Daily Current Affairs Questions August 2022 Part 10

 

Daily Current Affairs Questions

August 2022 Part 10

Why in News

1.        Akshaya Patra

2.        Aviation Passenger Charter

3.        B cells and T cells

4.        Beti Bachao Beti Padhao

5.        Blockchain Technology

6.        Carbon nanotubes

7.        Croatia

8.        DefConnect 2.0

9.        Desert National Park

10.     District Climate Change Mission

11.     INS Dunagiri

12.     Earn with Learn’ scheme

13.     Exercise ‘RIMPAC 2022

14.     Father of Indian Internet

15.     Food adulteration

16.     Genome sequencing’

17.     Gurdeep Singh

18.     Har Ghar Tiranga

19.     Himachal Pradesh

20.     India’s first e-waste eco park

21.     Indian Army’s first Green Solar Energy Harnessing Plant

22.     Indian Naval Air Squadron 324

23.     Indira Gandhi International Airport

24.     Inflation

25.     INS Satpura

26.     INS Vikrant

27.     International Renewable Energy Agency’ (IRENA)

28.     Interpol’s child sexual abuse database

29.     Krishna Srinivasan

30.     Kuno National Park

31.     Language certificate selfie campaign

32.     Lawn Bowl

33.     Leighton Hewitt

34.     London

35.     Los Angeles

36.     Lovepreet Singh

37.     Ministry of Education

38.     Minorities

39.     Minorities

40.     Mohan Subramaniam

41.     Nari Ko Naman’

42.     National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem- NAMASTE scheme’

43.     National Conference on Bajra

44.     NATO

45.     New India Literacy Program

46.     North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)

47.     Parliamentary System

48.     P-notes

49.     Political parties” in India

50.     QUAD and AUKUS

51.     Registrar General of India

52.     REPLACE programme

53.     Rice

54.     Sasakawa Award 2022

55.     Saurav Ghoshal

56.     Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO

57.     The World’s Greatest Places of 2022

58.     Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES)

59.     Tulika Mann

60.     UDAY Scheme

61.     Udham Singh

62.     UiPath Automation Excellence Awards

63.     UN Convention on the Rights of the Child

64.     Unemployment Rate

65.     UNESCO Intergovernmental Committee for the Protection of Intangible Cultural Heritage

66.     United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNCTO)

67.     Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)

68.     Unparliamentary Words

69.     Urban local bodies (ULBs).

70.     Verstehen

71.     Vice President of India

72.     Vice President of India’

73.     Vice-President

74.     Vice-President

75.     Vice-President

76.     Vice-President

77.     Vice-President of India

78.     VIPER mission

79.     Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)

80.     Visakhapatnam

81.     Vitamin D

82.     water conservation in agriculture

83.     Western Ghats

84.     western Ghats

85.     Wheat cultivation in India

86.     Wholesale Price Index (WPI).

87.     Wildlife Conservation and Sustainable Biodiversity Utilization

88.     Wildlife Protection Act

89.     Wimbledon

90.     Windfall tax

91.     Wolbachia

92.     Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP)

93.     Workshop on Anti-Corruption and Economic Development

94.     World Air Quality Report

95.     World Athletics Championships

96.     World Day for International Justice

97.     World Population Prospects

98.     World Population Prospects

99.     World Population Prospects

100.  World Summit on the Information Society (WSIS)

 

1.        Where has PM Modi recently inaugurated Akshaya Patra’s mid-day meal kitchen? – Varanasi

2.        Which country has recently launched “Aviation Passenger Charter” to help passengers to know their rights? – UK

3.        Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
 (a) They protect the environmental allergens. body
 (b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
 (c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
 (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
T cells and B cells are the most critical components of the adaptive immune system. These cells are essential for fighting disease and play an important role in regulating hypersensitivity to harmless or “self” antigens.
T cells and B cells both recognize specific antigens via a complementary receptor, followed by activation and proliferation to specifically bind to the antigen of the infecting pathogen.

4.        With reference to Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development and Ministry of Finance.
2. It aims to address sex selective abortion and the declining child sex ratio in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Beti Bachao Beti Padhao will now be extended across the country.
BBBP is the Centre’s flagship programme (under the Women and Child Development Ministry)  for women’s empowerment, which focuses on the education of girlschild and improving the sex ratio.
It was launched in January 2015  to address sex-selective abortionand the declining child sex ratio which was at 918 girls for every 1,000 boys in 2011.
It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry of Human Resource Development.
The programme is operational in 405 districtsat present.

5.        With reference to the Blockchain Technology, consider the following statements:
1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, which no single user controls
2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only
3. Applications that depend on the basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 2 only
 (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
A blockchain is a decentralized, distributed, and oftentimes public, digital ledger consisting of records called blocks that is used to record transactions across many computers so that any involved block cannot be altered retroactively, without the alteration of all subsequent blocks.
This allows the participants to verify and audit transactions independently and relatively inexpensively. A blockchain database is managed autonomously using a peer-to-peer network and a distributed timestamping server. They are authenticated by mass collaboration powered by collective self-interests.Such a design facilitates robust workflow where participants’ uncertainty regarding data security is marginal.
The great advantage to an open, permissionless, or public, blockchain network is that guarding against bad actors is not required and no access control is needed. This means that applications can be added to the network without the approval or trust of others, using the blockchain as a transport layer.
S2 is clearly wrong, Blockchain can be used for a variety of purposes of which cryptocurrency is only one of them.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019

6.        With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements
1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable
Which of the statements given above are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
 (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
 (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
S1:The nanotube’s structure allows it to be used as a container for transporting a drug in the body. A molecule of the drug can be placed inside the nanotube cage. This keeps the drug ‘wrapped up’ until it reaches the site where it is needed. In this way, a dose that might be damaging to other parts of the body can be delivered safely to, for example, a tumour.
S3: This is correct.  NASA has successfully demonstrated a miniaturized electronics technology for in-vitro detecting specific biomarker signatures, which is based on incorporating embedded vertically aligned carbon nanotubes…in diagnostics devices.
S4: Recently, it has been demonstrated that functionalized carbon nanotubes can be degraded by oxidative enzymes.

7.        Which country has become the 20th country in the world to adopt Euro as currency recently? – Croatia

8.        Which ministry has recently organized DefConnect 2.0 in New Delhi? – Defense Ministry

9.        With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
S1: Situated in Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Indian state Rajasthan.
S2: This is clearly incorrect. A national park can have human habitation.
S3: This is common knowledge.

10.     Which Indian state has recently established District Climate Change Mission? – Tamil Nadu

11.     Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Dunagiri’, that was in the news recently?
 (a) Amphibious warfare ship
 (b) Nuclear-powered submarine
 (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
 (d) Multi-role stealth frigate
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Defence Minister recently launched Dunagiri (latest ship of 17A frigate)- Nilgiri Class. This is the fourth and latest ship in this class.
It has been designed in-house by the Indian Navy’sDirectorate of Naval Design (DND)
The Shivalik class or Project 17 classis a class of multi-role stealth frigates in service with the Indian Navy. They are the first stealth warships built in India.
P17A Frigates (Nilgiri Class )are follow-on class of the P17 (Shivalik Class) Frigates with improved stealth features

12.     Which government has recently launched ‘Earn with Learn’ scheme? – Tripura

13.     Which Indian ship will participate in the world’s largest naval exercise ‘RIMPAC 2022’ to be held from 29 June to 04 August? – INS Satpura

14.     Which person, who is called the father of Indian Internet, has passed away recently? – BK Singhal

15.     Which of the following are related to regulations and steps taken to check food adulteration?
1. Consumer Protection Act, 2019
2. Codex Alimentarius Commission
3. Harmonised System (HS) code
Select the correct answer code:
 (a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)

16.     With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Genome sequencing is figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome—the order of As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that make up an organism’s DNA.
Justification: Statement 1:  Currently available newborn screening (genome) for childhood diseases allows detection of rare disorders that can be prevented or better treated by early detection and intervention.
Statement 2:  Naturally if the gene potential can be identified by screening and sequencing, it will help in better genetic engineering.
Statement 3: This can be reasoned logically based on the above.

17.     Which medal has been won by Indian weightlifter Gurdeep Singh in the weight category above 109 – Bronze

18.     Which nationwide campaign will be launched by the Government of India on the 75th Independence Day? – Har Ghar Tiranga

19.     Which has become the first state in the country to start vehicle tracking recently? – Himachal Pradesh

20.     Where will India’s first e-waste eco park be built? – New Delhi

21.     Where has the Indian Army’s first Green Solar Energy Harnessing Plant been set up – Sikkim

22.     Where has Indian Naval Air Squadron 324 been commissioned recently? – Visakhapatnam

23.     Which has become the first airport in India to be fully hydro and solar powered recently? – Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi

24.     Which of the following is/are the Effects of Inflation?
1. Usually lenders suffer and borrowers benefit out of inflation.
2. Holding money remains an intelligent economic decision during inflation.
3. With every inflation the currency of the country appreciates.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 2, 3
Solution: a)
Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors, i.e., lenders suffer and borrowers benefit out of inflation. The opposite effect takes place when inflation falls (i.e., deflation).
Holding money does not remain an intelligent economic decision (because money loses value with every increase in inflation).
With every inflation the currency of the economy depreciates (loses its exchange value in front of a foreign currency) provided it follows the flexible currency regime.

25.     Which Indian ship participated in the world’s largest naval exercise ‘RIMPAC 2022’ held from 29 June to 04 August? – INS Satpura

26.     Which aircraft carrier has recently been inducted into the Indian Navy? – INS Vikrant

27.     With reference to ‘International Renewable Energy Agency’ (IRENA), consider the following statements:
1. It is the first international organisation to focus exclusively on renewable energy addressing needs in both industrialised and developing countries.
2. It was founded in 2009 and its statute entered into force on 8 July 2010.
3. The agency is headquartered in Paris, France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is an intergovernmental organization mandated to facilitate cooperation, advance knowledge, and promote the adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy.
It is the first international organisation to focus exclusively on renewable energy, addressing needs in both industrialised and developing countries.
It was founded in 2009 and its statute entered into force on 8 July 2010. The agency is headquartered in Masdar City, Abu Dhabi.
IRENA is an official United Nations observer.

28.     Which country has recently become the 68th country to be included in Interpol’s child sexual abuse database? – India

29.     Which Indian has been appointed as the head of the Asia-Pacific Department of the International Monetary Fund recently? – Krishna Srinivasan

30.     With reference to India’s Kuno National Park, consider the following statements:
1. It was selected as a possible site to implement the Asiatic Lion Reintroduction Project.
2. It is part of the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Kuno is a national park in Madhya Pradesh, India.
It is part of the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion.
In the 1990s, it was selected as a possible site to implement the Asiatic Lion Reintroduction Project, which aimed at establishing a second lion population in India.
India has plans to reintroduce cheetahs at the Kuno National Park in Sheopur and Morena districts of Madhya Pradesh’s Gwalior-Chambal region.

31.     Which ministry has launched the language certificate selfie campaign? – Ministry of Education

32.     Which medal has been won by Indian team in Lawn Bowl – Gold

33.     Which Australian tennis player has recently been inducted into the Tennis Hall of Fame? – Leighton Hewitt

34.     Which city has been ranked first in the QS Best Student Cities Ranking recently? – London

35.     Which city will host the 2028 Summer Olympic Games? – Los Angeles

36.     Which medal has been won by Lovepreet Singh in 109 kg weight category – Bronze medal

37.     Which ministry has launched the language certificate selfie campaign? – Ministry of Education

38.     With reference to ‘Minorities’ (or ‘Minority’) in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. All minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
2. The protection under Article 29 is confined only to minorities and does not extend to any section of citizens.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Article 29:
It provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same.
It grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities.
However, the SC held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only, as the use of the word ‘section of citizens’ in the Article includes minorities as well as the majority.
Article 30:
S1: All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
S2: The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic)and does not extend to any section of citizens (as under Article 29).

39.     With reference to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the following statements:
1. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities has been inserted to the constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganization Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. This article contains the following provisions: There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of India.
It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution. He would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such reports before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of the states concerned.

40.     Which Indian Lieutenant General has recently been made the Force Commander of the United Nations Mission in South Sudan? – Mohan Subramaniam

41.     Which Indian state has recently started a new scheme named ‘Nari Ko Naman’? – Himachal Pradesh

42.     With reference to ‘National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem- NAMASTE scheme’, consider the following statements
1. The scheme aims to achieve zero fatalities in sanitation work in India
2. It is a joint venture of Ministry of Social Justice and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
The scheme aims to achieve outcomes like: Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India ,No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter ,All Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers have access to alternative livelihoods
Statement 2 Incorrect
The scheme is a joint venture of Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Context – The Government has formulated a National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem- NAMASTE scheme for cleaning of sewers and septic tank.

43.     Where has Union Minister Prahlad Singh Patel inaugurated the National Conference on Bajra? – New Delhi

44.     Where was the 32nd summit of NATO 2022 held recently? – Madrid, Spain

45.     Which ministry has approved the ‘New India Literacy Program’ for the education of adults? – Ministry of Education

46.     Which of the following are associated with North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
1. Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC)
2. Mediterranean Dialogue
3. Istanbul Cooperation Initiative
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
NATO participates in three alliances that expand its influence beyond its 30 member countries.
Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC), Mediterranean Dialogue and Istanbul Cooperation Initiative (ICI).

47.     Which of the following is/are the demerits of the Parliamentary System?
1. Government by Amateurs
2. Not conductive to administrative efficiency
3. Separation of Powers
Select the correct answer code:
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 2 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Government by Amateurs: the parliamentary system is not conductive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers; his choice is restricted to the members of Parliament alone and does not extend to external talent.
In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive.

48.     With reference to ‘P-notes’, consider the following statements
1. It is an instrument issued by a registered foreign institutional investor (FII) to an overseas investor who wishes to invest in Indian stock markets
2. Any entity investing in participatory notes is not required to register with SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
3. These notes are a unique Indian invention by SEBI to enable foreign corporates and high networth investors enter the Indian market
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) All the above
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
A participatory note, commonly known as a P-note or PN, is an instrument issued by a registered foreign institutional investor (FII) to an overseas investor who wishes to invest in Indian stock markets without registering themselves with the market regulator, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Statement 2 Correct
Any entity investing in participatory notes is not required to register with SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), whereas all FIIs have to compulsorily get registered. It enables large hedge funds to carry out their operations without disclosing their identity.
Statement 3 Correct
SEBI permitted foreign institutional investors to register and participate in the Indian stock market in 1992. These notes are a unique Indian invention started in 2000 by SEBI to enable foreign corporates and high networth investors enter the Indian market without having to go through the process of registering as Foreign Institutional Investor (FII)
Context – Investment via P-notes saw a slump

49.     Which of the following schedules of the constitution gives a clear constitutional recognition to the existence of the system of “political parties” in India?
 a) Third Schedule
 b) Tenth Schedule
 c) Seventh Schedule
 d) Ninth Schedule
Solution: b)
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (which embodies the anti-defection law) is designed to prevent the evil or mischief of political defections motivated by the lure of office or material benefits or other similar considerations. Since the anti-defection provisions clearly mention the existence of political parties (and members being disqualified on leaving its membership), the Tenth schedule recognizes the system of political parties.

50.     Which of the following countries are part of both QUAD and AUKUS?
1. Australia
2. United States
3. Japan
4. India
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 2 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3, 4
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
The countries under AUKUS include Australia, USA and UK whereas QUAD includes the United States, India, Japan and Australia.

51.     With reference to ‘Registrar General of India’, consider the following statements
1. Office of RGI is responsible for conducting and analyzing demographic surveys like Census of India
2. It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, founded in 1961 by Government of India Ministry of Home Affairs, for arranging, conducting and analysing the results of the demographic surveys of India including Census of India and Linguistic Survey of India.
Statement 2 Incorrect
The office of the Registrar General of India comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
 Context – The organization was in news recently.

52.     WHO’s REPLACE programme sometimes seen in news is related to
 a) Replacing Palm oils
 b) Replacing Artificial Sugar
 c) Replacing artificial trans-fats
 d) Replacing Cholesterol
Solution: c)
World Health Organization (WHO) had launched comprehensive plan “REPLACE” to eliminate industrially-produced artificial trans-fats from global food supply by 2023.

53.     Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?
Minimum Support Price
1. Government’s trading
2. Government’s stockpiling
3. Consumer subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
 (a) 1,2 and 4 only
 (b) 1,3 and 4 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
All of the above activities will affect the price of rice in India.
Context: India has witnessed a shortfall in rice acreage while the overall crop coverage has risen.

54.     With respect to Sasakawa Award 2022, consider the following statements:
1. It is the UN’s highest environmental honour.
2. It was established in 2005 by United Nations Environment Programme (UN Environment).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
S1: The annual Champions of the Earth Awardis the UN’s highest environmental honour. It recognizes outstanding leaders from government, civil society, and the private sector
S2: The United Nations Sasakawa Award for Disaster Risk Reduction is a global award established in 1986 by the founding Chairman of the Nippon Foundation, Mr Ryoichi Sasakawa for recognising excellence in reducing disaster risk.
SEEDS has been working with the communities across South Asia over for the last 28 years.

55.     Which medal has Saurav Ghoshal won in squash singles – Silver

56.     With reference to Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO), consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent intergovernmental international organization.
2. It founded in Shanghai on 15 June 2001.
3. The Heads of Government Council (HGC) is the supreme decision-making body in the SCO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is an intergovernmental organization founded in Shanghai on 15 June 2001.
The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the supreme decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once a year and adopts decisions and guidelines on all important matters of the organisation. The SCO Heads of Government Council (HGC) meets once a year to discuss the organisation’s multilateral cooperation strategy and priority areas, to resolve current important economic and other cooperation issues, and also to approve the organisation’s annual budget. The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese.

57.     Which Indian state and city has been included in Time Magazine’s The World’s Greatest Places of 2022? – Kerala and Ahmedabad

58.     With reference to ‘Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) scheme’, consider the following statements
1. The scheme is being implemented by Directorate General of Foreign Trade
2. Financial assistance in the form of grant-in-aid is provided to Central/State Government owned agencies
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
The Department of Commerce, Government of India is implementing the Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) w.e.f. FY 2017-18 with the objective of assisting Central and State Government agencies in the creation of appropriate infrastructure for growth of exports.
Statement 2 Correct
Under the scheme, financial assistance in the form of grant-in-aid is provided to Central/State Government owned agencies (or their Joint Ventures with major stake-holding by them) for setting up or up-grading export infrastructure in States/UTs.
 Context – 206 Crore released to States for promotion of exports under TIES scheme

59.     Which medal has been won by Tulika Mann for India in Judo – Silver

60.     Consider the following statements about the UDAY Scheme:
1. It allows state governments, which own the DISCOMs, to take over 75 percent of their debt and pay back lenders by selling bonds.
2. Borrowing is to be included for calculating fiscal deficit of the State.
3. The scheme is mandatory for the states to join.
4. The scheme is applicable to only state-owned DISCOMS.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only       b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only       d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
It allows state governments, which own the DISCOMs, to take over 75 percent of their debt as of September 30, 2015, and pay back lenders by selling bonds.
Borrowing is not to be included for calculating fiscal deficit of the State.
The scheme is optional for the states to join.
The scheme is applicable to only state-owned DISCOMS.

61.     Consider the following statements regarding ‘Udham Singh’:
1. He was an Indian revolutionary belonging to Ghadar Party.
2. He killed the commanding officer of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, Reginald Dyer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution: He killed Michael O'Dwyer, the former lieutenant governor of Punjab.
Enrich your learning:
Udham Singh

[Ref-News 18
He was born on 26 December 1899 in Sunam, Punjab.
He was an Indian revolutionary belonging to Ghadar Party and HSRA
He assassinated Michael O'Dwyer, the former lieutenant governor of Punjab.
In England, he was affiliated with the Indian Workers' Association in Coventry and attended their meetings.
He was subsequently tried and convicted of murder and hanged in July 1940.
He is a well-known figure of the Indian independence movement.
He is also referred to as Shaheed-i-Azam Sardar Udham Singh
Why in News?
Recently, Udham Singh's statue was damaged in Ambala.

62.     Which bank has recently won the UiPath Automation Excellence Awards 2021? – South Indian Bank

63.     Consider the following statements regarding UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
1. It is a legally-binding international agreement setting out the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of every child.
2. Under the terms of convention, Governments are required to meet children’s basic needs and help them reach their full potential.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) is a legally-binding international agreement setting out the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of every child, regardless of their race, religion or abilities.
Under the terms of the convention, governments are required to meet children’s basic needs and help them reach their full potential.
The Convention on the Rights of the Child urges all public and private actors to act in the best interests of the child, across all their developmental activities and provision of services.

64.     Consider the following statements.
1. The labour force includes those who are employed and those who are looking for work but unable to get it.
2. The Unemployment Rate is the percentage of people in the labour force who demanded work but did not get it.
3. The fall in Unemployment Rate happens only when more jobs are created.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The Unemployment Rate (or UER) is the percentage of people in the labour force who demanded work but did not get it.
Under normal circumstances, the UER is a perfectly fine metric to track unemployment but in India’s case, and especially over the past decade, UER is becoming ineffective in accurately assessing the true level of unemployment distress. That’s because the labour force itself has been shrinking rapidly.
The labour force includes those who are employed and those who are looking for work but unable to get it (i.e. unemployed).
So, what has been happening over the past decade is that the Labour Force Participation Rate in India has been falling. As such, often when it appears that UER has fallen, it is not because more jobs have been created but because fewer people have demanded jobs (in other words, the LFPR has fallen).
Since millions do not formally “demand” work, there is an undercounting of unemployed people in India. This is why UER fails to adequately capture the unemployment distress in India.

65.     Which country has recently been elected to the UNESCO Intergovernmental Committee for the Protection of Intangible Cultural Heritage? – India

66.     Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNCTO):
1. It is chaired by the Under-Secretary-General for Counter-Terrorism.
2. The head of the UNCTO is appointed by the UN Security Council.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution
The Under-Secretary-General for Counter-Terrorism is appointed by the UN Secretary-General.
Enrich Your Learning
About the UNCTO
The United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism was approved in a resolution on June 15, 2017, with the consensus of the 193-nation UN General Assembly.
It developed the UN Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy to enhance national, regional and international efforts to counter terrorism.
Pillars of the UN Global Counter Terrorism Strategy
Addressing the conditions conducive to the spread of terrorism.
Preventing and combating terrorism.
Building states’ capacity to prevent and combat terrorism and strengthen the role of the UN system in this regard.
Ensuring respect for human rights for all and the rule of law as the fundamental basis of the fight against terrorism.
The Office of Counter-Terrorism has five main functions:
Provide leadership on the General Assembly counter-terrorism mandates entrusted to the Secretary-General from across UN.
Enhance coordination across the Global Counter-Terrorism Coordination Compact entities to ensure the balanced implementation of the four pillars of Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy
Strengthen the delivery of United Nations counter-terrorism capacity-building assistance to Member States
Improve visibility, advocacy and resource mobilization for United Nations counter-terrorism efforts
Ensure that due priority is given to counterterrorism across the United Nations system and that the important work on preventing violent extremism is firmly rooted in the Strategy
Why is it in the news?
The latest report of the UN Office for West Africa and the Sahel (UNOWAS), covering developments over the past six months in areas such as politics, security and human rights, was recently released.

67.     Consider the following statements regarding the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA):
1. It assigns absolute power to the central government to declare an activity unlawful, if it deems so.
2. The penalty under the act will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India.
3. Till 2004, “unlawful" activities referred to actions related to secession and cession of territory but not terrorism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
UAPA was passed in 1967. It aims at effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in India.
Unlawful activity refers to any action taken by an individual or association intended to disrupt the territorial integrity and sovereignty of India.
The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It has death penalty and life imprisonment as highest punishments.
Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court.
Till 2004, “unlawful" activities referred to actions related to secession and cession of territory.
The 2004 amendment added “terrorist act" to the list of offences to ban organisations for terrorist activities, under which 34 outfits were banned. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
The Act empowers the Director General of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency.
The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state.

68.     Consider the following statements:
1. Under Article 101 of the Constitution, MPs do not enjoy the freedom to say whatever they want inside the house.
2. Article 105 of the Constitution, the Speaker has the authority to expunge the words spoken by the MPs from the proceedings of the House.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Unparliamentary Words
There are phrases and words, literally in thousands, both in English and in Indian languages, that are considered “unparliamentary”.
The Presiding Officers — Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairperson of Rajya Sabha — have the job of keeping such words out of Parliament’s records.
For their reference, the Lok Sabha Secretariat has brought out a bulky tome titled ‘Unparliamentary Expressions’.
The last such book was published in 2009.
The book has several words and expressions that would probably be considered rude or offensive in most cultures.
However, it also has stuff that is likely to be thought of as being fairly harmless or innocuous.
The state legislatures too are guided mainly by the same book, first compiled in 1999.
The rules
While Article 105(2) of the Constitution lays down that “no Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof”, MPs do not enjoy the freedom to say whatever they want inside the house.
Whatever an MP says is subject to the discipline of the Rules of Parliament, the “good sense” of Members, and the control of proceedings by the Speaker.
These checks ensure that MPs cannot use “defamatory or indecent or undignified or unparliamentary words” inside the House.
Rule 380 (“Expunction”) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha says: “If the Speaker is of opinion that words have been used in the debate which is defamatory or indecent or unparliamentary or undignified, the Speaker may while exercising discretion order that such words be expunged from the proceedings of the House.”
Rule 381 says: “The portion of the proceedings of the House so expunged shall be marked by asterisks and an explanatory footnote shall be inserted in the proceedings as follows: ‘Expunged as ordered by the Chair’.

69.     Consider the following statements:
1. The 73th constitutional amendment act mandated the setting up and devolution of powers to Urban local bodies (ULBs).
2. Urban governance is part of the state list under the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The 74th Constitution Amendment Act was passed in 1992mandating the setting up and devolution of powers to urban local bodies (ULBs) as the lowest unit of governance in cities and towns.
Constitutional provisions were made for ULBs’ fiscal empowerment.
Urban governance is part of the state list under the Constitution

70.     Which of the following sociologists is associated with the concept of Verstehen?
(a) Karl Max
(b) Max Weber
(c) Harold Garfinkel
(d) Georg Simmel
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution
Enrich Your Learning
About Verstehen
Loosely translating to ‘understanding’ in German, Verstehen is the procedure by which sociologists gain access to the meanings behind human actions.
It was made popular by Max Weber, one of the “founding fathers” of sociology. 
He wrote The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism.
It argues that human actions cannot be analysed by merely adopting the research methods followed in natural sciences with ‘absolute objectivity’.
Weber believed that the interpretation of human actions through recognition and empathy was crucial for a better understanding of social phenomena in society.
Types of Verstehen
Aktuelles Verstehen - direct observational understanding.
Eklarendes Verstehen - empathetic understanding.
Significance of Verstehen
Social action determines structural transition in society.
The causes and meanings attached to it are important in understanding what pushes social change.
Criticism Against Verstehen
It could not be easily validated as the researcher’s understanding and biases influenced their interpretation of actions.
The concept largely focused on society’s role in encouraging certain actions which then led to social changes. This negates individual agency.

71.     Consider the following statements regarding the Office of Vice President of India.
1. The Vice President takes over the office of the President when there is a vacancy.
2. The Vice President is removed from his office by a resolution of both the houses of the parliament by a special majority.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The Vice President is elected for five years. His election method is similar to that of the President, the only difference is that members of State legislatures are not part of the electoral college.
The Vice President acts as the President only until a new President is elected. B. D. Jatti acted as President on the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed until a new President was elected.
The impeachment of Vice President is different from that of the President. In the latter case, both houses must pass the resolution by a special majority.
But the VP may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha with simple majority.

72.     With reference to the election of ‘Vice President of India’, consider the following statements
1. Both elected as well nominated Members of Parliament vote in the election of the Vice-President
2. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by secret ballot
Choose the INCORRECT statements
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
The Electoral College to elect a person to the office of the Vice-President consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament
Statement 2 Correct
The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot
 Context – The election of Vice-President was in news.

73.     Article 66(3) of the Constitution of India says No person shall be eligible for election as Vice-President unless he/she
1. Is a citizen of India
2. Must not be less than 30 years of age.
3. Is qualified for election as a member of the Council of States
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 1 only
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Article 66(3) says “No person shall be eligible for election as Vice-President unless he — (a) is a citizen of India; (b) has completed the age of thirty-five years; and (c) is qualified for election as a member of the Council of States”.

74.     Consider the following statements
1. Vice-President is a member and chairman of Council of States.
2. Vice-President can be removed only through a formal impeachment process similar to that of President.
3. Dr S. Radhakrishnan was elected as Vice President continuously for two terms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 3 only
 (b) 1 and 3 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1 only
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Vice-President is not a member, however he/she is the chairman of Council of States. There is no exact procedure mentioned in Indian Constitution for the removal of Vice President.

75.     To be eligible for election as Vice-President, a person should fulfil which of the following conditions?
1. He should not be less than 30 years of age.
2. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
3. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government or any local authority or any other public authority.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 2 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
To be eligible for election as Vice-President, a person should fulfil the following qualifications:
He should be a citizen of India.
He should have completed 35 years of age.
He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government or any local authority or any other public authority.

76.     Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Office of Vice-President of India?
A The Vice President is the third highest constitutional office in India after the President and the Prime Minister.
B The resolution to remove the Vice President from his/her office, can be passed only by the Lok Sabha.
C For the election of the Vice President, the value of the vote of each Member of Parliament is same i.e., one.
D None of the above.
Explanation
The Vice President is the second highest constitutional office in India after the President. He/She serves for a five-year term but can continue to be in the office. irrespective of the expiry of the term, until the successor assumes office.
The Vice President may resign his office by submitting his resignation to the President of India. The resignation becomes effective from the day it is accepted.
The Vice President can be removed from office by a resolution of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), passed by a majority of its members at that time and agreed to by the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
A resolution for this purpose may be moved only after a notice of at least a minimum of 14 days has been given of such an intention.
The Vice President is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and does not hold any other office of profit.
Eligibility:
Should be a citizen of India.
Should have completed 35 years of age.
Should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
Should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government or any local authority or any other public authority.
Since all the electors are members of both Houses of Parliament, the value of the vote of each Member of Parliament would be the same i.e.,1 (one).
Hence, option C is correct.

77.     Consider the following statements regarding Vice-President of India.
1. The Constitution of India states that a person shall not be eligible for election as Vice-President if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.
2. Vice-President may leave office before the end of his term by submitting a resignation letter to the Deputy Speaker of the Rajya Sabha.
3. All doubts and disputes arising out in connection with the election of Vice-President shall be decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
Under Article 66(4), “A person shall not be eligible for election as Vice-President if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments.”
The Vice-President may leave office before the end of his term by resigning to the President, or he “may be removed…by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People”.
Article 71 of the Constitution deals with “Matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a President or Vice-President”. It says that “all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final”.
Should the Supreme Court declare the election of the President or Vice-President void however, “acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-President,…on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration”.
Also, “Parliament may by law regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or Vice-President”.

78.     Consider the following statements:
1. VIPER is part of NASA’s Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) initiative.
2. The VIPER mission aims to study the surface ice and other potential resources on Moon.
3. The mobile robot part of the mission will land at the North Pole of the moon.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 and 2 only
b.  2 and 3 only
c.  1 and 3 only
d.  1, 2 and 3
Answer : a
VIPER Mission
NASA's Artemis lunar rover, the Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover, or VIPER, will explore the relatively nearby but extreme environment of the Moon in search of ice and other potential resources.
This mobile robot will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2023 on a 100-day mission.
The critical information it provides will teach us about the origin and distribution of water on the Moon and help determine how we can harvest the Moon's resources for future human space exploration.
VIPER is part of NASA’s Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) initiative, which allows the acquisition of lunar delivery services from American companies for payloads for the moon that advance science, exploration, or commercial development capabilities.

79.     Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)?
A Regional web content is not always accessible from everywhere.
B VPNs function like comprehensive anti-virus software.
C Unencrypted data can be viewed by anyone who has network access.
D While using a VPN connection one can switch a server to another country and effectively change location.
Explanation
Virtual Private Networks (VPNs):
A VPN hides the user’s IP address by letting the network redirect it through a specially configured remote server run by a VPN host.
This means that if a user is surfing online with a VPN, the VPN server becomes the source of data.
Internet Service Provider (ISP) and other third parties cannot see which websites the user visits or data sent and received online.
Benefits:
Secures encryption:
A VPN connection disguises data traffic online and protects it from external access.
Unencrypted data can be viewed by anyone who has network access. With a VPN, the government, hackers and cyber criminals can’t decipher this data.
Access to regional content:
Regional web content is not always accessible from everywhere. Services and websites often contain content that can only be accessed from certain parts of the world. Standard connections use local servers in the country to determine your location.
With VPN location spoofing, one can switch a server to another country and effectively change location.
Secure data transfer:
VPN services connect to private servers and use encryption methods to reduce the risk of data leakage providing secured passage for data.
Limitations:
Reduced Internet Speed: Since VPNs require your traffic to be routed via a VPN server, it could take longer to reach your destination website.
Not Anti-Virus Software: VPNs do not function like comprehensive anti-virus software. While they protect one’s IP and encrypt one’s internet history, a VPN connection does not protect one’s computer from outside intrusion.
Hence, option B is correct.

80.     Where has Indian Naval Air Squadron 324 been commissioned recently? – Visakhapatnam

81.     Consider the following statements regarding the deficiency of Vitamin D in human body.
Vitamin D deficiency is often associated with rickets.
In the absence of vitamin D, the skeletal muscle is starved of energy, decreasing muscle mass.
It leads to softening of bones resulting in skeletal deformities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
In the absence of vitamin D, the skeletal muscle is starved of energy, decreasing muscle mass.
Vitamin D deficiency is often associated with rickets. In rickets, the bone tissue does not correctly mineralise calcium and phosphorus, leading to softening of bones resulting in skeletal deformities.

82.     Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The correct answer is 1 and 3.
Key Points
Methods for Minimizing Water Stress and Improving Water Resources:
• Using surface residue covers to increase infiltration and reduce runoff –
○ A residue cover absorbs most of the energy of the raindrops that fall on it and by the time this rainwater reaches the soil below, its ability to disintegrate soil aggregates and detach fine particles is greatly reduced. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Using Impermeable and permeable contour barriers at discrete intervals downslope combined with reduced tillage, or preferably zero tillage as in conservation agriculture. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The incorporation of lime without or with gypsum will reduce toxic concentrations of aluminium and/or manganese to non-toxic levels and so encourage deeper rooting enabling the crop to access more soil moisture and so increase productivity and help in water conservation. However, according to Official UPSC Answer key, 1 and 3 is correct. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

83.     Consider the following statements regarding Western Ghats.
1. The Western Ghats are second only to the Eastern Himalaya as a treasure trove of biological diversity in India.
2. Western Ghats region runs from the mouth of the river Tapti near the border of Gujarat and Maharashtra to Kanyakumari.
3. K. Kasturirangan committee designated the entire hill range of Western Ghats as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2, 3
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Recognised as one of the world’s biodiversity hotspots, the Western Ghats region runs to a length of 1,600 km starting from the mouth of the river Tapti near the border of Gujarat and Maharashtra to Kanyakumari, the southernmost tip of India in Tamil Nadu. It stretches over the six States of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. The Ghats are second only to the Eastern Himalaya as a treasure trove of biological diversity in the country.
The WGEEP report, popular as Gadgil report, had designated the entire hill range as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA). It had classified the 142 taluks in the Western Ghats boundary into three Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZs).

84.     Which of the following are the destabilising geological processes that pose a serious threat to human habitation in the highlands of western Ghats?
1. Soil piping
2. Lateral spread
3. Land subsidence
Select the correct answer code:
 (a) 1 Only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Destabilising geological processes, coupled with extreme rainfall events and unscientific farming and construction activities, pose a serious threat to human habitation in the highlands of Kerala, according to scientists.
A team of scientists from the National Centre for Earth Science Studies (NCESS) who carried out an investigation in the wake of the heavy rain and devastating floods in August 2018 had found that land subsidence, lateral spread, and soil piping were an immediate threat to life and property in the uplands.

85.     Consider the following statements regarding Wheat cultivation in India.
1. Wheat is a major cereal cropin India and is grown mainly in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions.
2. It requires cool, moist weatherduring the major portion of the growing period followed by dry, warm weather to enable the grain to ripen properly.
3. Soils with moderate water holding capacity are ideal for wheat cultivation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 (b) 2 only
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
Wheat cultivation in India traditionally been dominated by the northern region of India. The northern states of Punjab and Haryana Plains in India have been prolific wheat producers.
It is a Rabi Crop sown in October-December and harvested during April-June.
Temperature required: Between 23±3°C and for good tillering temperature should range between 16-20°C.
Better variety of wheat is produced in areas having cool, moist weather during the major portion of the growing period followed by dry, warm weather to enable the grain to ripen properly.
Rainfall: 50 cm to 100 cm.
Soil Type: Soils with a clay loam or loam texture, good structure and moderate water holding capacity are ideal for wheat cultivation.
Wheat producing states in India: Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar and Gujarat.

86.     Consider the following statements about the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
1.  WPI measures the average price that households pay for a basket of different goods and services.
2.  The base year for WPI is 2011-2012.
3.  It is released by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: Wholesale Price Index measures and tracks the changes in the price of goods in the stages before the retail level. It provides estimates of inflation at the wholesale transaction level for the economy as a whole.
•  WPI basket does not cover services.
•  Statement 3 is correct: It is released by the Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
•  Statement 2 is correct: The base year is 2011-2012.
•  The index basket consists of commodities under 3 main categories in decreasing order of weightage: Manufactured products, Primary Articles and Fuel and Power.

87.     Recently, India signed a MoU on ‘Wildlife Conservation and Sustainable Biodiversity Utilization’ with which of the following countries?
 a) Kenya
 b) Iran
 c) Namibia
 d) Sweden
Solution(c)
Government of India and Government of the Republic of Namibia have entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on wildlife conservation and sustainable biodiversity utilization, today, for establishing the cheetah into the historical range in India. The MoU facilitates development of a mutually beneficial relationship to promote wildlife conservation and sustainable biodiversity utilization based on the principles of mutual respect, sovereignty, equality and the best interest of both India and Namibia.
Context – The MoU was signed recently.

88.     With reference to the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, consider the following statements.
1.  Both the Central & State governments have the authority to declare a species as vermin.
2.  Any wild animal listed in Schedule I to IV of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 can be declared as a vermin.
3.  Wild animals declared as vermin will be included in Schedule V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, depriving them of protections under that law.
Which of the following statements are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 3 only
Answer: D
Sol:
•  The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 divides species into ‘schedules’ ranked from I to VI.
•  Out of the six schedules, Schedule I and Schedule II species are afforded the highest levels of protection under the law as they are extremely rare, endemic, or endangered.
•  Species under Schedules III and IV are also protected, but the penalties are lower.
•  Statements 1 & 2 are incorrect: Under Section 62 of WPA, the Central Government may, on the requests from the respective States, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I & Part II of Schedule II (that lists most endangered and iconic species like tigers, leopards, and elephants) of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of time for selective slaughter.
•  Statement 3 is correct: As long as the notification is in force such wild animals shall be included in Schedule V of the law, depriving them of any protection under that law.
•  A species is declared as vermin
o  if they have become dangerous to human life or property, or
o  if they have become so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery.
•  Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 regulates and restricts cultivation, possession and sale of a rare plant species. It includes beddome’s cycad, blue vanda, kuth, ladies slipper orchids, the pitcher plant and red vanda.

89.     Who are the winners of Wimbledon women’s and men’s title in 2022? Elena Rybakina, Novak Djokovic
23-year-old player Elena Rybakina became the first player from Kazakhstan to win a grand slam title. She also became the youngest Wimbledon champion since 2011.
Novak Djokovic won his fourth straight Wimbledon men’s singles title, and his 21st grand slam title overall. He is now one grand slam title behind the all-time record set by Rafael Nadal of 22.

90.     Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Windfall tax is a tax that is imposed on companies when their profits fall below average.
2. Windfall tax on export of petrol has been removed by the government recently to counter fears of a global recession.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
A windfall tax is a higher tax rate imposed on a certain business or sector in the circumstances of unexpected large profits. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Indian government has cut the recently imposed cesses and levies on diesel and aviation turbine fuel (ATF) and removed the cess on exports of petrol amid fears of a global recession. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Additional excise duties equal to Rs 6 per litre on exports of petrol have been removed.

91.     Consider the following statements:
1. Wolbachia are natural bacteria present in up to 60% of insect species, including some mosquitoes.
2. The Wolbachia inhibits the multiplication of the chikungunya virus when present in the mosquitoes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Wolbachia bacteria blocks the proliferation of harmful viruses but doesn’t harm the mosquitoes themselves
Wolbachia is a bug which is found in 60% of insects naturally. But in the Aedes mosquito, this bug is in very low frequencies.
Wolbachia inhibits dengue and chikungunya virus replication in mosquitoes

92.     Consider the following statements regarding Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP).
1. WEP is the initiative of Ministry of Women and Child Development.
2. It will provide an ecosystem for budding & existing women entrepreneurs across the country along with hands-on support in setting-up and scaling up businesses.
3. It will provide services such as free credit ratings, mentorship, funding support to women entrepreneurs, apprenticeship and corporate partnerships.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
NITI Aayog has launched a Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) for providing an ecosystem for budding & existing women entrepreneurs across the country. SIDBI has partnered with NITI Aayog to assist in this initiative.
As an enabling platform, WEP is built on three pillars- Iccha Shakti, Gyaan Shakti & Karma Shakti
Iccha Shakti represents motivating aspiring entrepreneurs to start their business
Gyaan Shaktirepresents providing knowledge and ecosystem support to women entrepreneurs to help them foster entrepreneurship
Karma Shaktirepresents providing hands-on support to entrepreneurs in setting-up and scaling up businesses
In addition to providing services such as free credit ratings, mentorship, funding support to women entrepreneurs, apprenticeship and corporate partnerships; WEP will encourage entrepreneurs to share their entrepreneurial journeys, stories & experiences to nurture mutual learning.

93.     Denial of Safe Haven initiative’ and ‘Workshop on Anti-Corruption and Economic Development’ are associated with which bloc? BRICS
Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh recently addressed the BRICS Anti-Corruption Ministerial Meet and reiterated India’s commitment to implement the FATF Anti-Money Laundering and Counter Terrorism financing standards.
Dr Jitendra Singh expressed satisfaction over the finalization of the BRICS Denial of Safe Haven initiative and shared experiences at the BRICS Workshop on Anti-Corruption and Economic Development.

94.     Consider the following statements regarding 2021 World Air Quality Report:
1. It is based on PM2.5 and PM10 air pollution data.
2. China is the most polluted country in the World.
3. Delhi has been ranked as the most polluted capital city in the world.
4. It is prepared by IQAir.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution:
2021 World Air Quality Report is based on PM2.5 air pollution data.
Bangladesh is the most polluted country in the World.
Enrich your learning:
World Air Quality Report
IQAir's 2021 World Air Quality Report is the first global air quality report based on the annual WHO air quality guideline for PM2.5.
The report is based on PM2.5 air pollution data from ground-based air quality monitoring stations in 6,475 cities in 117 countries, regions, and territories.
Highlights of the Report:
The top five most polluted countries in 2021 were: Bangladesh, Chad, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and India.
The report covered 2,406 cities and found that average PM2.5 concentrations rose from 9.6 µg/m3 to 10.3 µg/m3 in 2021 compared to 2020.
Only 222 out of 6,475 global cities met the updated WHO PM2.5 guideline.
Of the major cities in the United States, Los Angeles was the most polluted.
Central and South Asia had some of the world's worst air quality in 2021 and was home to 47 of the world's 50 most polluted cities.
Of 1,887 Asian cities, only four met updated the guideline.
India’s Performance:
35 of the 50 topmost polluted cities in the world are in India.
India’s annual average PM 2.5 levels rose to 58.1 mcm in 2021.
In 2020, India’s average annual PM2.5 level was 51.9.
Delhi has been ranked as the most polluted capital city in the world.
Delhi also ranked third in the 15 most polluted regional cities in central and southeast Asia.
Rajasthan’s Bhiwadi topped this list with 106.2 average annual PM 2.5 levels.
Why in News?
Recently, the 2021 World Air Quality Report was released.

95.     What is the position of India in the medal tally in the recently held World Athletics Championships 2022?– 33rd

96.     When is the ‘World Day for International Justice’ observed? July 17
The World Day for International Justice is observed on July 17 every year to sensitise on international justice and to promote the rights of the victims.
It is also known as the Day of International Criminal Justice, and celebrates the approval of the Rome Statute and the formation of the new international criminal justice system in 1998. Over 139 countries have signed the International Criminal Court’s Treaty.

97.     Consider the following statements:
1. The World Population Prospects are published by the Population Division of the United Nations.
2. According to the WPP 2022, the global population is expected to grow to around 8.5 billion in 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
World Population Prospects (WPP):
The Population Division of the UN has been publishing the WPP in a biennial cycle since 1951. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Each revision of the WPP provides a historical time series of population indicators starting in 1950.
It does so by taking into account newly released national data to revise estimates of past trends in fertility, mortality or international migration.
According to the WPP 2022, the global population is expected to grow to around 8.5 billion in 2030, 9.7 billion in 2050 and 10.4 billion in 2100. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

98.     With reference to ‘World Population Prospects’ (WPP) report, consider the following statements:
1. The Population Division of the UN has been publishing the WPP in a biennial cycle since 1971.
2. Each revision of the WPP provides a historical time series of population indicators starting in 1970.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation: World Population Prospects:
The Population Division of the UN has been publishing the WPP in a biennial cycle since 1951.
Each revision of the WPP provides a historical time series of population indicators starting in 1950.
It does so by taking into account newly released national datato revise estimates of past trends in fertility, mortality or international migration.

99.     World Population Prospects is released by:
a) United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs
b) World Economic Forum
c) World Inequality Lab
d) Oxfam
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs released the World Population Prospects 2022, the 27th edition of official UN population estimates and projections prepared by the department’s Population Division.
The WPP has been preparing the biennial report since 1951.

100.  Consider the following statements regarding the ‘World Summit on the Information Society (WSIS)’:
1. The first phase of the summit was held in 2003 in Tunis.
2. It aims to bridge the global digital divide separating rich countries from poor countries by increasing internet accessibility in the developing world.
3. WSIS forums are hosted by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution: The first phase of the summit was held in 2003 in Geneva.
Enrich your learning:
World Summit on the Information Society
It is a unique two-phase United Nations (UN).
It was initiated in order to create an evolving multi-stakeholder platform aimed at addressing the issues raised by information and communication technologies (ICTs) through a structured and inclusive approach at the national, regional, and international levels.
Objective: To achieve a common vision, desire, and commitment to build a people-centric, inclusive, and development-oriented Information Society where everyone can create, access, utilize and share information.
Both the phase took place in 2003 in Geneva and in 2005 in Tunis, respectively.
These forums are organized each year and hosted by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Why in News?
The Meghalaya Enterprise Architecture (MeghEA) project to improve governance and service delivery at the grassroots level in the state has been nominated for the UN Awards in the World Summit on the Information Society Forum 2022.

 

Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)