Daily Current Affairs Questions
August 2022 Part 9
Why in News
1.
All
India Football Federation
2.
Balikatan
2022’
3.
Bandhan
Bank
4.
Banthia
Commission
5.
Baudhayana Sutras’
6.
Book Beyond the Misty Vei
7.
Book
Dilip Kumar: In the Shadow of a Legend
8.
Book
Getting the Bread: The Gen-Z Way to Success
9.
Bosch
India
10.
Brijesh
Kumar
11. C40 Cities Climate Leadership Group
12.
Central
Board of Secondary Education
13.
Chandra
Shekhar Azad
14. Chin Community
15. Code on Social Security
16. Ecological Sensitive Zone (ESZ)
17.
Exercise
‘Khan Quest 2022’
18.
First
‘Har Ghar Jal’ certified district
19.
First
Liquid Mirror Telescope
20.
First
Super 500 title in Singapore Open
21.
Fugaku
22. Gaganyaan
23.
Gender
Dialogue
24.
HCL
Technology
25. I2U2
26. I2U2
27. India Innovation Index(III)
28.
India’s
first brain health clinic
29.
India’s
first centralized AC railway terminal
30.
India’s
first nuclear missile tracking ship
31.
India’s
first portable solar rooftop system
32.
India’s
first vertical lift railway bridge
33. Indian Antarctic Bill
34.
INS
Dunagiri
35.
INS
Nishank and INS Akshay
36.
INS
Tarkash
37.
Khuvsgul
Lake National Park
38.
Ladli
Laxmi Yojana
39.
Lata
Mangeshkar
40.
Leicester
Cricket Ground
41.
Locked
Shields
42.
Mairaj
Ahmed Khan
43.
Manesar
44.
Maritime partnership exercise
45.
Maritime partnership exercise
46.
Maryina
Vyjowska
47.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(MTP) Act
48.
Microsoft
Partner of the Year Awards 2022
49. Minimum Support Price (MSP)
50.
Ministry
of Environment
51.
Ministry
of Women and Child Development
52. Minority status in India
53. Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH)
54.
Mission
Vatsalya
55.
Nagpur
56. Namsai Declaration
57. National Coal Index
58.
National
Small Industries Corporation
59.
Nirmal
Singh Kahlon
60. Nuclear plant and State
61.
Olympic
level sports complex
62.
Panchkula
63.
Paper
import monitoring system
64. Pinaka
65. President of India and Sri Lanka
66. Project -75(I)
67.
Punit
Sagar Abhiyan
68. Rebate of State and Central Levies and Taxes (RoSCTL)
Scheme’
69. Rice
70. Samta Nyay Kendras
71.
Shanan
Dhaka
72. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
73.
Shanghai Cooperation
Organizational structure
74. Single-use
plastic (SUP) ban
75.
Soft landing
76.
'Soil
Health Card Scheme
77. Sovereign Wealth Funds
78. Sovereignty
79. Special Drawing Rights
80. Sports
81. SPRINT Challenges
82.
Student READY Scheme
83. Sun Temple
84.
Sunil
Gavaskar
85.
Suraksha
Manthan 2022
86. Surety Bonds
87. Surplus
88. Suspension of
MLAs
89. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
90.
Swadhar
Greh Scheme
91. Systematic Observations Financing
Facility (SOFF):
92. TEEB
initiative
93.
Tele–Law
94.
Tele-law
services in India
95. Tibet
96. Tobacco
97. Tobacco
98.
Trans-Giri region
99. Transport and Marketing Assistance (TMA)
100. Triboelectric effect
1.
Who
has been made the chairman of the advisory committee of All India Football Federation? – Ranjit Bajaj
2.
America
and which country has conducted the biggest military exercise ‘Balikatan 2022’? – Philippines
3.
In
which city Bandhan Bank has set up its
first currency chest? – Patna
4.
‘Banthia Commission’ seen in news recently is related to
a) Reservation in local bodies
b) Central Bank Digital Currency
c) Small scale industries
d) Railway restructuring
Solution(a)
The Jayantkumar Banthia Commission, in its report, recommended that OBCs
should be given up to 27 percent reservation in local bodies. As the court
accepted this report, OBCs will get 27 percent political reservation in local
self-government elections in the state.
Context – The commission was in news recently
5.
Consider the following statements
with respect to ‘Baudhayana Sutras’
1. They are a group of Vedic texts which cover dharma,
daily ritual and mathematics
2. The sutras were compiled during the reign of King Ashoka
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
The Baudhāyana sūtras are a group of Vedic Sanskrit texts which cover dharma,
daily ritual, mathematics and is one of the oldest Dharma-related texts of
Hinduism that have survived into the modern age from the 1st-millennium BCE
Statement 2 Incorrect
The period of Baudhayana Sulbasutra is uncertain, there being no direct
internal evidence useful in this respect. I t is estimated based on linguistic
and other secondary historical considerations and have varied substantially
depending on the author. By and large, in recent literature, Baudhayana
Sulbasutra is taken to be from around 800 BCE. Whereas, Ashoka ruled from
304-232 BC
Context – The text was in news due to a part
in the text which resembles Pythagoras Theorem.
6.
Uttarakhand
Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami has released the book ‘Beyond the Misty Veil’ written by whom? – Aradhana
Johri
7.
A
book titled ‘Dilip Kumar: In the Shadow of a Legend’
written by whom has been published? – Faizal Farooqui
8.
A
new book titled ‘Getting the Bread: The Gen-Z Way to
Success’ written by whom has been released? – Prarthana Batra
9.
PM
Modi has inaugurated the ‘Smart’ campus of Bosch
India in which city? – Bangalore
10.
Who
has been appointed as the new Vice President of Goa Shipyard?- Brijesh Kumar
11.
Consider the following statements
regarding ‘C40 Cities Climate Leadership Group’
1. It is an initiative of United Nations Environment
Program
2. C40 offers membership only to megacities which are willing to become climate
positive
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
In 2006, Mayor Livingstone and the Clinton Climate Initiative (CCI)—led by the
efforts of former U.S. President Bill Clinton—combined to strengthen both
organizations, bringing the number of cities in the network to 40 and helping
to deliver projects and project management for participating cities to further
enhance emissions reductions efforts.
Not an initiative of WEF.
Statement 2 Incorrect
While C40 originally targeted megacities for their greater capacity to
address climate change, C40 now offers three types of membership categories to
reflect the diversity of cities taking action to address climate change. The
categories consider such characteristics as population size, economic output,
environmental leadership, and the length of a city’s membership.C40 now offers
three types of membership categories to reflect the diversity of cities taking
action to address climate change.
Types: Megacities
Innovator cities
Observer cities
12.
Who
has launched a portal named ‘Pariksha Sangam’? – Central
Board of Secondary Education
13.
In
which city the grand statue of Chandra Shekhar Azad
will be installed? – Bhopal
14. ‘Chin’, a community seen in news recently are native to
a) Afghanistan
b) Lebanon
c) Indonesia
d) Myanmar
Solution(d)
The Chin people are a Southeast Asian Zo people native to Chin State and
its neighbouring states of Myanmar. The Chin are one of the founding groups
(Chin, Kachin, Shan and Bamar) of the Union of Burma. It is to be noted that
the Mizo people in Mizoram, India and the Chin are both Zo people, who share
the same history with each other.
Context – The military coup in Myanmar has displaced half a million
Myanmarese within the country and forcing more than 50,000 ethnic Chin and
others to seek refuge outside.
15. Consider the following statements about The Code on Social Security, 2020.
1. The Code excludes workers employed
through contractors from its definition of ‘employees’.
2. The Code mandates the central
government to set up a social security fund for unorganised workers, gig
workers and platform workers.
3. According to the Code, gratuity is
payable on the termination of employment, if the employee has been in the
organisation for at least five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Sol:
The Code on Social Security, 2020
• It replaces nine laws related to
social security, including the Employees’ Provident Fund Act, 1952, the
Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, and the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act,
2008. Social security refers to measures to ensure access to health care and
provision of income security to workers.
• Changes in definitions: The Code
changes the definitions of certain terms.
These include: (i) expanding the definition of ‘employees’ to include
workers employed through contractors, (ii) expanding the definition of
“inter-state migrant workers” to include self-employed workers from another
state, (iii) expanding the definition of “platform worker” to additional
categories of services or activities as may be notified by the government, (iv)
expanding the definition of audio-visual productions to include films,
web-based serials, talk shows, reality shows and sports shows, and (v)
exempting construction works from the ambit of “building or other construction
work” if the total cost of construction work exceeds Rs 50 lakhs (and if they
employ more than a certain notified number of workers). Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
• The central government will set up a
social security fund for unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers.
Further, state governments will also set up and administer separate social
security funds for unorganised workers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Gig workers refer to workers outside
of the traditional employer-employee relationship (e.g., freelancers). Platform
workers are workers who access other organisations or individuals using online
platforms and earn money by providing them with specific services. Unorganised workers include home-based and
self-employed workers.
• The Code makes provisions for
registration of all three categories of workers - unorganised workers, gig
workers and platform workers.
• National Social Security for gig
workers and platform workers: The Code
provides for the establishment of the National Social Security Board and
various state-level boards for welfare of unorganised sector workers, gig
workers and platform workers and can recommend and monitor schemes for
them.
• Term of eligibility for gratuity: Gratuity
is payable on the termination of employment, if the employee has been in the
organisation for at least five years. The Code extends gratuity entitlement to
fixed term employees as well. Such employees would be paid gratuity based on
the term of their employment contracts on a pro-rata basis, even if the
contract period is less than 5 years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
16. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ecological Sensitive Zone (ESZ)’
1. The term ‘ESZ’ is defined in the Wild Life (Protection)
Act of 1972.
2. An ESZ could go up to 50 kilometers around a protected area.
3. Only Central government can declare a region to be an ESZ.
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
ESZ
draws its power from the Environment Protection Act of 1986. The Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-Sensitive Zones”.
However, Section 3(2)(v) of the Act, says that Central Government can restrict
areas in which any industries, operations or processes or class of industries,
operations or processes shall not be carried out or shall be carried out
subject to certain safeguards. Besides Rule 5(1) of the Environment
(Protection) Rules, 1986.
Statement 2 Incorrect
An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometres around a protected area as provided in
the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002. Moreover, in case where sensitive
corridors, connectivity and ecologically important patches, crucial for
landscape linkage, are beyond 10 kilometers width, these should be included in
the Eco-Sensitive Zones
Statement 3 Correct
Eco Sensitive Zones are notified by the Ministry of Environment Forests and
Climate Change. State Governments to forward proposals for declaration of
eco-sensitive zones around its Protected Areas. However, only States like
Haryana, Gujarat, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Assam, Goa have forwarded proposals.
However, several other States/Union Territories have not come forward, perhaps
for want of guidelines in this regard.
Context: Kerala has opposed
Supreme Court‘s order on SEZ.
17.
In
which country Indian Army contingent has participated in the exercise ‘Khan Quest 2022’? – Mongolia
18.
Which
state’s district Burhanpur has become the country’s first
‘Har Ghar Jal’ certified district? – Madhya Pradesh
19.
In
which state the country’s first Liquid Mirror
Telescope has been installed recently? – Uttarakhand
20.
Which
Indian badminton player has won the first Super 500
title in Singapore Open 2022? – PV Sindhu
21.
‘Frontier’
became the world’s fastest supercomputer overtaking Japan’s ‘Fugaku’, it belongs to which country? – America
22. Consider the following statements
related to ‘Gaganyaan (crewed orbital spacecraft)’
1. The crewed mission is planned to be
launched on ISRO’s GSLV Mk III
2. Vyommitra, a female-looking robot will accompany the other astronauts in the
mission
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
Gaganyaan is an Indian crewed orbital spacecraft intended to be the formative
spacecraft of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme. In its maiden crewed
mission, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)’s largely autonomous 5.3
metric tonnes capsule will orbit the Earth at 400 km altitude for up to seven
days with a two or three-person crew on board. The first crewed mission is
originally planned to be launched on ISRO’s GSLV Mk III
Statement 2 Correct
Vyommitra is a female-looking spacefaring humanoid robot being developed by
the Indian Space Research Organisation to function on-board the Gaganyaan, a
crewed orbital spacecraft.
Context: Gaganyaan mission, which was to be
launched this year has been delayed.
23.
‘Gender Dialogue’ has been organized by whom? –
Ministry of Rural Development
24.
Which
company has been given Microsoft Partner of the Year Awards 2022? – HCL Technology
25. Consider the following statements regarding I2U2:
1. It is a grouping consisting of India, Israel,
UAE(United Arab Emirates) and United states of America.
2. It is a Military and security alliance for peace and prosperity within the
region.
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
The
I2U2 Group is a grouping of India, Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and the
United States.
Iran is not a part of this grouping.
It is also referred to as the ‘West Asian Quad’.
Statement 2 Incorrect
The group’s first joint statement, released recently, states that the
countries aim to cooperate on “joint investments and new initiatives in water,
energy, transportation, space, health, and food security. Thus it is not a
military and security alliance.
Context: Recently PM Modi participated in
virtual summit of I2U2.
26. What is ‘I2U2’, sometime mentioned in the news?
(a) A joint
project between NASA and ISRO
(b) A strategy initiated by the India
that seeks to connect Asia with USA
(c) A new grouping of India with some
middle East nations
(d) An agreement on the Indian nuclear
program
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
It was initially formed in October, 2021 following the Abraham Accords between
Israel and the UAE, to deal with issues concerning maritime security,
infrastructure and transport in the region.
At that time, it was called the ‘International Forum for Economic
Cooperation’, referred to as the ‘West Asian Quad’.
I2U2 initiative is a new grouping of India, Israel, USA and UAE.
This will not only revitalize and re-energize the system of alliances and
partnerships around the world, but also stitch together partnerships that did
not exist previously or were not utilized to their full extent.
27. Consider the following statements regarding India Innovation Index(III)
1. The index is released by the NITI Aayog with the help
of the Confederation of Indian Industry
2. The index is based on a cumulative average of Social capital, Investment and
knowledge worker
Select the INCORRECT statement/s:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
The NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute for Competitiveness
developed benchmark for the innovation ecosystem among Indian States and Union
territories.
Statement 2 Incorrect
Indicators used for ranking are :-
*Five Enablers pillars ( Human capital , Investment, Knowledge worker, Business
Environment, Safety and Legal Environment)
*Two Performance Pillars (Knowledge Output, Knowledge Diffusion).
Context: Karnataka state tops NITI Aayog’s
India Innovation Index list
28.
In
which city India’s first brain health clinic
has been started recently? – Bangalore
29.
In
which city India’s first centralized AC railway
terminal has been started? – Bangalore
30.
India’s first nuclear missile tracking ship Dhuvar was launched
from where- Visakhapatnam
31.
In
which city India’s first portable solar rooftop
system has been unveiled recently? – Gandhi Nagar
32.
In
which state India’s first vertical lift railway
bridge is being built? – Tamil Nadu
33. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022’
1. The bill proposes to set up Indian Antarctic Authority
under the Ministry of Earth Sciences
2. India is a signatory to the Antarctic Treaty and has a consultative party
status with a right to vote
3. The bill is pursuant to Canberra protocol to the Antarctic treaty
Choose the correct answer using the code give below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All the above
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
The Bill also proposed to set-up Indian Antarctic Authority (IAA) under the
Ministry of Earth Sciences, which shall be the apex decision making authority
and shall facilitate programmes and activities permitted under the Bill.
Statement 2 Correct
A total of fifty-four State Parties to the Treaty, twenty-nine countries have
the status of Consultative Party with a right to vote in the Antarctic
Consultative Meetings and twenty-five countries are Non-Consultative Parties
having no right to vote. India signed the Antarctic Treaty on the 19th August,
1983 and received the consultative status on the 12th September, 1983.
Statement 3 Incorrect
The bill is in pursuant to India’s accession to Antarctic Treaty, the Protocol
on Environment Protection (Madrid Protocol) to the Antarctic Treaty and to the
Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources.
Context – The bill was passed by Loksabha
34.
In
which river did Union Defense Minister Rajnath Singh make the fourth P17A The
stealth frigate ‘INS Dunagiri’ has been
launched?- Hooghly, Kolkata
35.
From
where have INS Nishank and INS Akshay
been decommissioned recently? – Mumbai Dockyard
36.
Indian
Navy’s stealth frigate INS Tarkash has
participated in maritime partnership exercise with which country’s navy? –
Sudan
37.
Which
country’s Khuvsgul Lake National Park has
been included in the UNESCO Reserve list – Mongolia
38.
Ladli Laxmi Yojana 2.0 has been launched by the Chief Minister of which
state?- Madhya Pradesh
39.
Which
city’s pre-eminent crossing will be named after Lata
Mangeshkar? – Ayodhya
40.
England’s
Leicester Cricket Ground has been named
after which Indian cricketer? – Sunil Gavaskar
41.
In
which country will NATO conduct a cyber defense exercise called Locked Shields? – Estonia
42.
Mairaj Ahmed Khan, who was in the news recently, is associated with
which sport? – Shooter
43.
Where
has Maruti Suzuki installed Asia’s largest 20 MW solar plant? – Manesar, Haryana
44.
India
and which country have conducted maritime
partnership exercise in Andaman Sea? – Japan
45.
Recently,
Indian Navy’s stealth frigate INS Tarkash has participated in maritime partnership exercise with which country’s
navy? – Sudan
46.
Which
country’s Mathematician Maryina Vyjowska
has won the prestigious Fields Medal 2022?- Ukraine
47.
Consider the following statements
regarding ‘Abortion laws in India’
1. The Medical Termination
of Pregnancy (MTP) Act in the present form does not
apply to unmarried women
2. A certain section in the Indian Penal Code criminalises voluntary
miscarriage
3. The upper limit of the gestation period upto which a woman can seek a
medical abortion is 20 weeks according to the MTP Act
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
Amendment to Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act in 2021 has substituted the term ‘Husband’ with
‘partner’, which implies that the law covered unmarried women within its ambit.
Statement 2 Correct
Section 312 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, criminalises voluntarily “causing
miscarriage”.
Statement 3 Incorrect
In 2021, MTP Amendment Act 2021 was passed with certain amendments in the MTP
Act including all women being allowed to seek safe abortion services on grounds
of contraceptive failure, increase in gestation limit to 24 weeks for special
categories of women, and opinion of one provider required up to 20 weeks of
gestation. Abortion can now be performed until 24 weeks pregnancy as the MTP
Amendment Act 2021 has come in force by notification in Gazzette from 24
September 2021.
Context: Supreme Court came up with a judgement on Unmarried Women having right
to safe abortion
48.
Which
company has been given Microsoft Partner of the Year
Awards 2022? – HCL Technology
49. Consider the following statements related to Minimum Support Price (MSP)
1. MSP is fixed by the Commission for Agricultural Costs
and Prices (CACP)
2. Presently formula used to calculate MSP also includes family labour
3. MSP is given for all kinds of crops except commercial crops
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
MSP is fixed by the Cabinet committee on economic affairs, based on the
recommendation of CACP.
Statement 2 Correct
Presently, A2+FL is used to determine MSP for various crops: It is the
estimated value of the unpaid labour for harvesting crops like the contribution
of family members, etc. In addition, it is paid-out cost.
MSP formula was originally recommended by the M S Swaminathan, the National
Commission for Farmer’s head. He recommended for C2. C2: It is Comprehensive
Cost which is the actual cost of production. It takes into account for rent and
interest foregone on the land and machinery owned by farmers further in
addition to the A2+FL rate.
Statement 3 Incorrect
As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals
(paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram,
tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soybean,
sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane,
cotton and raw jute).
Context: Central Government
announced the formation of committee to make MSP more effective.
50.
‘Hariyali
Mahotsav’ has been organized by which ministry? – Ministry
of Environment
51.
Which
ministry has launched ‘Mission Vatsalya’ scheme? – Ministry
of Women and Child Development
52. Consider the following statements regarding Minority status in India.
1. Article 29 and 30 of the
Constitution do not use the word ‘Minority’ and only mentions ‘Any section of
the citizens’
2. The Article 29 and 30 of the Constitution provide for protection of interest
of minorities which includes linguistic minorities also
3. Both Central and State governments can confer the status of ‘Minority’ to a
language or religion
Choose the correct statement(s) using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of
India having a distinct language, script or culture of its own, shall have the
right to conserve the same. It grants protection to both religious minorities
as well as linguistic minorities. Article 30 states that- All minorities shall
have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their
choice. The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities
(religious or linguistic) and does not extend to any section of citizens (as
under Article 29).
Statement 2 Incorrect
The Article 29 and 30 of the Constitution provide for protection of interest of
minorities which includes linguistic minorities also
Statement 3 Correct
Notification of any community specific to a State as minority community with in
a State comes under the purview of the State concerned. For instance, the
Maharashtra government has notified ‘Jews’ as a minority community within the
state. Moreover, the Karnataka government has notified Urdu, Telugu, Tamil,
Malayalam, Marathi, Tulu, Lamani, Hindi, Konkani and Gujarati languages as
minority languages within the state of Karnataka. This minority status is state
dependent. States can also notify their own religious minorities. Hence both
central and state governments can declare minorities.
Context: SC recently declated
that minority status in India state-dependent.
53. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH)’
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented for
holistic development of horticulture in the country
2. All the States and Union Territories are covered under this scheme
3. It covers a wide range of crops such as mushrooms, spices, flowers, aromatic
plants, coconut, coffee and cocoa
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
Mission is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme being implemented through State
Governments, where the subsidy is shared between the Central Government and State
Governments in the ratio of 60:40 in all the states other than North Eastern
and Himalayan states, where the pattern of assistance is shared in the ratio of
90:10.
Statement 2 Correct
Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) is a Centrally
Sponsored Scheme implemented from 2014-15 for holistic development of
horticulture in the country, covering fruits, vegetables, root and tuber crops,
mushrooms, spices, flowers, aromatic plants, coconut, cashew and cocoa.
Statement 3 Incorrect
All States/UTs are covered under MIDH.
Context – The scheme was in news
54.
‘Mission Vatsalya’ scheme has been launched by
which ministry? – Ministry of Women and Child Development
55.
Recently,
which city of India has set the record for building the longest double decker
flyover? – Nagpur
56. ‘Namsai Declaration’ signed recently is related to
a) Counter
insurgency
b) Disaster Resilient Infrastructure
c) Border disputes
d) Wildlife trafficking
Solution(c)
Assam and Arunachal Pradesh signed an agreement (Namsai Declaration) to end
border issues between the two states and decided to “restrict” the number of
disputed villages to 86 instead of 123. Chief Ministers of the two
North-eastern neighbours met at Namsai in Arunachal Pradesh and signed the
agreement.
Context – Assam and Arunachal signed a pact to resolve border dispute
57. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘National Coal Index’
1. Prices of coal from all the sales channels of coal
including import as existing today are taken into account for compiling the NCI
2. It is a price index which reflects the change of price level of coal in a
particular year relative to the fixed base year
3. There exists separate indices for coking and non–coking coal under NCI
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All the above
Solution(c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
Prices of coal from all the sales channels of coal, including import, as
existing today are taken into account for compiling the NCI. The amount of
revenue share per tonne of coal produced from auctioned blocks would be arrived
at using the NCI by means of defined formula.
Statement 2 Incorrect
It is a price index which reflects the change of price level of coal in a
particular month relative to the fixed base year. The base year for the NCI is
Financial Year 2017-18.
Statement 3 Correct
NCI is composed of a set of five sub-indices: Three for Non Coking Coal and two
for Coking Coal. The three sub-indices for Non Coking Coal are combined to
arrive at the Index for Non Coking Coal and the two sub-indices for Coking Coal
are combined to arrive at the Index for Coking Coal.
Context – National Coal Index (NCI) has jumped from about 165 to about 238
reflecting the sharp increase in international coal prices.
58.
The
Chairman and Managing Director of the National Small
Industries Corporation has been appointed?- P Udayakumar
59.
Former
speaker of which state Nirmal Singh Kahlon
has passed away? – Punjab
60. Consider the following pairs
Nuclear plant: State
Tarapur: Maharashtra
Narora: Haryana
Kakrapar: Rajasthan
Kaiga: Karnataka
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
Tarapur Atomic Power Station (T.A.P.S.) is located in Tarapur, Palghar,
Maharashtra. It was the first commercial nuclear power station built in India.
Statement 2 Incorrect
Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is a nuclear power plant located in Narora,
Bulandshahar District in Uttar Pradesh, India.
Statement 3 Incorrect
Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is a nuclear power station in India, which lies
in the proximity of Surat and Tapi river in the state of Gujarat.
Statement 4 Correct
Kaiga Generating Station is a nuclear power generating station situated at
Kaiga, near the river Kali, in Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka, India.
Context – A unit of Kakrapar atomic plant is expected to commence commercial
operation by December 2022
61.
In
which Indian city Union Minister Amit Shah has laid the foundation stone of Olympic level sports complex?- Ahmedabad
62.
Where
has Union Minister Piyush Goyal inaugurated the 17th campus of National
Institute of Fashion Technology? – Panchkula,
Haryana
63.
the
Directorate General of Foreign Trade has announced to make the paper import
monitoring system effective from
which date? – 01 October 2022
64. The multiple rocket launcher produced in India and
developed by the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army is
named as
a) Pralay
b) Pinaka
c) Python
d) Pratyush
Solution: b)
Pinaka is a multiple rocket launcher produced in India and
developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for the
Indian Army. Pinaka saw service during
the Kargil War, where it was successful in neutralising enemy positions on the
mountain tops. It has since been inducted into the Indian Army in large
numbers.
65. Consider the following statements with
respect to office of the President of
India and Sri Lanka
1. Presidents of both India and Sri
Lanka are indirectly elected
2. Sri Lanka follows a Parliamentary system of government, whereas India
follows the Presidential system.
3. An elected president of Sri Lanka can serve only for two terms Unlike
India’s President who has no limits
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
The president of Sri Lanka is directly elected for a five-year term, through a
version of Instant-runoff voting in which electors rank up to three candidates,
and limited to only two rounds in total. Whereas Indian President is elected
indirectly.
Statement 2 Incorrect
Sri Lanka follows a Presidential system, where the real head is the President.
In the case of India, it is a Parliamentary system, the President of India is
the nominal head.
Statement 3 Correct
The president is elected to office in a presidential election held nationwide
for a five-year term. An elected president can serve a maximum of two terms,
with each term taking effect from the date of taking a public oath of office
for the elected term. India’s President does not have any such limits.
Context: Ranil Wickremesinghe has been elected as a new President of Sri Lanka.
66. Consider the following statements about ‘Project -75(I)’
1. P-75(I) are a planned class of nuclear-powered
submarines
2. P-75(I) project will be India’s first project under the Strategic
Partnership Model
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
(P-75I)
are a planned class of diesel-electric submarines, which are to be built for
the Indian Navy.
Statement 2 Correct
P-75I project will be India’s first project under the Strategic Partnership
Model.
Under this model, the government will give the contract to an Indian Strategic
Partner (SP), which will partner with a foreign Original Equipment Manufacturer
(OEM) to build Air-independent propulsion (AIP)-powered submarines in India.
Context: Defence Minister once again extended
decline to submit responses to the request for proposal for 6 submarines under
P-75(I)
67.
‘Punit Sagar Abhiyan’ was launched by whom? – NCC
68. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Rebate of State and Central Levies and Taxes (RoSCTL) Scheme’
1. The exporters are issued a Duty Credit Scrip for the
value of embedded taxes and levies contained in the exported product under this
scheme
2. The scheme was notified by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
3. The scheme is presently applicable to all exporters except petroleum and
jewellery sector
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
In
2019, the Ministry of Textiles notified a new scheme by the name Rebate of
State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL). Under this scheme, the exporters
are issued a Duty Credit Scrip for the value of embedded taxes and levies
contained in the exported product. Exporters can use this scrip to pay basic
Customs duty for the import of equipment, machinery or any other input.
Statement 2 Incorrect
The scheme was notified by Ministry of Textiles in 2019.
Statement 3 Incorrect
At present, the RoSCTL scheme is applicable only to the exporters of
apparel and made-ups. Continuation of RoSCTL for Apparel/Garments and Made-ups
is expected to make these products globally competitive by rebating all
embedded taxes/levies which are currently not being rebated under any other
mechanism.
Context – Centre extends RoSCTL
(Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies) scheme till March 31, 2024 for
export of apparel/garments and made-ups.
69. The largest exporter of rice in the world is
a) China
b) India
c) Vietnam
d) United States of America
Solution(b)
India is the top country by rice exports quantity in the world. India exported US$9.6 billion (37.5% of total
rice exports).The top 5 rice exporting countries (India, Thailand, Pakistan,
Vietnam and the United States of America) generated almost three-quarters
(74.2%) of the global value for rice exports during 2021.
Context – While overall crop coverage has risen since last year, that of
rice has gone down.
70. ‘Samta Nyay Kendras’ seen in news are established for the benefit of
a) Scheduled
Tribes and other forest dwellers
b) Economically weaker sections
c) Transgenders
d) Senior citizens
Solution(c)
The objective of this Kendra is to provide counselling and help the
transgenders in redressal of their legal grievances. For this purpose, Panel
Lawyers and Para Legal Volunteers are deputed on need-based assignments by the DLSA.
The effort is to provide legal services through the Para Legal Volunteers from
within members of the transgender community in an inclusive atmosphere.
Context – They were recently established.
71.
Who
has secured the first rank in the first batch of women NDA – Shanan Dhaka
72. Which of the following statements regarding Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is/are correct?
1. Varanasi has been selected as the SCO region’s first
Tourism and Cultural Capital for 2022-23.
2. Turkmenistan is a member state of SCO.
3. It aims to promote and strengthen mutual trust and neighborliness among the
member states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 only
D 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Varanasi has been selected as the SCO region’s first
“Tourism and Cultural Capital for 2022-23.
Varanasi’ “Cultural and Tourism Capital” has been decided under a new
rotating initiative to promote people-to-people contacts and tourism among
the member states.
Each year a city of the cultural heritage of a member country that will take
over the rotating Presidency of the organisation will get the title to
highlight its prominence.
The new initiative will come into force after the Samarkand summit following
which India will take over the Presidency and host the next Heads of the
State summit. Hence option 1 is correct.
Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India and
Pakistan, are the member states Turkmenistan is not the member of SCO. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
SCO objectives are,
Strengthening mutual trust and neighbourliness among the member states.
Promoting effective cooperation in -politics, trade & economy,
research & technology and culture.
Enhancing ties in education, energy, transport, tourism, environmental
protection, etc.
Maintain and ensure peace, security and stability in the region.
Establishment of a democratic, fair and rational new international political
& economic order. Hence statement 3 is correct.
73.
With reference to Shanghai Cooperation Organizational structure, consider the following statements:
1. The SCO secretariat has two permanent bodies, located at Beijing and
Tashkent.
2. The Heads of State Council (HSC) considers issues pertaining to the
day-to-day activities of the organization.
3. The Foreign Ministers Council is the supreme decision-making body of the
organization.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer : a
Shanghai Cooperation Organizational structure
The SCO secretariat has two permanent bodies the SCO Secretariat based in
Beijing and the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure
(RATS) based in Tashkent.
The HSC is the supreme decision-making body of the organization. It meets
annually to adopt decisions and guidelines on all important matters relevant to
the organization.
The HGC (mainly including Prime Ministers) also meets annually to zero in on
the organization’s priority areas and multilateral cooperation strategy.
It also endeavors to resolve present economic and cooperation issues alongside
approving the organization’s annual budget.
The Foreign Ministers Council considers issues pertaining to the day-to-day
activities of the organization, charting HSC meetings and consultations on
international problems within the organization and if required, makes
statements on behalf of the SCO.
74. Consider
the following statements with reference to challenges to the single-use
plastic (SUP) ban
1. SUP has emerged as a much bigger industry giving employment to lakhs of
people in the country.
2. Banks and financial institutions have a great stake in the SUP industry.
3. India's top 3 exports happen to rely heavily on SUPs.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1
and 2
(c) Only 3 (d) 2 and
3
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution
The top
exports of India are Refined Petroleum, Packaged Medicaments, Diamonds, Rice,
and Jewellery.
Enrich Your Learning
Plastic Waste in India
Plastic pollution has emerged as one of the significant problems in
the country.
4% of fossil fuel extracted annually ends up being used as raw
materials for plastics production.
According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), India produced
approximately 3.47 million tons of plastic waste per annum over
the last five years.
India collects only 60% of its plastic waste with the remaining 40%
remaining uncollected and entering the environment directly as
waste.
[Ref: The Hindu
Single-Use Plastic Ban in India
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has notified the Plastic
Waste Management (PWM) Amendment Rules, 2021, which prohibit specified Single
Use Polymer (SUP) items that have low utility and high littering potential by
July 1, 2022.
Why is it in the news?
The government has banned the manufacture, sale and use of identified
single-use plastic items like plates, cups, straws, trays, and polystyrene from
July 1, 2022.
75.
With reference to economy,
consider the following statements:
1. A soft landing is a cyclical slowdown
in economic growth that avoids recession of a country.
2. Reverse Currency War occurs between two trading partners are deliberately
pursuing policies to strengthen the values of their currencies.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Soft Landing and Reverse Currency War
A soft landing refers to a moderate economic slowdown following a period of
growth.
When a central bank is successful in slowing down the economy without bringing
about a recession, it is called a soft-landing
The Federal Reserve and other central banks aim for a soft landing when they
raise interest rates to curb inflation.
A situation in which countries work to make their currency stronger.
Rather than boosting growth, the goal of any such move is to help tame
inflation, since a stronger currency means that imports are relatively cheaper.
Reverse currency war is when in a global competition where countries are all
trying to strengthen their currencies.
76.
Consider
the following statements: The nation-wide 'Soil
Health Card Scheme' aims at
1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers
on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only - 3 only
- 2 and 3 only - 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The correct answer is 3 only.
Key points
Soil Health Card (SHC)
• It is a scheme promoted by and being implemented through the Department of
Agriculture & Cooperation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers'
Welfare, Government of India.
• A SHC provides the farmer:
○ Soil nutrient status of his/her holding and advice him/her on the dosage of
fertilizers and
○ Also, the needed soil amendments, that she/he should apply to maintain soil
health in the long run.
• SHC is a printed report that will contain the status of his soil concerning
12 parameters, namely:
○ N, P, K (Macro-nutrients);
○ S (Secondary- nutrient);
○ Cu, Mn, Bo, Zn, Fe (Micro-nutrients); and
○ pH, EC, OC (Physical parameters).
• Based on Soil nutrient status, the SHC will indicate fertilizer
recommendations and soil amendment required for the farm. Hence, statement 3 is
correct and statements 1 and 2 are not correct/irrelevant.
77. Consider the following statements
regarding Sovereign Wealth
Funds:
1. The primary functions of a sovereign wealth fund are to stabilize the
country's economy through diversification and to generate wealth for future
generations.
2. It invests globally in real and financial assets.
3. Revenues from the export of raw materials or central bank foreign exchange
reserves are used to fund sovereign wealth funds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution:
All the statements are correct.
Enrich your Learning
Sovereign wealth funds
It is a state-owned investment fund comprised of money generated by the government.
The funds are generally invested in
financial instruments such
as bonds, stocks, gold, and real estate.
Aim- to generate good returns over a long-term
duration.
Objective- to protect and stabilise the budget and economy when
the revenues and exports are excessively volatile.
Most SWFs are funded by revenues from commodity exports or
from foreign-exchange reserves held by the central bank.
The Singapore’s Government Investment
Corporation (GIC) is known
to be the first Sovereign wealth funds.
The funding for a SWF can come from a variety of sources and
used for a variety of purposes. It
consists of-
surplus reserves from state-owned natural resource revenues,
trade surpluses,
bank reserves that may accumulate from budgeting excesses,
foreign currency operations,
money from privatizations,
governmental transfer payments.
78. The “Sovereignty” of India means
1. No external power can dictate the government of
India.
2. There is freedom of speech and expression for Indian citizens.
3. Citizens cannot be discriminated against on any grounds.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2 b) 1 only
c) 1, 3 d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Sovereignty simply implies that India is a state that takes its own
decisions ultimately guided by the people. No external agency dictates terms to
India.
However, the notion of sovereignty does not seep into the framework of all
democratic rights. For e.g. a sovereign state might very well discriminate
between its citizens.
A sovereign state may very well restrict freedom of speech, as it is not an absolute
right, even though it is vital to a democracy.
79. Special Drawing Rights is related to which of the following institutions?
A European Bank for Reconstruction
& Development
B International Monetary Fund
C World Bank
D International Finance Corporation.
Explanation
The SDR is an International Reserve Asset, created
by the International Monetary Fund in 1969 to supplement its member
countries' official reserves.
The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five currencies—the U.S.
dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen,
and the British pound sterling.
The SDR basket is reviewed every five years.
Therefore, option B is correct.
80. Consider the following statements
1. Sports is a subject under the state list of the seventh schedule
2. Promotion of rural and indigenous/tribal games is one of the sub-components
of Khelo India scheme
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
‘Sports’ being a state subject, the responsibility to promote and develop
sports in the country, including tribal areas to enable tribal children to
showcase their talent in traditional sports, rests primarily with the
respective State/Union Territory Governments.
Statement 2 Correct
One of the verticals of the Khelo India Scheme, namely, “Promotion of rural
and indigenous/tribal games”, is specifically dedicated to encouraging and
showcasing of traditional sports of the country.
Context – Union Minister for Youth Affairs and
Sports made a statement regarding Khelo India Scheme.
81. The “SPRINT
Challenges” was in news recently, is
related to which of the following?
(a) Good
governance
(b) Sports reforms
(c) Waste management
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
PM unveiled ‘SPRINT challenges’, an initiative aimed at boosting the usage
of indigenous technologyin the Indian Navy.
82.
Student READY Scheme, ARYA Project are related to which of the following sectors?
A) Education B) Health
C) Farming D) National Security
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Student READY Scheme is to give business experience to students of Agriculture
University.
ARYA Project is for keeping the rural youth engaged in the Agriculture sector.
83. Consider the following statements about the Sun Temple,
Konark:
1. It is one of the best representations of Kalinga
Architecture.
2. It was built by the King of the Ganga Dynasty, Narasimha Deva I in the 13th
century.
3. It is made of a stone called granite, widely available in the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Situated close to the Bay of Bengal, the Sun Temple Konark is one of the best
representations of Kalinga Architecture. The word ‘Konark’ can be translated to
the ‘corner sun’; Kona (corner) and Arka (sun) and was so named as it lay on
the north east corner of the famous Jagannath Temple at Puri. Konark was
also called the Black Pagoda, the first mention of which is found in the diary
of Sir Streynsham Master, Governor of Fort St George, Madras. It was used
as a major landmark by most sailors and travellers. Dedicated to Sun God,
Konark was built by the King of the Ganga Dynasty, Narasimha Deva I in
the 13th century. It was declared a Unesco World Heritage Site in the year
1984 for its architectural brilliance and for serving as an evidence of the
spread of Sun worship in India from Kashmir to the eastern parts.
Konark is made of a stone called Khondalite, widely available in the
region. The entire structure was constructed without the use of any binding
material such as mortar or cement. It was also one of the first structures in
India to have used iron beams and dowels. It is said that the temple was held
together using electromagnetic force with sixty three tons of magnet, ten tons
at the bottom and fifty three at the top of the structure.
84.
England’s
Leicester Cricket Ground has been named after which Indian cricketer? – Sunil Gavaskar
85.
In
which city the Indian Army has organized ‘Suraksha
Manthan 2022’ on the aspects of border and coastal security? –
Jodhpur
86. Consider the following statements regarding “Surety Bonds”:
1. It is provided by the insurance company on behalf of
the contractor to the entity which is awarding the project.
2. It involves a two-party agreement between the Principal and the Obligee
only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1 only B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2 D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
A surety bond can be defined in its simplest form as a
written agreement to guarantee compliance, payment, or performance of an act.
A surety bond is provided by the insurance company on behalf of the contractor
to the entity which is awarding the project. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Surety is a unique type of insurance because it involves a three-party
agreement. The three parties in a surety agreement are:
Principal – the party that purchases the bond and undertakes an
obligation to perform an act as promised.
Surety – the insurance company or surety company that guarantees the
obligation will be performed. If the principal fails to perform the act as
promised, the surety is contractually liable for losses sustained.
Obligee - the party who requires, and often receives the benefit of— the
surety bond. For most surety bonds, the obligee is a local, state or federal
government organization.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
87. The surplus in the current account in India can happen when
1. Record inflow of foreign direct investment and
foreign portfolio investment.
2. Net services receipts increases sequentially.
3. Contraction in the trade deficit
4. Growth in remittances by Indians employed overseas.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 4 b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
Foreign direct investment and foreign portfolio investment are part of the
Capital account.
88.
Consider the following
statements regarding the suspension of MLAs in the State Legislature.
1. The Constitution stipulates that the State Legislative Assembly may declare
vacant the seat of a member who is absent for 60 days without permission.
2. According to The Representation of the People Act, 1951, a bye-election for
filling any vacancy shall be held within a period of one year from the date of
the occurrence of the vacancy.
3. During suspension, a member continues to hold office, but only loses their
voice in the legislature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Article 190(4) of the Constitution, stipulates that the House may declare
vacant the seat of a member who is absent for 60 days without permission.
Also, the Representation of the People Act, 1951, says any vacancy in the House
has to be filled up through a by-election within six months of its
occurrence.
During suspension, a member continues to hold office, but only loses their
voice in the legislature.
89. Consider the following statements :
1. Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) were born at the United
Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by all United Nations
Member States in 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were born at the United Nations Conference
on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012.
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by all United
Nations Member States in 2015 to end poverty, reduce inequality and build
more peaceful, prosperous societies by 2030
90.
The
Swadhar Greh Scheme is an initiative of
- A. Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B. Ministry of Education
- C. Ministry of Rural Development
- D. NITI Aayog
Answer: A
Sol:
• The Ministry of Women and Child
Development is implementing the Swadhar Greh Scheme which targets the women
victims of difficult circumstances who are in need of institutional support for
rehabilitation so that they could lead their life with dignity.
• Swadhar Greh targets the following
categories of women in difficult circumstances without economic and social
support:
o Deserted women;
o Women rendered homeless due to natural
calamities;
o Women ex-prisoners;
o Trafficked women/girls rescued or
runaway from brothels;
o HIV/AIDS affected women;
o Women victims of domestic violence,
family tension or discord driven out from their homes and facing marital
litigations;
o Women victims of terrorist violence
Objectives
• Under the Scheme, Swadhar Greh will be
set up in every district. Swadhar Greh provides temporary residential
accommodation with the following objectives:
o To cater to the primary need of
shelter, food, clothing, medical treatment and care of the women in distress
and who are without any social and economic support.
o To enable them to regain their emotional
strength that gets hampered due to their encounter with unfortunate
circumstances.
o To provide them with legal aid and
guidance to enable them to take steps for their readjustment in family/society.
o To rehabilitate them economically and
emotionally.
o To act as a support system that
understands and meets various requirements of women in distress.
o To enable them to start their life
afresh with dignity and conviction.
• For big cities and other districts
having more than 40 lakh population or those districts where there is a need
for additional support to the women, more than one Swadhar Greh could be
established.
• The Swadhar Greh Scheme initially
introduced as a central sector scheme has been revised in 2016 as a sub-scheme
of the Centrally Sponsored Umbrella Scheme “Protection and Empowerment of
Women”.
• Funds are released through the States,
with a cost sharing ratio of 60:40 between the Centre and the States excepting
for the North Eastern and Himalayan States where it shall be 90:10 and for UTs
it is 100%.
91. Consider the following statements
regarding Systematic
Observations Financing Facility (SOFF):
1. It aims to achieve Global Basic Observing Network compliance in
all Small Island Developing States and Least Developed Countries.
2. It helps nations to produce surface-based
observational data that is necessary for better weather forecasts.
3. It has a 5-year implementation period which is established by Multi
Partner Trust Fund.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution:
It has a 10-year implementation period
which is established by Multi Partner Trust Fund.
Enrich your Learning
Systematic Observations
Financing Facility (SOFF)
It is an initiative headed
by UN Secretary-General.
It was established by World
Meteorological Organization (WMO), the UN Development Programme (UNDP), and UN
Environment Programme (UNEP) as
a UN Multi-Partner Trust
Fund.
It supports countries to generate
and exchange basic surface-based observational data critical for improved weather forecasts and
climate services.
Aim- to strengthening resilient development and climate
adaptation locally, regionally and across the globe, particularly benefiting
the most vulnerable.
It will fill critical data gaps in basic
weather and climate observations from
the most vulnerable countries that undermine efforts to build climate
resilience across the globe.
It has been created as a Multi
Partner Trust Fund jointly
established by World Meteorological Organization, United Nations
Development Programme and United Nations Environment Programme.
Composition
Steering Committee
It provides strategic direction to SOFF.
It endorses financial and programmatic reports from the SOFF Secretariat and
the Trustee and commissions regular independent external evaluations.
Advisory Board
The main function is to provide strategic
advice on programming and operations, contribute to assessing and maximizing
SOFF results.
Secretariat
It coordinates operations and ensures
coherence of action by the many SOFF partners.
It operates under the overall guidance of the Steering Committee.
Features
Deploying a global approach with
sustained international data exchange as a measure of success
Providing innovative finance
Enhancing technical competence and integrated approaches
Leveraging knowledge and resources
Implementation- 10-year implementation period and
three phases of support.
Readiness
All beneficiary countries will undergo the Readiness phase.
Investment
Countries will receive support for capital investments in Global Basic
Observing Network infrastructure.
Compliance
Countries will receive support to sustain compliance.
Target
It establishes a highly ambitious
long-term target of achieving sustained Global
Basic Observing Network compliance
in all Small Island Developing States and Least Developed Countries.
Why in News?
The Systematic Observations Financing Facility (SOFF) is a new initiative
introduced by UN Secretary-General to ensure that early warning services
reach everyone on Earth within the next five years.
92.
Consider the following statements with
reference to TEEB initiative:
1. It sets a price on natural capital to demonstrate the value of nature
in economic terms.
2. It started as an initiative by the G20 nations.
3. It aims to increase the materiality of biodiversity in
financial decision-making.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution:
The TEEB
was launched by Germany and the European Commission in
response to a proposal by the G8+5 Environment Ministers in Potsdam, Germany in
2007, to develop a global study on the economics of biodiversity loss.
The Finance for Biodiversity (F4B) initiative aims to increase the
materiality of biodiversity in financial decision-making.
Enrich You Learning
What is the G8+5?
The G-8 comprised the U.S., Britain, Canada, France,
Germany, Italy, Japan and Russia, while the five Outreach
Countries are India, Brazil, China, Mexico and South Africa.
After the ouster of Russia in the aftermath of the Russia-Ukraine
war, the G8 is now back to its original composition of G7.
About TEEB
The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is a global
initiative assessing the costs of the loss of biodiversity and
the associated decline in ecosystem services worldwide.
The TEEB study was launched by Germany and the European Commission in
response to a proposal by the G8+5 Environment Ministers in Potsdam, Germany in
2007, to develop a global study on the economics of biodiversity loss.
About F4B
The Finance for Biodiversity (F4B) initiative was established in October
2019 as an initiative to increase the materiality of biodiversity
in financial decision-making.
This would better align global finance with nature conservation
and restoration.
F4B focuses on the following strategic areas :
Market efficiency and innovation
Nature markets
Public finance
Strategic liabilities
Citizen engagement
93.
Consider the following
statements:
1. Tele–Law mainstreams legal aid to the
marginalized seeking legal help by connecting them with the Panel Lawyers.
2. National Legal Services Authority will provide services of lawyers, in each
district exclusively for Tele-Law program.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Tele – law
Tele-Law service is being made free of cost for citizens in the country.
Tele–Law mainstreams legal aid to the marginalized seeking legal help by
connecting them with the Panel Lawyers through the tele/video-conferencing
infrastructure available at Common Service Centers (CSCs) across 1 lakh Gram
Panchayats.
For easy and direct access Tele- Law Mobile Application (both Android and IOS)
has also been launched in 2021 and it is presently available in 22 scheduled
languages.
MoU exchanged between Department of Justice and NALSA on Integrated Delivery of
Legal Services.
Under the provision of the MoU, NALSA to provide services of 700 lawyers, in each
district exclusively for Tele-Law program.
94.
Consider
the following statements about Tele-law services in
India.
1. It is a service that uses video
conferencing facilities and telephone services to connect lawyers to litigants
who need legal advice.
2. The Jurisdiction of tele-law services
includes both civil and criminal cases.
3. Legal advice under Tele-Law service
is provided free of Cost to everyone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Sol:
What is Tele-law service?
• Statement 1 is correct: Tele-law is a
service that uses video conferencing facilities and telephone services to
connect lawyers to litigants who need legal advice.
• This service aims to reach out to the
needy, especially the marginalized and disadvantaged.
• The project connects citizens with
lawyers through communications and information technology with the help of
Para-Legal Volunteers stationed at identified Common Service Centers or CSCs.
Role of Para Legal Volunteer
• Para Legal Volunteer (PLV) is the
first point of contact between rural citizens and lawyers providing legal aid
through CSC.
• They are not lawyers, but have basic
understanding of the legal process. They hear the grievances of citizens and
offer appropriate support/suggestions for legal aid. They also help the
citizens understand legal issues and advice given by lawyers.
• A trained PLV is available in a CSC
for minimum ten days in a month under the Scheme.
Benefits
• Tele Law service enables anyone to
seek legal advice without wasting precious time and money.
• Legal advice is made available to
everyone under Tele-Law service Advice is free of Cost to those who are
eligible for free legal aid under Section 12 of Legal Services Authority Act,
1987:
o Women
o Children
o Persons belonging to Scheduled Caste
and Scheduled Tribe
o Victims of Trafficking
o Mentally ill and differently abled
people
o Victims of natural disaster/ethnic
violence
o Workers in unorganized /industrial
workers
o Under trials
o People of low income group.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: For all
others a nominal fee of Rs INR 30/- charged for each consultation.
• The Tele-law website can be accessed
at http://tele-law.in and is available in 22 official languages.
Availability
• Presently, tele-law programme is
operational in 633 districts (including 115 aspirational districts) across all
the States and Union Territories using a network of 50,000 CSCs.
Jurisdiction
• Statement 2 is correct: Legal matters
in which advice can be taken through Tele-Law service :-
o Dowry, family dispute, divorce,
protection from domestic violence.
o Sexual harassment, sexual abuse, eve
teasing at the workplace.
o Maintenance of women, children and
senior citizens.
o Rights regarding property and land.
o Equal wages for males and females.
o Maternity benefits and prevention of
foeticide.
o Prohibition of child marriage,
protection of children from sexual assault, prevention of child labour and
implementing right to education.
o Arrest – (F.I.R)/ process of
registering the First Information Report.
o Atrocities against scheduled castes/
scheduled tribes and their rehabilitation.
95. Consider the following statements:
1. Exclusive right to trade in pashmina wool
was provided to Tibet under the Treaty of Timosgang.
2. Treaty of Chushul was signed between Tibet and Nepal in 1842.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: Both statements
are incorrect.
The Treaty of Timosgang provided Ladakh’s
exclusive right to trade in
pashmina wool produced in Tibet.
The Treaty of Chushul was signed between
Tibet and Jammu.
Enrich your learning:
Treaty of Timosgang
It was signed between Ladakh and Tibet in 1684.
It ended the Tibet–Ladakh–Mughal War and demarcated the boundary between the two
countries.
It provided Ladakh’s exclusive
right to trade in pashmina wool produced
in Tibet, in exchange for brick-tea
available from Ladakh.
Ladakh was also bound to send periodic missions to Lhasa carrying presents for the Dalai Lama.
Treaty of Chushul
It was signed in 1842 between Dogra’s of Jammu and Tibet.
With this treaty, Ladakh and Tibet agreed to maintain the status quo.
Treaty said trade would follow the traditional route between Lhasa and Leh,
opening up new trade interests for the Jammu kingdom.
96. “The crop is semi-tropical crop in nature. It needs
100-120 days of frost-free climate, medium rainfall, loamy soil with high
potash and iron content. It cannot tolerate high-speed winds and storms.” Which
one of the following is that crop?
(a) Cotton
(b) Sugar cane
(c) Tobacco
(d) Wheat
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Andhra Pradesh government exported tobacco to the USA for 1sttime in the country
Status:India is the 2nd largest producer (1st is
China) and 2nd largest export (1st in Brazil) of tobacco.
Climate: Semi-tropical crop, needs 100-120 days of frost-free climate,
medium rainfall, loamy soil with high potash and iron content. It cannot tolerate
high-speed winds and storms.
Nodal Agency:Tobacco Board (Ministry of Commerce and Industry)
97. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the second largest tobacco
producer behind Brazil.
2. The Tobacco Board is a statutory body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Andhra Pradesh government exported tobacco to the USA for 1sttime in
the country
Status:India is the 2nd largest producer (1st is China)
and 2nd largest export (1st in Brazil) of tobacco.
Nodal Agency:Tobacco Board (Ministry of Commerce and Industry)
The Tobacco Boardwas constituted as a statutory body on 1st January,
1976 under Section (4) of the Tobacco Board Act, 1975.
98.
Consider the following
statements:
1. The Trans-Giri region of
Himachal Pradesh is part of the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Giri and Tons rivers flow in the North-Western part of Himachal Pradesh
and finally into the Yamuna.
3. The Tons form the border between Himachal and Jammu Kashmir.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer : c
Trans-Giri region
Leaders of the Hatti community inhabiting the Trans-Giri region of Himachal
Pradesh are hopeful that reports of the area being declared Fifth Schedule are
true.
The Hatti community lives along the Giri and Tons rivers in southeastern
Himachal; they feel their development has been stalled due to the absence of
tribal status
The Hatti community lives between the Giri and Tons rivers, both of which flow
in the south-eastern part of Himachal Pradesh and finally into the Yamuna.
The Tons form the border between Himachal and Uttarakhand.
The Hattis in the Trans-Giri region share many linguistic and cultural
similarities with the people living in the Jaunsar Bawar region across the Tons
in Uttarakhand.
99. Consider the following statements
regarding ‘Transport and
Marketing Assistance (TMA)
for Specified Agriculture Products Scheme’:
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
2. Free on Board (FOB) supplies where no freight is paid by Indian exporters
are not covered under this scheme.
3. The scheme covers freight and marketing assistance for export by air only.
4. The level of assistance would be different for different regions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution: The scheme covers
freight and marketing assistance for export by air as well as by sea.
Enrich your learning:
Transport and Marketing
Assistance (TMA) for Specified Agriculture Products Scheme
It was launched by the Department of Commerce of the Ministry of Commerce &
Industry.
Aim:
To provide assistance for the international
component of freight and marketing of agricultural produce which is likely to mitigate the disadvantage of
the higher cost of transportation of export of specified agriculture products
due to trans-shipment.
To promote brand recognition for Indian
agricultural products in
the specified overseas markets.
All exporters, duly registered with the relevant Export Promotion Council as
per Foreign Trade Policy, of eligible agriculture products shall be covered
under this scheme.
Pattern of Assistance
Assistance under TMA would be provided in cash through a direct bank transfer as part of reimbursement of freight paid.
Free on Board (FOB) supplies where no freight is paid by Indian
exporters are not covered under
this scheme.
The level of assistance would be different
for different regions as
notified from time to time for the export of eligible products.
The assistance shall be admissible only if payments for the exports are received in Free Foreign Exchange through normal
banking channels.
The scheme shall be admissible for the exports made through EDI ports only.
The scheme covers freight and marketing
assistance for export by air as well as by sea (both normal and reefer cargo).
For the export of products by sea, TMA will be based on the freight paid for a full Twenty-feet Equivalent Unit (TEU)
container.
The assistance will not be available for (i) Less than Container Load (LCL) and
(ii) a container having both eligible and ineligible categories of cargo.
Further, no TMA is available
where the cargo is shipped in bulk/breakbulk mode.
A forty feet container will be
treated as two TEUs.
Assistance for products exported by air would be based on per ton freight
charges on the net weight of the export cargo, calculated on the full ton
basis, ignoring any fraction thereof.
100. Recently, scientists
developed a technology that produces electricity through
piezoelectricity and triboelectric
effect. This technology
is related to which of the following?
(a) Solar cell
(b) Sand battery
(c) Wearable power
(d) Nuclear power
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution:
"Piezoelectricity" and
"triboelectric effect" are terms associated with a fabric recently
developed that can generate power.
Enrich Your Learning
Recently, a technology that can create a
stretchable and waterproof fabric that can generate energy from your body movements has been developed.
It produces electricity in two ways -
Piezoelectricity - when it is pressed or squashed.
Triboelectric effect - when it comes in contact with or has friction
with other materials like skin or other fabrics.
The fabric can maintain stable electrical output for up to five months.
Washing, folding and crumpling the fabric did not cause any performance
degradation.
Why is it in the news?
Recently,
scientists at the Nanyang Technological University (NTU) in Singapore have
developed this technology.
Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)
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