the Finance Bill 2022.
What is CBDC?
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: The central bank digital currency should not be mistaken with a cryptocurrency or Bitcoin.
•  Statement 1 is correct: A CBDC is a central bank issued digital currency which is backed by some kind of assets in the form of either gold, currency reserves, bonds and other assets, recognised by the central banks as a monetary asset.
•  This guarantee from a central bank reduces the CBDC risk, volatility, and ensures a larger acceptance across the globe.
•  On the other hand, a cryptocurrency is issued by a network and backed by a crypto asset which may or may not have the backing of any monetizable asset or physical asset. Therefore, the risk is higher and there is more price volatility and less acceptance as a money instrument globally.
Advantages
•  Experts point out that the move to bring out a CBDC could significantly improve monetary policy development in India with enhanced surveillance and real-time situational monitoring.
•  A CBDC can increase the transmission of money from central banks to commercial banks and end customers much faster than the present system.
•  Digital fiat currencies create greater barriers to illicit activity, as physical cash can help conceal and transfer funds outside of regulated financial systems. With the growing adoption of CBDCs, payments and transfers will be easier to identify and trace to previous sources, significantly reducing the risk of fraud and money laundering.
o  Fiat money is a currency that lacks intrinsic value and is established as a legal tender by government regulation.
•  Digital currencies have all the intrinsic advantages of fiat currency like it is durable, portable and fungible. Being digital, it will make it easily verifiable, more secure and traceable. Hence, improving upon the existing advantages of paper currency.
o  Fungibility is the ability of a good or asset to be interchanged with other individual goods or assets of the same type.
Challenges
•  Experts, however, observe that there are also certain negatives attached to the CBDCs.
•  The approach of bringing a sovereign digital currency stands in stark contrast to the idea of decentralisation. Cryptocurrencies, on the other hand, came into existence intending to eliminate the middleman, thereby establishing a system of trust without the need to depend on any single entity. CBDCs would again rely on the banking system, as these are just the digital version of fiat currency.
•  Central banks might indulge in issuing more digital currencies which could potentially trigger higher inflation.
Global status
•  Digital currencies are gaining more and more traction by the day, and there are countries which have launched, or are going to be launching digital currencies, including Ecuador, Tunisia, Senegal, Sweden, Estonia, China, Russia, Japan, Venezuela, and Israel.
•  The Bahamas, a country in the northwest West Indies, launched the world’s first CBDC last year.
•  Reports say that 81 countries, representing over 90 per cent of Global GDP, are exploring CBDCs. Fourteen counties have tested pilots, in 16 countries such currencies are in the development phase, and 32 countries in the research phase. Fourteen major economies, including China and South Korea, have tested pilots.
•  China is currently leading the race of CBDCs, and has recently released a report which mentioned $ 5.5 billion worth transactions carried out during the digital Yuan pilot run. China has plans to introduce digital Yuan in the winter Olympics next year.
Way Forward
•  The central bank will have to carefully analyze the pros and the cons of digital currencies before they are rolled out in India.

18.     Which country will host the Chess Olympiad 2026? Uzbekistan
Uzbekistan will host the Chess Olympiad 2026, the International Chess Federation (FIDE), announced.

19.     With reference to the Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016, consider the following statements.
1.  The Act’s jurisdiction is restricted to children below the age of 14.
2.  The Act allows children below 14 years to help their family enterprises and work as artists in an audio-visual entertainment industry with certain conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 amends the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986. It completely prohibits the employment of children below 14 years.
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: The act also prohibits the employment of adolescents in the age group of 14 to 18 years in hazardous occupations and processes and regulates their working conditions where they are not prohibited.
Exceptions
•  Statement 2 is correct: While the Act prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in any occupation or process, they are allowed to work in two cases.
o  They can help their families or family enterprises if the work is not hazardous and only after school hours or during vacations.
o  They can also work as artists in an audio-visual entertainment industry (including in advertisements, films and television serials, or in sports activities other than circuses) if such work follows appropriate safety measures. Children can only do this kind of work if it does not affect their education.
Punishment
•  Anyone who employs a child or adolescent or permits him/her to work without following the regulations mentioned in this Act and the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, can be imprisoned from six months to two years or fined between Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 50,000, or both.
•  A person who has been convicted of a similar offence before can be imprisoned for 1-3 years. The parents or guardians of children or adolescents thus employed cannot be punished unless they violate the regulations mentioned in these Acts.

20.     Who has recently been awarded the CII Quality Ratna Award 2021? – Ashok Suta

21.     Consider the following statements about Common Service Centres (CSCs).
1.  CSCs are shops that deliver various government services online to citizens in rural and remote areas of the country.
2.  The Government aims to establish at least one CSC in every district of the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: Common Service Centres (CSCs) are shops/Kiosks that deliver various government services online like public utility services, social welfare schemes, healthcare, financial, education and agriculture services, apart from a host of B2C services to citizens in rural and remote areas of the country.
•  CSC is one of the mission mode projects under the Digital India Programme run by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). There are approximately 3.19 lakh CSCs in India. CSCs are located in Gram Panchayats.
Objectives
•  CSCs have been trying to bridge the gaps in digital literacy and skills of rural citizens through a range of literacy initiatives focused on digital, financial and legal literacy and e-learning and skill development courses.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the CSC 2.0 scheme initiated by the Ministry of Electronics & IT in 2015, at least one CSC is to be rolled out in each and every 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across the country.
Village Level Entrepreneur
•  The CSC operator, also known as Village Level Entrepreneur (VLE), is the key stakeholder.
•  The essence of the CSC scheme is that it is managed and operated by a local person whose acceptability is higher within the community she/he serves.
•  The success of the Scheme depends largely on his ability, zeal and passion for setting up a sustainable social enterprise within the existing constraints of rural India.
Implementation
•  CSC e-Governance Services India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle set up by the Ministry of Electronics & IT, oversees implementation of the CSC scheme.

22.     How many medals did India win in Commonwealth Games 2022 table? 61
India won 61 medals in the overall Commonwealth Games 2022 medal table.
Commonwealth Games 2022: Overall Medal Tally
RankCountryG      S          B          Total
1   Australia          67        57        54        178
2   England           57       66        53        176
3   Canada            26        32        34        92
4   India                22        16        23        61
5   New Zealand    20        12        17        49
6   Scotland           13        11        27        51
7   Nigeria             12        9          14        35
8   Wales               8          6          14        28
9   South Africa    7          9          11        27
10 Malaysia          7          8          8          23

23.     The Ministry of Defence has announced that the 12th edition of the Defence Expo will be held in which city?.  Gandhinagar
The Ministry of Defence has announced that the 12th edition of the Defence Expo, India’s flagship exhibition on Land, Naval and Homeland Security systems, will be held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.

24.     The Uttar Pradesh government has appointed which organization as its consultant for achieving USD 1 trillion state economy?  Deloitte
The Uttar Pradesh government has signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Deloitte India, appointing it as a consultant for achieving the target of lifting the state’s economy to USD 1 trillion.

25.     Consider the following statements about Ganges river dolphins.
1.  The species is found in the Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins of India, Nepal and Bangladesh.
2.  Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary is located in Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: The Ganges river dolphin (Platanista gangetica gangetica) is one of the five river dolphins found in the world. The species is found in the Ganga and Brahmaputra river basins of India, Nepal and Bangladesh.
•  The presence of the Dolphin in a river system signals its good health and biodiversity.
•  The Ganges river dolphins can only live in freshwater and are essentially blind. Instead they use echolocation to detect food and navigate, and, to a very small extent, communication.
•  In 2009, the government declared Ganges river dolphin as the National aquatic animal.
•  Despite being a protected species under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, its numbers had dwindled over the last century due to indiscriminate fishing, poaching and development of barrages and dams along with the habitat of the dolphins.
•  Their population is estimated to be less than 2000 individuals. At present, the distribution range of the Ganges river dolphins in India covers seven states namely, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary, located in Bihar, is dedicated to the conservation of the species.
•  Protection Status: IUCN Red List: Endangered; CITES: Appendix I; Wildlife Protection Act (1972): Schedule I.

26.     Consider the following statements about the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM).
1.  It is a statutory body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India.
2.  RBI Governor acts as the ex-officio chairman of EAC-PM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is a non-constitutional, non-permanent and independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
•  Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is a non-constitutional, non-permanent and independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
•  The Terms of Reference of EAC-PM include analyzing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister and advising him thereon, addressing issues of macroeconomic importance and presenting views thereon to the Prime Minister.
•  These could be either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister or anyone else.
•  The chairman is appointed from time to time when the body is constituted.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: As EAC-PM is a non-permanent body, the chairman is appointed from time to time when the body is constituted.

27.     The Indian Army conducted pan-India satellite communication exercise to test the operational readiness and robustness of its hi-tech satellite communication systems. What was the name of this exercise?  Skylight
The Indian Army conducted a pan-India satellite communication exercise named ‘Ex Skylight’, in the last week of July.

28.     Who has been appointed as the new chairman of the Financial Action Task Force? – T. Raja Kumar

29.     Which state has inaugurated the first food safety museum in Thanjavur? – Tamil Nadu

30.     The first Mountain Warfare Training School has been established by whom?- ITBP
The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) has created its first mountain-warfare training centre in northeast India in Sikkim

31.     Who has been appointed as the first woman President of Indian Mountaineering Foundation? – Harshwanti Bisht

32.     Consider the following statements about Fly ash.
1.  Fly ash is a fine powder that is a byproduct of burning pulverized coal in electric generation power plants.
2.  Fly ash is a highly toxic substance known for causing health and environmental problems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: Fly ash is a fine powder that is a byproduct of burning pulverized coal in electric generation power plants.
•  Fly ash is a pozzolan, a substance containing aluminous and siliceous material that forms cement in the presence of water. When mixed with lime and water, fly ash forms a compound similar to Portland cement.
Issues with Fly ash
•  Statement 2 is correct: Fly ash is a highly toxic substance known for causing health and environmental problems. It can contain lead, arsenic, mercury, cadmium, and uranium.
•  When fly ash is deposited in water bodies they contaminate aquaculture and may leach into landmasses, leading to toxicity of agricultural land and drinking water.
•  Fly ash cannot be disposed-off in the open field because it pollutes the air, soil and groundwater.
•  Long inhalation of fly ash causes serious respiratory problems.
•  Fly ash also causes siltation problems.
•  There has been a significant push for promoting the utilisation of fly ash in brick manufacturing and other construction activity.
Uses of Fly ash
•  Fly ash can be used as prime material in many cement-based products, such as poured concrete, concrete block, and brick.
•  One of the most common uses of fly ash is in Portland cement concrete pavement or PCC pavement.
•  Road construction projects using PCC can use a great deal of concrete, and substituting fly ash provides significant economic benefits.
•  Fly ash can be used in reclamation of wastelands.
•  Fly ash has also been used as an embankment and mine fill.
Regulations in India
•  Over the years, India’s dependence on coal has gone up and so has the production of fly ash. India has the world’s fourth-largest coal reserve and the second-largest producer of coal, with more than 50% of its demand for electricity being met by coal-based thermal power plants.
•  Indian regulations stipulate that coal plants should ensure the fly ash they generate is made available, free of cost, to the cement and concrete industries, so that it's recycled instead of polluting the environment.
•  The cost of transportation of fly ash is to be borne collectively by the power plant and the industry concerned.
•  However, the disposal of fly ash is a serious issue as more than 20 percent of fly ash generated in the country remains unutilised, according to data from the Central Electricity Authority.
•  The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) issued a draft notification in December 2020 for utilisation of fly ash by coal- and lignite-based power plants. It introduces a penalty regime for non-compliance for the first time.

33.     SEBI has formed 15-member Advisory Committee of Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to boost overseas flows into the country. Who is the head of this committee? KV Subramanian
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has constituted a 15-member expert group of Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to boost overseas flows into the country. The FPI Advisory Committee (FAC) will be chaired by former Chief Economic Adviser KV Subramanian.

34.     Who has been named as the new chairman of GAIL? – Sandeep Kumar Gupta

35.     With reference to Gravitational Waves, consider the following statements.
1.  Gravitational waves are 'ripples' in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe.
2.  Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in his general theory of relativity.
3.  The strongest gravitational waves are produced by cataclysmic events such as colliding black holes, supernovae, and colliding neutron stars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Sol:
What are Gravitational Waves?
•  Statement 1 is correct: Gravitational waves are 'ripples' in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe.
•  Statement 2 is correct: Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity. Einstein's mathematics showed that massive accelerating objects (such as neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other) would disrupt space-time in such a way that 'waves' of undulating space-time would propagate in all directions away from the source.
•  These cosmic ripples would travel at the speed of light, carrying with them information about their origins, as well as clues to the nature of gravity itself.
•  Statement 3 is correct: The strongest gravitational waves are produced by cataclysmic events such as colliding black holes, supernovae (massive stars exploding at the end of their lifetimes), and colliding neutron stars.
Why does one study gravitational waves?
•  As a largely unknown and fundamental phenomenon, gravitational waves are interesting to scientists. But once many more detectors are in place, the study also offers a new way to map out the universe, using gravitational-wave astronomy.
•  Extracting the information carried by the waves to address questions in both physics and astronomy depends on our ability to identify where the individual sources are in the sky. This requires a network of detectors spread widely over the Earth.

36.     Gustavo Petro has taken charge as the President of which country?  Colombia
Gustavo Petro has been sworn in as the first leftist president of Colombia. He succeeds Ivan Duque.

37.     The India Innovation Index-2022 was recently released by
- A. Ministry of Education
- B. Ministry of Science and Technology
- C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D. NITI Aayog
Answer: D
Sol:
•  NITI Aayog has released the India Innovation Index-2022.
•  The idea of the index is to showcase the government's initiative to create an innovation-driven economy.
About the Index        
•  Prepared by NITI Aayog and the Institute for Competitiveness, the India Innovation Index is a comprehensive tool for the evaluation and development of the country’s innovation ecosystem.
•  It ranks the states and the union territories on their innovation performance to build healthy competition amongst them.
•  The third edition highlights the scope of innovation analysis in the country by drawing on the framework of the Global Innovation Index.
•  The number of indicators has increased from 36 (in the India Innovation Index 2020) to 66 (in the India Innovation Index 2021). The indicators are now distributed across 16 sub-pillars, which, in turn, form seven key pillars.
Highlights of the Index
•  Karnataka has bagged the top rank in NITI Aayog’s India Innovation Index, 2022, which determines innovation capacities and ecosystems at the sub-national level. The State has held this position, under the Major States category, in all three editions of the Index so far.
•  Manipur secured the lead in the Northeast and Hill States category, while Chandigarh was the top performer in the Union Territories and City States category.
•  Karnataka was followed by Telangana, Haryana, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Bihar and Gujarat were at the bottom of the index.
•  Pointing out that India’s average innovation score is arguably insufficient, given the country’s ambitious targets to be named among the top 25 nations in the Global Innovation Index, the report by the government think tank has recommended measures, such as increasing Gross Domestic Expenditure on R&D (GDERD), promoting private sector participation in R&D and closing the gap between industry demand and what the country produces through its education systems.
•  The report went on to state that countries that spend less on GDERD fail to retain their human capital in the long run and the ability to innovate is dependent on the quality of human capital; India’s GDERD as a percentage of GDP stood at about 0.7%.
•  The report recommends GDERD for improvement and should touch at least 2%, which would play an instrumental role in India achieving the goal of a 5 trillion economy and further influence its innovative footprint across the globe.

38.     Which company has launched the ‘India Ki Udaan’ project to mark 75 years of Independence? Google
Named ‘India ki Udaan’, the project executed by Google Arts & Culture celebrates the country’s achievements and is “themed on the unwavering and undying spirit of India over these past 75 years”.

39.     Which of the following statements is true with respect to the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?
A.  All members of the UN are automatically parties to the ICJ statute.
B.  The ICJ automatically gets jurisdiction over disputes involving the parties.
C.  The court has 10 judges who are elected to five-year terms.
D.  All the statements are incorrect
Which of the statements given above is correct?
Answer: A
Sol:
•  The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in 1946.
•  The court is the successor to the Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ), which was brought into being through, and by, the League of Nations, and which held its inaugural sitting at the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands, in 1922.
•  After World War II, the League of Nations and PCIJ were replaced by the United Nations and ICJ respectively. The PCIJ was formally dissolved in 1946, and its last president, Judge José Gustavo Guerrero of El Salvador, became the first president of the ICJ.
•  The first case, which was brought by the UK against Albania and concerned incidents in the Corfu channel — the narrow strait of the Ionian Sea between the Greek island of Corfu and Albania on the European mainland — was submitted in 1947.
Seat and role
•  Like the PCIJ, the ICJ is based at the Peace Palace in The Hague. It is the only one of the six principal organs of the UN that is not located in New York City. (The other five organs are the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council, and the Secretariat.)
•  The ICJ’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies. The court as a whole must represent the main forms of civilization and the principal legal systems of the world.
•  English and French are the ICJ’s official languages.
•  Statement A is correct & Statement B is incorrect: All members of the UN are automatically parties to the ICJ statute, but this does not automatically give the ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them. The ICJ gets jurisdiction only if both parties consent to it.
•  The judgment of the ICJ is final and technically binding on the parties to a case. There is no provision of appeal; it can at the most, be subject to interpretation or, upon the discovery of a new fact, revision.
•  However, the ICJ has no way to ensure compliance of its orders, and its authority is derived from the willingness of countries to abide by them.
Judges of the court
•  Statement C is incorrect: The ICJ has 15 judges who are elected to nine-year terms by the UN General Assembly and Security Council, which vote simultaneously but separately. To be elected, a candidate must receive a majority of the votes in both bodies, a requirement that sometimes necessitates multiple rounds of voting.
•  A third of the court is elected every three years. Judges are eligible for re-election.

40.     International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples is celebrated on which date  across the world. 09th August
International Day of the World’s Indigenous Peoples is celebrated on 09th August across the world. The celebration highlights the role of indigenous people and the importance of preserving their rights, communities and knowledge they gathered and passed down over centuries.

41.     Who has been appointed as the new President of the International Fund for Agricultural Development? – Alvaro Larrios

42.     Consider the following statements about the International Space Station (ISS).
1.  The ISS is solely owned by the U.S.
2.  It is placed in a Low Earth Orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  The International Space Station (ISS) is the largest single structure humans ever put into space.
•  Statement 2 is correct: The ISS is in a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) about 400 km to 420 km above Earth's surface.
•  Its main construction was completed between 1998 and 2011, although the station continually evolved to include new missions and experiments.
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: The ISS includes contributions from 15 nations. NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia) and the European Space Agency are the major partners of the space station who contribute most of the funding; the other partners are the Japanese Aerospace Exploration Agency and the Canadian Space Agency.
•  The ISS serves as a microgravity and space environment research laboratory in which crew members conduct experiments in biology, human biology, physics, astronomy, meteorology, and other fields.
•  The station is divided into two sections, the Russian Orbital Segment (ROS), which is operated by Russia, and the United States Orbital Segment (USOS), which is shared by many nations.
•  NASA recently announced that the ISS spacecraft will cease operations in 2031, after which it will fall out of orbit and plunge into the waters of the South Pacific Ocean.

43.     Which of the following are characteristics of an invasive species?
1.  Ability to adapt to the new area easily
2.  Ability to reproduce quickly
3.  Harming ecosystems in its introduced range
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Sol:
•  An invasive species can be any kind of living organism—an amphibian, plant, insect, fish, fungus, or bacteria—that is not native to an ecosystem and causes harm.
•  Not all non-native species are invasive. For example, most of the food crops grown in India, including onion, potato and tomatoes are not native to the region.
•  To be invasive,
o  a species must adapt to the new area easily
o  it must reproduce quickly
o  it must harm the economy, or the native plants and animals of the region
•  Some of the most serious invasive species in India are Alternanthera philoxeroides, Cassia uniflora, Chromolaena odorata, Eichhornia crassipes, Lantana camara, Parthenium hysterophorus and Prosopis juliflora, etc.

44.     In India which day is dedicated to be observed as the Javelin Throw Day every year?  August 07
The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) will be celebrating second ‘Javelin Throw Day’ on August 7, 2022. The day was first observed in 2021 in honour of Javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra, who won India’s first Olympic gold medal in athletics at Tokyo.

45.     Who has been selected by the ICC for the Men’s Player of the Month Award for June? – Jonny Bairstow

46.     Karnataka Chief Minister, Basavaraj Bommai has announced that which Kannada film star , who died last year, would be conferred with the ‘Karnataka Ratna’ award posthumously. Puneeth Rajkumar
Karnataka Chief Minister, Basavaraj Bommai has announced that Kannada film star Puneeth Rajkumar, who died last year, will be conferred with the ‘Karnataka Ratna’ award posthumously.

47.     In which state Kharchi festival has been started recently? – Tripura

48.     Consider the following statements about the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme.
1.  Long term credit for agriculture and allied activities is also provided under the scheme.
2.  Tenant farmers and Share Croppers are not eligible to avail benefits from the Kisan Credit Card scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was introduced in 1998 with the aim of providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system under a single window with flexible and simplified procedure to the farmers for their cultivation and other needs as indicated below:
a.  To meet the short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops;
b.  Post-harvest expenses;
c.  Produce marketing loan;
d.  Consumption requirements of farmer household;
e.  Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture;
f.  Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities.
•  Note: The aggregate of components ‘a’ to ‘e’ above will form the short term credit limit portion and the aggregate of components under ‘f’ will form the long term credit limit portion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
•  Under the KCC Scheme, a flexible limit of Rs.10,000 to Rs.50,000 has been provided to marginal farmers (as Flexi KCC) based on the land holding and crops grown.
•  The beneficiaries under the scheme will be issued with a Smart card/ Debit card.
•  It enables farmers to purchase agricultural inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, etc. and draw cash to satisfy their agricultural and consumption needs.
•  The Scheme is implemented by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks and Cooperatives.
Eligibility
•  Farmers - individual/joint borrowers who are owner cultivators;
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: Tenant farmers, oral lessees & sharecroppers;
•  Self Help Groups (SHGs) or Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) of farmers including tenant farmers, sharecroppers etc.
•  In 2019, KCC was extended to farmers who are involved in activities related to animal husbandry and fisheries.

49.     Consider the following statements about malaria.
1.  Malaria is a life-threatening bacterial disease.
2.  It is spread to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: Malaria is a life-threatening parasitic disease caused by Plasmodium parasites.
•  There are 5 parasite species that cause malaria in humans, and 2 of these species – P. falciparum and P. vivax – pose the greatest threat.
•  Statement 2 is correct: The parasites are spread to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
•  Children aged under 5 years are the most vulnerable group affected by malaria.
•  Symptoms: Fever, tiredness, vomiting, headaches, seizures, chills, etc. 
•  Diagnosis: Examination of blood films or by antigen-based rapid diagnostic tests (RDT). 
•  Prevention: Vector control is the main way to prevent and reduce malaria transmission. Two forms of vector control – insecticide-treated mosquito nets and indoor residual spraying – are effective in a wide range of circumstances.
•  Treatment: Antimalarial medications depending on the type of malaria.
•  Vaccine: RTS,S/AS01 (RTS,S) (trade name Mosquirix) is the world's first malaria vaccine shown to provide partial protection against malaria in young children. The vaccine is being provided to young children through national immunization programs in parts of three sub-Saharan African countries as part of a pilot introduction that began in 2019.

50.     ‘Rhizophoraceae, Lythraceae and Arecaceae’ are
- A. Neglected tropical diseases
- B. Microorganisms resistant to first-line antibiotics
- C. Mangrove families
- D. Plants with allelopathic properties
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Mangrove swamps are coastal wetlands found in tropical and subtropical regions.
•  Mangroves belong primarily to the families Rhizophoraceae, Acanthaceae, Lythraceae, Combretaceae, and Arecaceae.
•  They are characterized by halophytic (salt loving) trees, shrubs and other plants growing in brackish to saline tidal waters.
•  These wetlands are often found in estuaries, where fresh water meets salt water.
Adaptation mechanisms
•  Many mangroves characteristically have prop roots descending from the trunk and branches, providing a stable support system in the submerged conditions.
•  Many mangrove species survive by filtering out as much as 90 percent of the salt found in seawater as it enters their roots. Some species excrete salt through glands in their leaves.
•  Some mangroves have pencil-like roots called pneumatophores that grow out from the water surface. Pneumatophores facilitate the aeration necessary for root respiration in mangroves.
•  Mangroves, like desert plants, store fresh water in thick succulent leaves. A waxy coating on the leaves seals in water and minimises evaporation.
•  Mangroves are viviparous, their seeds germinate while still attached to the parent tree. Once germinated, the seedling grows into a propagule. The mature propagule then drops into the water and gets transported to a different spot, eventually taking root in a solid ground.
Significance of mangroves
•  A wide diversity of plants and animals are found in mangrove swamps. Since these estuarine swamps are constantly replenished with nutrients transported by fresh water runoff from the land and flushed by the ebb and flow of the tides, they support a bursting population of bacteria and other decomposers and filter feeders.
•  Because mangroves create dense foliage and close proximity of trees, they protect shorelines from damaging winds and waves. A series of studies in the early 2000s discovered that mangroves with an average height of 6-10 metres could shorten a cyclone’s waves by 60%.
•  Their protective role has been widely recognized especially after the devastating Tsunami of 2004.
•  Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, and help prevent erosion by stabilising sediments with their tangled root systems.
•  Mangroves also have a big impact on climate. Mangroves are powerhouses when it comes to carbon storage. Studies indicate that mangroves can sequester greater amounts of carbon than other trees in the peat soil beneath. They store this carbon for thousands of years.
•  The intricate root system of mangroves also makes these forests attractive to fish and other organisms seeking food and shelter from predators.
•  Many people living in and around mangroves depend on them for their livelihood. The trees are a source of wood for construction and fuel. The ecosystem provides local fishermen with a rich supply of fish, crabs and shellfish. The ecosystem also supports tourism.

51.     Which state has announced the launch of a health insurance scheme, ‘Medicep’? – Kerala

52.     PV Sindhu bagged a gold medal beating whom in the at the Commonwealth Games 2022 women’s single badminton final.  Michelle Li
India’s shuttler P V Sindhu has clinched a gold medal in the final of women’s single at the Commonwealth Games 2022. The double Olympic medalist beat Michelle Li of Canada to win the Gold.

53.     Consider the following statements.
1.  Mosses are non-flowering plants which produce spores and have stems and leaves, but don't have true roots.
2.  Mosses are classified as Gymnosperms in the plant kingdom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: Mosses are non-flowering plants which produce spores and have stems and leaves, but don't have true roots.
•  Instead of roots they have rhizoids, which are small hairlike structures. Their main function is anchoring the plant to rock, bark or soil.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: Mosses, and their cousins liverworts and hornworts, are classified as Bryophyta (bryophytes) in the plant kingdom.
•  Composed of 15,000 – 25,000 species, they occur on every continent and in every ecosystem habitable by plants that use sunlight for energy.
•  They help to soak up rainfall, maintain moisture in the soil below and keep conditions around them humid. This enables other plants around them to thrive, such as in habitats like marshes and woodland.
•  Ecologically, mosses break down exposed substrata, releasing nutrients for the use of more complex plants that succeed them. They also aid in soil erosion control by providing surface cover and absorbing water, and they are important in the nutrient and water economy of some vegetation types.
•  Mosses spread in multiple ways, but unlike flowering plants, they depend on moisture to sexually reproduce. Mosses reproduce by spores, which are analogous to the flowering plant's seed; however, moss spores are single celled and more primitive than the seed. 
•  Mosses also spread asexually by sending out new shoots in the spring from last years plants as well as fragmentation.

54.     Mustafizur Rahman has been appointed as the new High Commissioner of which country to India? – Bangladesh

55.     Consider the following statements about NABARD.
1.  NABARD is an apex refinancing agency for the institutions providing investment and production credit for promoting the various developmental activities in rural areas.
2.  It is a subsidiary of the RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  NABARD was established in 1982 under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981.
•  Statement 1 is correct: NABARD is an apex refinancing agency for the institutions providing investment and production credit for promoting the various developmental activities in rural areas.
•  It is a development bank focussing primarily on the rural sector of the country. It is the apex banking institution to provide finance for Agriculture and rural development. It is responsible for the development of the small industries, cottage industries, and any other such village or rural projects.
•  NABARD also provides direct term loans at affordable rates of interest to certain activities like Designated Food Parks (DFPs) and food processing units in the DFPs.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: NABARD is wholly owned by the Government of India.

56.     Which country commemorates the 9th of August every year as Nagasaki day?  Japan
Japan commemorates the 9th of August every year as Nagasaki day. On August 9, 1945, the United States dropped an atomic bomb on Nagasaki, Japan.

57.     India has signed an agreement to bring cheetahs from which country? – Namibia

58.     Which state government has announced to implement 100% National Education Policy (NEP) in higher education from next academic year?  Goa
Goa Chief Minister Pramod Sawant announced that the state government will implement 100% of the syllabus in higher education institutes along the lines of the National Education Policy.

59.     When is the National Handloom Day observed in India? August 07
In India, the National Handloom Day is observed annually on 7 August to honour the handloom weavers in the country and also highlight the contribution of handloom industry to the socioeconomic development of the country and increase income of the weavers.

60.     Who has recently taken over as the MD of National High Speed   Rail Corporation Limited?- Rajendra Prasad

61.     Who has been made the Director General of National Informatics Center? – Rajesh Gera

62.     Consider the following statements about the ‘National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive’ (PRASHAD).
1.  It was launched with the objective of integrated development of identified pilgrimage and heritage destinations.
2.  It was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct &  Statement 2 is incorrect: The ‘National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive’ (PRASHAD) was launched by the Ministry of Tourism in the year 2014-15 with the objective of integrated development of identified pilgrimage and heritage destinations.
•  The scheme aimed at infrastructure development such as entry points (Road, Rail and Water Transport), last mile connectivity, basic tourism facilities like Information/ Interpretation Centers, ATM/ Money exchange, eco-friendly modes of transport, area Lighting and illumination with renewable sources of energy, parking, drinking water, toilets, etc.
Objectives
•  Rejuvenation and spiritual augmentation of important national/ global pilgrimage destinations; 
•  Enhance tourism attractiveness of identified pilgrimage destinations and heritage cities under integrated tourism development of heritage city in planned, prioritized and sustainable manner by providing world class tourism projects in them; 
•  Follow community-based development through ‘Pro-Poor’ tourism concept and ‘responsible tourism’ initiatives;
•  Assure active involvement of local communities through employment generation; 
•  Creating awareness among the local communities about the importance of tourism for them in terms of increase in sources of income, improved living standards and overall development of the area;
•  Promote heritage in the form of heritage structures especially under integrated tourism development of heritage city, local arts, culture, handicrafts, cuisine, etc., to generate livelihood in the identified places;
•  Strengthen the mechanism for bridging the infrastructural gaps at identified pilgrimage destinations and throughout heritage cities.
Implementation Agency
•  The projects identified under this scheme shall be implemented through the identified agencies by the respective State/ Union Territory Government.

63.     Who has been appointed as the new CEO of National Stock Exchange recently? – Ashish Kumar Chauhan

64.     Which of the following best describes the term “Net zero emissions”?
A.  It is a state in which a country’s greenhouse gases emissions are brought to zero.
B.  It is a state in which a country’s greenhouse gases emissions are compensated by absorption and removal of such gases from the atmosphere.
C.  It is a state in which a country’s emissions of ozone depleting substances are brought to zero.
D.  It is a state in which a country’s emissions of ozone depleting substances are compensated by absorption and removal of such substances from the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Sol:
•  ‘Net zero emissions’ refers to achieving an overall balance between greenhouse gas emissions produced and greenhouse gas emissions taken out of the atmosphere.
•  Net-zero, which is also referred to as carbon-neutrality, does not mean that a country would bring down its emissions to zero. Rather, net-zero is a state in which a country’s greenhouse gases emissions are compensated by absorption and removal of such gases from the atmosphere.
•  Absorption of the emissions can be increased by creating more carbon sinks such as forests, while removal of gases from the atmosphere requires futuristic technologies such as carbon capture and storage.
•  This way, it is even possible for a country to have negative emissions, if the absorption and removal exceed the actual emissions. A good example is Bhutan which is often described as carbon-negative because it absorbs more than it emits.
Rationale for push towards global carbon neutrality
•  It is being argued that global carbon neutrality by 2050 is the only way to achieve the Paris Agreement target of keeping the planet’s temperature from rising beyond 2°C compared to pre-industrial times.
•  Theoretically, a country can become carbon-neutral at its current level of emissions, or even by increasing its emissions, if it is able to absorb or remove more.

65.     WannaCry, NotPetya and Kaseya’ are
- A. Supercomputers
- B. Missile Defence Systems
- C. Cryptocurrencies
- D. Ransomware
Answer: D
Sol:
•  Ransomware is malware that employs encryption to hold a victim’s information at ransom. A user or organization’s critical data is encrypted so that they cannot access files, databases, or applications.
•  A ransom is then demanded to provide access. Ransomware is often designed to spread across a network and target database and file servers, and can thus quickly paralyze an entire organization.
•  Ex: WannaCry, NotPetya, Kaseya
•  Malware- is a term used to describe malicious software, including spyware, ransomware, viruses, and worms. Malware breaches a network through a vulnerability, typically when a user clicks a dangerous link or email attachment that then installs risky software

66.     Which state governments has launched the ‘Panchamrut Yojana’ scheme with an aim to double farmers income?  Uttar Pradesh
The Uttar Pradesh government announced that Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath’s ‘Panchamrut Yojana’ will aid in doubling farmers’ income through the implementation of cost-effective technical measures and the promotion of co-cropping.

67.     The government implements the PM-DAKSH Yojana with the main objective of
A.  Computerization of records & strengthening of State Waqf Boards
B.  Conducting skill development training programmes for marginalized persons of the society
C.  Preserve rich heritage of minority communities of India under the overall concept of Indian Culture
D.  Provide interest subsidy on educational loans for overseas studies for the students belonging to the minority communities
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: B
Sol:
•  The Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi, PM-DAKSH Yojana is being implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment from 2020-21.
•  The scheme aims to cover marginalized persons of Scheduled Castes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Backward Classes, De-notified Tribes and Safai karamcharis including waste pickers.
•  Under this Yojana, eligible target groups are being provided skill development training programmes on (i) Up-skilling/Re-skilling (ii) Short Term Training Programme (iii) Long Term Training Programme and (iv) Entrepreneurship Development Program (EDP).
•  The scheme is implemented by the three Corporations
o  National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation (NSFDC),
o  National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC) &
o  National Safai Karamcharis Finance and Development Corporation (NSKFDC).

68.     Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY).
1.  It aims to provide connectivity to unconnected habitations of designated population size.
2.  In implementation of PMGSY, the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is the concerned Nodal Ministry at the centre.
3.  The programme covers both rural and urban unconnected habitations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), was launched in 2000 as centrally sponsored scheme to provide connectivity to unconnected habitations of designated population size (500+ in plain areas and 250+ in North-East, hill, tribal and desert areas as per Census, 2001) as part of a poverty reduction strategy.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of Rural Development along with state governments is responsible for the implementation of PMGSY.
•  Phase III of PMGSY was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2019. It involves the consolidation of Through Routes and Major Rural Links connecting habitations to Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs), Higher Secondary Schools and Hospitals.
Guiding Principles of PMGSY
•  The spirit and the objective of the scheme is to provide good all-weather road connectivity to unconnected Habitations. A habitation which was earlier provided all-weather connectivity would not be eligible even if the present condition of the road is bad.
•  The unit for this Programme is a Habitation and not a Revenue village or a Panchayat. A Habitation is a cluster of population, living in an area, the location of which does not change over time.
•  Statement 3 is incorrect: The PMGSY shall cover only the rural areas. Urban roads are excluded from the purview of this Programme.
•  To facilitate connectivity, PMGSY permits both, construction of new roads as well upgradation of existing roads with a priority to provide connectivity to unconnected habitation.
Funding pattern
•  The Union Government bears 90% of the project cost in respect of projects sanctioned under the scheme in North-Eastern and Himalayan States, whereas for other states the Union Government bears 60% of the cost.
Initiatives related to PMGSY
•  Road Connectivity Project for Left Wing Extremism affected Areas (RCPLWEA): It was launched in 2016 as a separate vertical under PMGSY to provide all-weather road connectivity with necessary culverts and cross-drainage structures in 44 districts (35 are worst LWE affected districts and 09 are adjoining districts), which are critical from security and communication point of view.
•  Meri Sadak mobile app: It was launched to enable citizens to register complaints regarding the quality and pace of construction of PMGSY roads.

69.     Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme.
A.  It is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% funding from Government of India.
B.  The scheme provides an annual financial assistance of Rs 6,000/- to eligible farmer families.
C.  The scheme is restricted to small and marginal farmers’ families holding cultivable land upto 2 hectares.
D.  The responsibility of identifying the eligible beneficiary farmers lies entirely with the state/UT governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Sol:
•  Statement A is correct: Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% funding from Government of India.
•  Aim : To augment the income of the farmers by providing income support to all landholding farmers’ families across the country.
•  Statement C is incorrect: The Scheme initially provided income support to all Small and Marginal Farmers’ families across the country, holding cultivable land upto 2 hectares.
•  Statement B is correct: Its ambit was later expanded w.e.f. 01.06.2019 to cover all farmer families in the country irrespective of the size of their land holdings.
•  Under the Scheme an amount of Rs. 6000/- per year is transferred in three 4-monthly installments of Rs. 2000/- directly into the bank accounts of the farmers, subject to certain exclusion criteria relating to higher income status
•  Eligibility : All landholder farmer’s families in the country are eligible for the PM-Kisan Scheme subject to the prevalent exclusion criteria. Farmers who do not own any land are not eligible for this scheme.
•  Excluded from the scheme
•  Institutional land holders,
•  Farmer families holding constitutional posts,
•  Serving or retired officers and employees of state/central government as well as PSUs and government autonomous bodies.
•  Professionals like doctors, engineers and lawyers as well as retired pensioners with a monthly pension of over Rs 10,000 and those who paid income tax in the last assessment year.
•  Identification of beneficiaries : The responsibility of identifying the eligible beneficiary farmers and uploading their data on PM-KISAN portal lies entirely with the state/UT governments. Hence, statement D is correct.

70.     Who has been named as the new chairperson of industry body Cellular Operators Association of India- Pramod K Mittal

71.     Who has been appointed as the President of the Press Council of India? – Ranjana Prakash Desai

72.     India’s first indigenous polycentric prosthetic knee ‘Kadam’ has been made by which IIT institute? – IIT Madras

73.     Consider the following statements about Quick Response code or QR code.
1.  QR codes store information in two dimensions which allow them to hold much more information than standard barcodes.
2.  QR codes do not require line of sight.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- A. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  QR codes are two-dimensional (2D) barcodes, also known as matrix codes. QR codes are a way of storing data in the form of computer understandable format, that can be scanned by using QR code scanner to retrieve the data. These are widely used nowadays for cashless and UPI payment services. They can be used in case of identifications and are also used for sharing photos, videos and other files.
•  Statement 1 is correct: Unlike the standard barcode which is usually one-dimensional, QR codes can store information in two dimensions – horizontally and vertically. This allows them to hold much more information.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: Both barcodes and QR codes are based on Morse Code technology and require line of sight.

74.     The 80th anniversary of the August Kranti Din or Quit India Movement on which date?. 8th August
The 80th anniversary of the August Kranti Din or Quit India Movement, which is considered as one of the important milestones in the history of the freedom struggle of our country, is being observed on 8 August 2022.

75.     The Raising and Accelerating Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise Performance (RAMP) Program, to support MSMEs in India, is an initiative of?
- A. World Bank
- B. Shanghai Cooperation Organization
- C. New Development Bank
- D. Asian Development Bank
Answer: A
Sol:
•  In 2021, the World Bank approved a $500 million program to support MSMEs in India to increase liquidity access for viable small businesses impacted by COVID-19.
•  Known as the Raising and Accelerating Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) Performance (RAMP) Program, the new initiative targets improvements in the performance of 5,55,000 MSMEs.
•  The RAMP program will intensify efforts to support firms to return to pre-crisis production and employment levels, while laying the foundations for longer-term productivity-driven growth and generation of much-needed jobs in the MSME sector.
•  The scheme aims at strengthening institutions and governance at the Centre and State, improving Centre-State linkages and partnerships and improving access of MSMEs to market and credit, technology upgradation and addressing issues of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs.
Significance
•  The MSME sector is the backbone of India's economy, contributing around 30% of India’s GDP and 50% of exports.
•  Out of some 58 million MSMEs in India, more than 40 percent lack access to formal sources of finance.
•  The RAMP Program is the World Bank’s second intervention in this sector, the first being the $750 million MSME Emergency Response Program, approved in July 2020 to address the immediate liquidity and credit needs of millions of viable MSMEs severely impacted by the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic.

76.     Who has recently taken over as the MD of National High Speed   Rail Corporation Limited?- Rajendra Prasad

77.     Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance.
1.  The Convention’s definition for wetlands includes marshes, floodplains, rivers and lakes, mangroves, coral reefs and other marine areas no deeper than 6 metres at low tide.
2.  At present, Chilika lake is the only wetland in India placed in the Montreux record
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance signed in 1971, is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
•  It is the only global treaty to focus on a single ecosystem (wetlands).
•  At present, 171 nations are signatories (including India) to the Ramsar Convention. A contracting party agrees to nominate at least one wetland in its territory to the List of Wetlands of International Importance based on enumerated criteria.
•  In addition, contracting parties agree to manage all their wetlands based on the concept of “wise use.” Wise use means the maintenance of the ecological character of the wetland and allowance of sustainable use for the benefit of people and the environment.
Definition of Wetlands
•  A wetland is a land area that is saturated with water, either permanently or seasonally, and it takes on the characteristics of a distinct ecosystem 
•  Statement 1 is correct: The Ramsar Convention defines wetlands as "areas of marsh, fen, peatlands or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres".
•  Five major wetland types are generally recognized:
o  marine (coastal wetlands including coastal lagoons, rocky shores, and coral reefs);
o  estuarine (including deltas, tidal marshes, and mangrove swamps);
o  lacustrine (wetlands associated with lakes);
o  riverine (wetlands along rivers and streams); and
o  palustrine (meaning “marshy” - marshes, swamps and bogs).
•  The definition of wetlands is very broad and includes ponds, water storage areas, low-tide coastal zones and all human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and salt pans.
About Montreux record
•  The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
•  It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: Currently, Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) and Loktak Lake (Manipur) are being kept under the record for taking appropriate steps for ecological restoration.
•  Chilika lake (Odisha) was placed in the record but was later removed from it.

78.     The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is an organ of the
- A. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
- B. North Atlantic Treaty Organization
- C. Collective Security Treaty Organisation
- D. BRICS
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation established in 2001.
•  It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organisation aiming to maintain peace, security and stability in the region.
•  Prior to the creation of SCO in 2001, Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan were members of the Shanghai Five.
•  Following the accession of Uzbekistan to the organisation in 2001, the Shanghai Five was renamed the SCO.
•  There are eight member states in the SCO at present. India and Pakistan became members in 2017.
•  The SCO Secretariat, based in Beijing, is the main permanent executive body of the SCO.
•  The organisation has two permanent bodies —
o  the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing and
o  the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent. RATS serves to promote cooperation of member states against the three evils of terrorism, separatism and extremism.
Objectives of the SCO
•  To strengthen mutual trust among the neighbouring member states.
•  To promote effective cooperation in various fields like economy, trade, politics, culture and research and technology.
•  To ensure peace, prosperity, security and stability in the region, and
•  To establish a democratic, fair and rational international eco-political order.

79.     Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a fine of Rs 32 lakh on which bank for breach of directions on classification & reporting of frauds?  State Bank of India
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a fine of Rs 32 lakh on Indian Bank for breach of directions on classification & reporting of frauds.

80.     Which state has topped the solar electrification scheme under Saubhagya scheme? – Rajasthan

81.     Who has been appointed as the new Managing Director and CEO of SBI General Insurance recently? – Paritosh Tripathi

82.     Which state government has recently tied up with Singapore based M/s IGSS Ventures Pte Ltd to set up a semiconductor park? – Tamil Nadu

83.     Who will play the role of Sherpa for India at the G20 summit to be held in Indonesia at the end of 2022? – Amitabh Kant

84.     Who has been given the prestigious Shiromani Award? – Michelle Poonawalla

85.     Sri Lankamalleswara Sanctuary, which is the only habitat for Jerdon’s Courser, is located in
- A. Karnataka
- B. Andhra Pradesh
- C. Tamil Nadu
- D. Odisha
Answer: B
Sol:
•  Sri Lankamalleswara Sanctuary is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh. The Sanctuary forms the catchment for River Pennar.
•  Forest Type: Southern tropical dry deciduous forest in the hills, scrub forest in the plains, Southern dry mixed deciduous forest, patches of Dry Red sanders bearing forests and Hardwickia bipinnata forest, Tropical thorn forests and Tropical dry evergreen forest.
•  In the whole world, Sri Lankamalleswara Sanctuary is the only home and hope for the rare and endangered bird Jerdon’s Courser (Rhinoptilus bitorquatus) that was once thought to be extinct, later rediscovered after a span of 100 years in 1986.
•  Jerdon’s Courser is a nocturnal cursorial bird found only in the State of Andhra Pradesh, India. It is one of the world’s rarest bird species and is classified as Critically Endangered (CR) by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

86.     Who has been appointed as the President of Association of Indian Universities? – Suranjan Das

87.     Consider the following statements about the SVAMITVA Scheme.
1.  It aims to carry out property surveys in rural inhabited areas using Drone technology.
2.  It is a collaborative effort of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, State Panchayati Raj Departments, State Revenue Departments and Survey of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Statements 1 & 2 are correct: SVAMITVA (Survey of villages and mapping with improvised technology in village areas) scheme is a collaborative effort of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, State Panchayati Raj Departments, State Revenue Departments and Survey of India.
•  It is a central sector scheme that aims to provide rural people with the right to document their residential properties so that they can use their property for economic purposes. The scheme is for surveying the land parcels in rural inhabited areas using Drone technology.
Objectives
•  The outcome from the scheme would include updating the record of rights in the revenue/property registers and issuance of property cards to the property owners. This would facilitate monetisation of rural residential assets for credit and other financial services.
•  It will also lead to creation of accurate land records for rural planning and determination of property tax.
•  Through the SVAMITVA scheme, the government hopes that property disputes and legal cases will be reduced.
•  Other gram panchayats and community assets like village roads, ponds, canals, open spaces, school, anganwadi, health sub-centres etc will also be surveyed and GIS maps will be created. These maps can be used to prepare better quality gram panchayat development plans.
Coverage
•  There are about 6.62 lakh villages in the country which will be eventually covered in this scheme. The entire work is likely to be spread over a period of four years (2020 -2024).
•  Presently, the pilot phase is being approved for the year 2020-21. Pilot Phase will extend to 8 states – Maharashtra, Karnataka, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab and Rajasthan. 
•  The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme. Survey of India shall work as the technology partner for implementation.

88.     In which IIT institute, the Technology Innovation Center Tihan has been inaugurated recently? – IIT Hyderabad

89.     Chennai-based which chess prodigy  became India’s 75th Grandmaster by winning a tournament in Romania.  V Pranav
The Chennai-based chess prodigy V Pranav became India’s 75th Grandmaster by winning a tournament in Romania.

90.     Who has recently unveiled India’s first passenger drone ‘Varun’? – Varun

91.     World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) is the annual flagship event of
 a) International Energy Agency (IEA)
 b) World Economic Forum
 c) World Bank
 d) The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
Solution: d)
World Sustainable Development Summit:
It is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
It is the sole Summit on global issues taking place in the developing world.
It provides a platform for global leaders and practitioners to discuss and deliberate over climatic issues of universal importance.
It strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of the global community by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform.

92.     Consider the following statements regarding World Trade Organisation(WTO)
1. The WTO is the successor to General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
2. WTO norms do not allow countries to export food grains from their public stocks procured at subsidised rates currently
The decision in the Ministerial Conference of WTO is based on two-thirds of the majority of the votes
Select the correct statement/s:
 a) 1 only
 b) 1 and 2 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) All the above
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that regulates and facilitates international trade. Governments use the organization to establish, revise, and enforce the rules that govern international trade. It officially commenced operations on 1 January 1995, pursuant to the 1994 Marrakesh Agreement, thus replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) that had been established in 1948. The WTO is the world’s largest international economic organization, with 164 member states representing over 98% of global trade and global GDP
Statement 2 Correct
According to WTO norms, countries are not allowed to export foodgrains from their public stockholding because those are procured at subsidised rates.
Statement 3 Incorrect
The WTO is ‘member-driven’, with decisions taken by consensus among all member governments. Not by any majority.
Context: Finance Minister has asked WTO to allow India to export food grains from public stock holdings.

93.     Which bank has been declared the ‘World’s Best SME Bank’ for the second time by Euromoney recently? – Development Bank of Singapore

94.     In which country has the world’s largest electric cruise ship recently completed its maiden voyage? – China

95.     The World’s longest land border occurs between
 a) India and Bangladesh
 b) Russia and China
 c) Canada and United States
 d) Chile and Argentina
Solution: c)
Canada’s border with the United States is the world’s longest international border, at 8,890 km.

96.     Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Wormholes’
1. Wormholes are consistent with the general theory of relativity
2. A wormhole might connect extremely long distances such as a billion light years
Select the INCORRECT statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
Wormholes are consistent with the general theory of relativity, but whether wormholes actually exist remains to be seen. Many scientists postulate that wormholes are merely projections of a fourth spatial dimension, analogous to how a two-dimensional (2D) being could experience only part of a three-dimensional (3D) object.
Statement 2 Correct
Theoretically, a wormhole might connect extremely long distances such as a billion light years, or short distances such as a few meters, or different points in time, or even different universes.
 Context – It was in news

97.     Consider the following statements:
1. If there is no gravity our universe will bend and traveling from one end to another will be simple.
2. When there is a strong gravitational field the universe will be flat like a sheet.
3. Wormholes act as a shortcut between two points in curved space-time which are well separated in practical terms from the inhabitants of the universe.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 and 2 only
b.  2 only
c.  1 and 3 only
d.  3 only
Answer : d
Wormhole
Our universe when viewed from a higher dimension is like that of the ribbon.
When there is no gravity, our universe will be flat like a sheet.
When there is a strong gravitational field, this sheet will bend so that a portion of it may look like the piece of ribbon that was folded over.
A wormhole can act as a bridge or a shortcut between two points in curved space-time which are well separated in practical terms from the inhabitants of the universe.
Wormholes are not mere products of science fiction.
Just like black holes were predicted by Einstein’s theory of gravity long before they were experimentally observed, the existence of wormholes, too, has been predicted.
Ludwig Flamm, in 1916, first discovered that they could exist, soon Einstein proposed his General Theory of Relativity, a theory that describes the gravitational field.
However, the presence of wormholes has not yet been established through observation or inference by astronomers.

98.     The writ of mandamus cannot be issued
1. To enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force
2. Against the president of India and the state governors
3. To an inferior court and a tribunal
4. To enforce a contractual obligation
Select the correct answer code
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 2, 4
 c) 1, 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
The writ of mandamus literally means ‘we command ‘. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued
against a private individual or body
to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force
when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory
to enforce a contractual obligation
against the president of India or the state governors
against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity

99.     Youth in India 2022 report is released by which of the following ministries?
A Ministry of Education (MoE)
B Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
C Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
D Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
Explanation
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has released ‘Youth in India 2022’ Report, which shows that the population share of the youth is starting to decline whereas the share of the elderly is expected to increase during 2021-2036.
According to the report, States such as Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh are projected to see a higher elderly population than the youth by 2036.
Hence, option C is correct.

100.  Which of the following is not the pillar of Zero Budget Natural Farming?
A Jeevamrutha
B Bijamrita
C Acchadana
D Neeravra
Explanation
Zero budget natural farming is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices.
It is a unique model that relies on Agro-ecology.
It aims to bring down the cost of production to nearly zero and return to a pre-green revolution style of farming.
It claims that there is no need for expensive inputs such as fertilisers, pesticides and intensive irrigation.
It is based on 4 pillars:
Jeevamrutha: It is a mixture of fresh cow dung and aged cow urine (both from India's indigenous cow breed), jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil; to be applied on farmland.
Bijamrita: It is a concoction of neem leaves & pulp, tobacco and green chilies prepared for insect and pest management, that can be used to treat seeds.
Acchadana (Mulching): It protects topsoil during cultivation and does not destroy it by tilling.
Whapasa: It is the condition where there are both air molecules and water molecules present in the soil. Thereby helping in reducing irrigation requirements.
Neeravra is not the pillar of ZBNF.
Therefore, option D is correct.

101.  The Finance Ministry has recently declared zero coupon zero principal instruments (ZCZP) as securities. What can be the major possible implication of this decision?
a.  Stability in money market
b.  Allow corporates to utilise their fund marked for social responsibility
c.  Increase in Foreign Direct Investment
d.  Reduction of Participatory notes
Answer : b
Zero Coupon Zero Principal instruments (ZCZP)
This will help many organizations including corporates to utilize their fund marked for social responsibility and also help non-profit organizations to get funds in a more transparent manner.
In simple words, neither any interest is paid nor principal is repaid under ZCZP.
Zero Coupon-Zero Principal instrument means an instrument issued by a not-for-profit organization that shall be registered with the social stock exchange (SSE) segment of a recognized stock exchange in accordance with the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
The new notification is a follow-up to the announcement in the FY20 Budget.
Finance Minister has quoted "It is time to take our capital markets closer to the masses and meet various social welfare objectives related to inclusive growth and financial inclusion"

 

 

 

Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)