Daily Current Affairs Questions August 2022 Part 6

 

Daily Current Affairs Questions

August 2022 Part 6

Why in News

1.       Aadhaar

2.       Artificial Photosynthesis

3.       Ashgabat Agreement

4.       Azores High

5.       BepiColombo mission

6.       Bonai forest

7.       CAATSA

8.       CAATSA

9.       Caspian Sea

10.    Chemical fertilizers

11.    Chilika lake

12.    Consumer Expenditure Survey (CES)

13.    Cosmic cliffs

14.    Cross-border trade transactions

15.    Cultivation and State

16.    Dalai Lama

17.    Dark energy

18.    Derecho

19.    Digital Nomads

20.    Doctor's Day

21.    Ellora Caves

22.    euro

23.    Financial exclusion

24.    Floating solar plant

25.    Forest Advisory Committee (FAC)

26.    Formalisation of economy

27.    Galathea National Park

28.    Global Gender Gap

29.    Global Gender Gap Index

30.    Global Gender Gap Report

31.    Global Liveability Index

32.    Heatwaves

33.    I2U2

34.    Incheon commitment

35.    Indian Meteorological Department

36.    Indian Penal Code

37.    Indian Penal Code

38.    Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

39.    Information Technology Act

40.    Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES).

41.    International Development Association (IDA)

42.    International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC)

43.    International Space Station

44.    International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)

45.    Internet and Mobile Association of India (IMAI)

46.    IUCN Red List

47.    James Webb Telescope

48.    Jet Streams

49.    Judicial review

50.    Juvenile Justice Board

51.    Kerguelen

52.    Khajuraho

53.    Lavender Scare

54.    Li-Fi

55.    Li-Fi Technology

56.    Lion Capital

57.    Maastricht Treaty

58.    Mahabalipuram

59.    Manda buffalo

60.    Marie Curie

61.    Metamaterial

62.    Middle East

63.    Middle-income trap

64.    Minor minerals

65.    Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)

66.    Mission Shakti

67.    Monkeypox disease

68.    Mukundara Hills National Park

69.    Multi-drug resistance

70.    Muon

71.    National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR)

72.    National Flag

73.    National flag

74.    Natural Resources Accounts

75.    Neora Valley National Parks

76.    observable universe

77.    Open Acreage Licensing

78.    ozone hole

79.    Polio

80.    Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’

81.    Prafulla Chandra Ray

82.    Price  situation

83.    Prices of milk

84.    Private Access Tokens

85.    Rani-ki-Vav

86.    Red Panda

87.    Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

88.    Russia

89.    Satyameva Jayate

90.    Service charge

91.    SHRESHTA scheme

92.    Silurian Period

93.    Singalila National Park

94.    Social  capital

95.    South Korea

96.    Spanish flu

97.    Special Drawing Right (SDR).

98.    stagflation

99.    Street Light National Programme

100. Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States Program (STARS)

 

1.       The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Aadhaar provides open Application Programming Interfaces or APIs, which can be integrated easily into any electronic device.
These APIs enable online authentication using a fingerprint or iris.

2.       Consider the following statements in reference to Artificial Photosynthesis:
1. Hydrogen energy and biochemical transducers are needed to fuel the enzyme reactors used in this process.
2. It uses acetate as the base for the electrolysis process.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution:
The electrocatalytic process uses water as a base and converts carbon dioxide from the atmosphere into acetate.
Enrich Your Learning
Artificial photosynthesis
An artificial photosynthesis system incorporates an enzyme bed reactor to adjust the carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
This enzyme reactor is fuelled by hydrogen energy and biochemical transducers.
Other crucial components of an overall artificial photosynthesis system include
PV panels that meet the electrical needs of the system and help produce electricity
dry agriculture in the form of carbohydrates, liquid fuels, chemical feedstock
Polymers for fibre manufacture
hydrogen production through electrochemical water dissociation into hydrogen and oxygen by mimicking photosynthesis.
The researchers included in the study used a two-step electrocatalytic process to convert carbon dioxide, electricity and water into acetate, the form of the main component of vinegar.
Food-producing organisms would then consume this acetate in the dark to be able to grow.
Why is it the news?
The research was recently published in “Nature Food,” an online journal publishing research.

3.       Consider the following statements about Ashgabat Agreement:
1. The Agreement was first signed by Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, Iran, Oman and Qatar in 2011.
2. Its objective is to enhance connectivity within the Eurasian region.
3. India recently joined the Ashgabat Agreement.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 3 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) 1 and 2 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
S1and S3: India on February 1, 2018 joined the Ashgabat agreement, which was instituted in April 2011 to establish an international multimodal transport and transit corridor between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf.
The Agreement was first signed by Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, Iran, Oman and Qatar on 25 April 2011. While Qatar subsequently withdrew from the agreement in 2013, Kazakhstan and Pakistan joined the grouping in 2016. The Ashgabat Agreement came into force in April 2016.
S2:Its objective is to enhance connectivity within the Eurasian region and synchronize it with other regional transport corridors, including the International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC).

4.       Consider the following statements:
1. Azores High is a subtropical low-pressure system that extends over the western subtropical North Atlantic and western America during summer.
2. Azores High is associated with anti-cyclonic winds in the subtropical North Atlantic.
3. It is formed by dry air aloft descending the subtropics and coincides with the downward branch of the Hadley Circulation.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 and 2 only
b.  2 and 3 only
c.  1 and 3 only
d.  1, 2 and 3
Answer : b
Azores High
An extremely large Azores High has resulted in abnormally dry conditions across the western Mediterranean, including the Iberian Peninsula, primarily occupied by Spain and Portugal.
Azores High is a subtropical high-pressure system that extends over the eastern subtropical North Atlantic and western Europe during winter, the researchers explained.
It is associated with anti-cyclonic winds in the subtropical North Atlantic.
It is formed by dry air aloft descending the subtropics and coincides with the downward branch of the Hadley Circulation.
An annual drying of 5-10 millimeters per year per decade has been recorded in the Iberian Peninsula throughout the second half of the 20th century.
A further 10-20 percent drop in winter precipitation is expected by the end of the 21st century.
These projected changes make agriculture in the Iberian region some of the most vulnerable in Europe.
Azores High expansion is driven by external climate forces and the only external forcing that produces this signal in the industrial era is atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations.
Winters with an extremely large Azores High were significantly more common in the industrial era (since 1850) than in pre-industrial times.
Simulations of the past millennium indicated that the industrial-era expansion of the Azores High is unprecedented throughout the past millennium, consistent with precipitation proxy evidence from Portugal.

5.       The BepiColombo mission is a collaboration between which of the following agencies?
(a)  National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
(b) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the European Space Agency (ESA)
(c) European Space Agency (ESA) and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
(d) European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution
Enrich Your Learning
The BepiColombo is the European Space Agency's (ESA) mission to Mercury, in collaboration with the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
It has two spacecraft -
The Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) to study the surface and internal composition of the planet.
The Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) to study Mercury’s magnetosphere, that is, the region of space around the planet that is influenced by its magnetic field.
It is one of the most challenging long-term planetary projects.
Mercury’s proximity to the Sun makes it difficult for a spacecraft to reach the planet and survive in the inhospitable environment.
Previous missions to Mercury - NASA’s Mariner 10 in 1973 and MESSENGER spacecraft in 2004.
Why is it in the news?
The BepiColombo mission has recently captured this beautiful image of Mercury’s crater-marked surface as the spacecraft flew close to the planet for a gravity assist manoeuvre.

6.       Which of the following types of soil can be found in the Bonai forest in Odisha?
(a) Black soil
(b) Red soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Peaty soil
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution:
Murrum soil is a type of laterite soil found in the Bonai forest of Odisha.
Enrich Your Learning
About Murrum Soil
Murrum is one type of laterite soil.
It is found in humid tropical or equatorial zones.
It is characterised by the deep weathered layer from which silica has been leached.
It is red due to a higher amount of iron oxide but is also rich in aluminium.
Murrum soil is also referred to as being a rock type but it is not a rock.
Murrum is practically used for filling work in case of road construction and in an embankment.
About Iron Ore in Odisha
Sundergarh in Odisha is an iron-ore mining district.
Iron-ore mined here is rich in haematites.
Hameatites are the best quality iron-ores available.
They are red in colour and have 70% metallic content.
Barabil-Koira valley in Odisha has the richest haematite deposits.
Other areas rich in iron ore in Odisha are Sundargarh, Mayurbhanj, Cuttack, Sambalpur, Keonjhar and Koraput districts.
Why is it in the news?
The small section of Odisha’s Bonai Forest Division was recently renamed as Sarojini Vana, named after Sarojini Mohanta for her dedication in upkeeping of a small plantation area in the forest, especially by planting saplings in murrum soil where trees hardly grow.

7.       CAATSA is a law that came into effect in the US in 2017, meant to punish countries having deep engagements with
1. Russia
2. North Korea
3. Iraq
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
CAATSA is a law that came into effect in the US in 2017, meant to punish countries having deep engagements with Russia, North Korea, and Iran using economic sanctions. It said countries having a “significant transaction” with Russian intelligence and military agents will be subject to at least five kinds of sanctions.
Ordinary transactions will not invite sanctions, and the decision of who has sanctions imposed on them comes down to the interpretation of “significant transaction”. This is one of the various waivers or exemptions mentioned, such as the transaction not affecting US strategic interests, not endangering the alliances it is a part of, etc.
India has purchased the S-400 Triumf missile systems, which have advanced capabilities to judge the distance from a target and launch a surface-to-air missile attack.
However, the application of CAATSA is not limited to the S-400, and may include other joint ventures for manufacturing or developing weapons in the future, or any other kinds of major deals with Russia.
In 2020, Turkey was sanctioned for its purchase of the S-400 system.

8.       Consider the following statements:
1. Under CAATSA, the US government can impose sanctions on nations purchasing weapons from Russia.
2. Using CAATSA the US government has imposed sanctions only on Indonesia, North Korea, Iran, Russia, and also Turkey, a member of NATO.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
CAATSA
The Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act or CAATSA is a United States federal law put into position in the year 2017.
CAATSA requires the President to impose sanctions against: (1) Iran's ballistic missile or weapons of mass destruction programs, (2) the sale or transfer to Iran of military equipment or the provision of related technical or financial assistance, and (3) Iran's Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps.
Using CAATSA the US government has imposed sanctions only on Indonesia, North Korea, Iran, Russia, and also Turkey, a member of NATO.

9.       Which of these Central Asian nations border Caspian Sea?
1. Kazakhstan
2. Tajikistan
3. Turkmenistan
4. Uzbekistan
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2, 3
 b) 1, 3
 c) 1, 3, 4
 d) 2, 4
Solution: b)

10.    With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements:
1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of all oil refineries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 2 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
S1: The Union Government subsidies the urea manufacturing units for the cost of transportation to facilitate the availability of urea at the same maximum retail price all over the country. Also, the Government is subsidising fertilizers for their availability at reasonable prices for agricultural purposes.
S2: Common knowledge.
S3: Sulphur is a by-product of processing natural gas and refining high-sulphur crude oils. Even if they use low sulphur crude oil, there is still sulphur emission, so S3 is correct.
The primary sources of sulfuric acid emissions are combustion of coal, and the industries that manufacture or use it in production, including metal smelters, phosphate fertilizer producers, oil refineries, the chemical industry, battery manufacturers, manufacturers of fabricated metal products, manufacturers of electronic components, and manufacturers of measuring and controlling devices.

11.    With reference to the Chilika lake, consider the following statements.
1.  It is a brackish water estuarine lake, located on the Odisha’s Coast.
2.  It is the largest wintering ground for migratory waterfowl found anywhere on the Indian sub-continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: Chilika lake is one of the largest brackish water estuarine lakes in India. It is located on the Odisha’s Coast.
•  Statement 2 is correct: It is the largest wintering ground for migratory waterfowl found anywhere on the Indian sub-continent. Flocks of migratory waterfowl arrive from as far as the Caspian Sea, Lake Baikal, Aral Sea, remote parts of Russia, Kirghiz steppes of Mongolia, Central and South East Asia, Ladakh and the Himalayas, to feed and breed in its fertile waters.
•  Chilika lake has been designated as a "Ramsar Site", i.e. a wetland of International Importance.
•  The lake was also included in the Montreux Record (Threatened list) in 1993 by Ramsar Secretariat due to the change in the ecological character of the lake ecosystem. Subsequently, however, due to successful restoration of the lake ecosystem by Chilika Development Authority it was removed from the Montreux Record in 2002.
•  The Nalaban Island within the lake is notified as a Bird Sanctuary under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

12.    Consider the following statements in reference to the Consumer Expenditure Survey (CES):
1. It is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) every 4 years.
2. It aims to help estimate monthly per-capita consumption.
3. A delay in CES does not impacts the publication of the Consumer Price Index by the RBI.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution:
It is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) every 5 years.
A delay in CES will also delay the publication of the Consumer Price Index by the RBI.
Enrich your learning
Consumer Expenditure Survey
The Consumer Expenditure Survey is held every 5 years by the National Statistical Office.
It records the average expenditure on goods and services.
It helps generate estimates of household Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE) as well as the distribution of households and persons over the MPCE classes.
The survey collects the data needed for the calculation of the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
What is Consumer Price Index (CPI)
The CPI is a measure of price changes from the perspective of a retail buyer i.e. the average citizen.
The RBI has identified and adopted CPI as its key measure of inflation.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) uses CPI data to control inflation.
The CPI is published by the National Statistical Organisation (NSO).
Why is it in the news?
The government has scrapped the CES 2018-19 over quality of data. Policymakers are now awaiting a new report.

13.    Consider the following statements:
1. Cosmic cliffs are mountains and valleys of a star-forming region.
2. Carina Nebula is a massive star-forming region found outside the milky way galaxy.
3. Stephan's Quintet is a visual grouping of five galaxies of which four form the first compact galaxy group ever discovered.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 and 2 only
b.  2 and 3 only
c.  1 and 3 only
d.  1, 2 and 3
Answer : c
Cosmic Cliff
The latest tranche included the "mountains" and "valleys" of a star-forming region called NGC 3324 in the Carina Nebula, dubbed the "Cosmic Cliffs," 7,600 light-years away.
The Carina Nebula (NGC 3372) is a massive star-forming region within the Milky Way.
Officially discovered by French astronomer Nicolas Louis de Lacaille in the 1750s, the nebula stretches over 300 light-years across, so big and bright that it's easy to spot with the naked eye
Stephan's Quintet is a visual grouping of five galaxies of which four form the first compact galaxy group ever discovered.

14.    Consider the following statements:
1. As per cross-border trade transactions under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, all exports and imports under this arrangement may be denominated and invoiced in INR.
2. The exchange rate between the currencies of the two trading partner countries may be determined by the apex banks of partner countries.
3. To settle the transactions through this arrangement, Indian importers can pay INR which will be credited into the Special Vostro account of the correspondent bank of the partner country.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  3 only
d.  All are correct.
Answer : b
Cross-border trade transactions using INR
As per the broad framework for cross-border trade transactions in INR under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA), all exports and imports under this arrangement may be denominated and invoiced in INR; and the exchange rate between the currencies of the two trading partner countries may be market-determined.
Further, for settlement of trade transactions with any country, a bank authorized to deal in foreign exchange in India can open Special Rupee Vostro Accounts of correspondent bank/s of the partner trading country.
In order to allow settlement of international trade transactions through this arrangement, Indian importers can pay in INR which will be credited into the Special Vostro account of the correspondent bank of the partner country, against the invoices for the supply of goods or services from the overseas seller/supplier.
Indian exporters, undertaking exports of goods and services through this mechanism, will be paid the export proceeds in INR from the balances in the designated Special Vostro account of the correspondent bank of the partner country.

15.    Match the following correctly
Cultivation                                        State
Vevar and Dahiyaar                    Madhya Pradesh
Batra                                               Bihar                 
Kumari                                            TamilNadu
Deepa                                             Karnataka
How many of the above pairs are matched correctly?
a.  Only one pair
b.  Only two pairs
c.  Only three pairs
d.  All four pairs
Answer : a
Shifting Cultivation types and the States they are associated with
Jhum – North Eastern India
Vevar and Dahiyaar – Bundelkhand Region (Madhya Pradesh)
Deepa – Bastar District of Madhya Pradesh
Zara and Erka – Southern States
Batra – South Eastern Rajasthan
Podu – Andhra Pradesh
Kumari – Hilly regions of the Western Ghats of Kerala
Kaman, Vinga – Odisha

16.    The Dalai Lama is the foremost spiritual leader of which of the following schools of Buddhism?
(a) Guiyang school
(b) Caodong school
(c) Gelug School
(d) Ritsu School
Answer: C
Solution:
The Dalai Lama belongs to the Gelug School of Tibetan Buddhism.
Enrich Your Learning
Dalai Lama
It is a title given by the Tibetan people to the foremost spiritual leader of the Gelug or “Yellow Hat” school of Tibetan Buddhism.
Dalai Lama is also known in Tibetan as the Rgyal-ba Rin-po-che (Precious Conqueror).
Dalai Lamas are believed to be manifestations of Avalokiteshvara or Chenrezig, the Bodhisattva of Compassion and the patron saint of Tibet.
A successor is found rather than chosen, before or after the death of the current Dalai Lama.
The 14^th and current Dalai Lama is Tenzin Gyatso.
India granted the Dalai Lama and his followers asylum in 1959.
Dalali Lama and China
One of the major irritants in India-China relations is the Dalai Lama and Tibet.
China sees the Dalai Lama as a political threat and a separatist leader.
Given the rising Chinese aggression along the Line of Actual Control (LAC), India has been openly engaging with the Dalai Lama.
Why is it in the news?
The Prime Minister of India wished the Dalai Lama on his 87th birthday.

17.    Consider the following statements regarding Dark energy.
1. Dark energy is the mysterious form of energy that makes up less than 1% of the universe.
2. While dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together, dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Dark energy, the mysterious form of energy that makes up about 68% of the universe, has intrigued physicists and astronomers for decades. Dark energy has been noted as “the most profound mystery in all of science”. With advanced technologies and newer experiments, scientists have found certain clues about it and, recently an international team of researchers made the first putative direct detection of dark energy. Everything we see – the planets, moons, massive galaxies, you, me, this website – makes up less than 5% of the universe. About 27% is dark matter and 68% is dark energy. While dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together, dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe.

18.    Consider the following statements regarding derecho, recently seen in news.
1. Derecho is associated with a “band of rapidly moving showers or thunderstorms”.
2. Being a cold-weather phenomenon, a derecho generally occurs during winter time.
3. They occur only across central and eastern parts of the United States.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 3
Solution: a)
States of Nebraska, Minnesota and Illinois in the US were hit by a storm system called a derecho.
A derecho, is “a widespread, long-lived, straight-line windstorm” that is associated with a “band of rapidly moving showers or thunderstorms”.
Being a warm-weather phenomenon, a derecho generally – not always – occurs during summertime beginning May, with most hitting in June and July. However, they are a rare occurrence as compared to other storm systems like tornadoes or hurricanes.
For a storm to be classified as a derecho it must have wind gusts of at least 93 km per hour; wind damage swath extending more than 400 km.
Why did the sky turn green during the derecho that hit US recently?
Severe thunderstorms result in a ‘green sky’ due to light interacting with the huge amount of water they hold. It is believed that the big raindrops and hail scatter away all but the blue wavelengths due to which primarily blue light penetrates below the storm cloud. This blue then combines with the red-yellow of the afternoon or the evening sun to produce green.
Where do derechos usually occur?
They mostly occur across central and eastern parts of the United States.
Derechos have also been documented elsewhere across the world. In 2010, Russia witnessed its first documented derecho. They have also swept through Germany and Finland, and more recently in Bulgaria and Poland.

19.    Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Digital Nomads’?
 (a) freelancers who typically do short-term work for multiple clients
 (b) Independent contractor who earns wages on a per-job or per-task basis, typically for short-term work.
 (c) Individual who works for someone else in exchange for compensation.
 (d) Remote workers who travel to different locations on a regular basis
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Indonesia has announced “Digital Nomad Visas” for travellers, to attract more foreign tourists.
Digital Nomadsare people who work remotely while travelling to different places and spending their earned income in the country they are travelling to.
Unlike regular remote workers, who tend to stay in one geographic area, digital nomads travel and explore while working.

20.    Doctor's Day is celebrated in honour of which of the following personalities?
(a) Hakim Abdul Aziz
(b) Anandi Gopal Joshi
(c) Upendranath Brahmachari
(d) Bidhan Chandra Roy
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: Doctor's Day is celebrated in honour of Bidhan Chandra Roy.
Enrich your learning
Doctor's Day
Doctor's Day is celebrated every year on 1st July, which is the birth anniversary of Dr Bidhan Chandra Roy.
Dr Roy was a renowned physician and the second chief minister of West Bengal.
The first Doctor's Day was celebrated by the Indian Medical Association (IMA) in 1991.
The theme for National doctors day 2022 is 'Family Doctors on the Front Line'.
Bidhan Chandra Roy
He was a physician, philanthropist, educationist and social worker.
Born in 1882 in Patna, he served as Chief Minister of West Bengal for 14 years.
His parents were close followers of the socio-religious movement, Brahmo Samaj.
He played an instrumental role in the creation of Indian Medical Association and the Medical Council of India.
He efficiently conducted the Civil Disobedience in Bengal in 1929 and prompted Pandit Motilal Nehru to nominate him Member of the Working Committee (CWC) in 1930.
Bidhan Chandra Roy Award was instituted in 1962 in his memory by the Medical Council of India.
Award is given annually in various categories: Statesmanship of the Highest Order in India, Medical man-cum-Statesman, Eminent Medical Person, Eminent person in Philosophy, Eminent person in Science and Eminent person in Arts.
Why is it in the news?
Doctor's Day 2022 was recently celebrated on July 1^st.

21.    With reference to Ellora Caves, consider the following statements:
1. The Ellora caves are located in the district of Aurangabad in Maharashtra.
2. The caves were declared as a UNESCO world heritage site in 1983.
3. The topography of the area consists of a rocky plateau in the shape of a semicircle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
The Ellora caves are located in the district of Aurangabad in Maharashtra. The caves were excavated between the 6th to 11th centuries CE. There are more than 100 caves out of which only 34 are open to the public. Out of the 34, the first 12 are Buddhist, caves, 13 to 29 are Hindu caves, and 30 to 34 are Jain caves. The caves were declared as a UNESCO world heritage site in 1983. The topography of the area consists of a rocky plateau in the shape of a semicircle. The Buddhist caves lie at the right arc on the south, the Jain caves lie at the left arc on the north, while the Hindu caves are at the centre.
The rocks are made of multi-layered basalt formations, known as the Deccan Traps, the finer grains of which lend themselves to detailed sculpting. Due to their close proximity to a trade route, the Ellora caves, unlike the ones at Ajanta, were never lost to oblivion. There are written records which prove that these caves were visited regularly by travellers and royal patronage continued well after the last constructions took place.
The constructions at Ellora, also locally known as Verul, were done under the patronage of kings and wealthy merchants and traders. Although inscriptional evidence is quite scanty, yet it is known that the Rashtrakuta dynasty got a part of the Hindu and the Buddhist caves constructed, while the Yadava dynasty constructed the Jain caves.

22.    Consider the following statements:
1. The weakening in the euro against the dollar indicates that investors are pulling out money from the Eurozone and into the US.
2. If the euro weakens against the dollar then the Indian rupee will also further weaken against the dollar.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Fall of Euro
In terms of the exchange rate, one euro became equal to one US dollar.
This is only the second time since 2002 that the euro has fallen this low to a dollar.
The weakening in the euro against the dollar shows that investors are pulling out money from the Eurozone and into the US.
The reasons for the euro’s continued weakness against the dollar can be broken into two parts.
One, is the weakness of the Eurozone’s economy.
Two, the difference in the monetary policy response between the US and European central banks.
Implications on rupee
At the moment, the rupee has appreciated considerably and as such, Indians holidaying in Europe will find it cheaper to travel.
However, if the euro continues to stay weak and trend below parity, it will also take the rupee down with it.
In other words, if the euro continues to weaken, the rupee, which is already just a whisker away from 80 to a dollar, will further weaken against the dollar.
That’s because the euro has immense trade linkages with India and similar emerging economies.

23.    Which of the following are the reasons for involuntary financial exclusion?
1. Lack of surplus income
2. Remoteness of service provider
3. High transaction costs
4. Poor quality of services rendered
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2, 3
 b) 1, 3, 4
 c) 2, 3, 4
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)

24.    Consider the following statements:
1. A floating solar plant will have a pontoon, a mooring structure to prevent panels from moving freely in the water.
2. The first floating photovoltaic system was built in South Korea and the World’s largest floating solar farm is in China.
3. India’s only and largest floating solar power project is fully operational at Ramagundam reservoir in Telangana state.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 and 3 only
c.  1 and 2 only
d.  3 only
Answer : a
Floating Solar Panels
A network of floating solar panels or photovoltaics/floatovoltaics is mounted on a structure that is made to float on the surface of a water body, which could be a reservoir, lake, irrigation canal, or pond.
Usually, a floating solar plant will have a floating system or pontoon, a mooring structure to prevent panels from moving freely in water and to keep it near the shore, a photovoltaic system to generate electricity using thermal energy, and an underwater cable to transfer the generated power to a substation.
The first floating photovoltaic system was built in Japan in 2007.
Currently, the world’s largest floating solar farm is in Shandong, China and the plant generates 320 MW per hour.
India’s Status
India launched the National Solar Mission in 2010 to tap sources of renewable energy.
According to a study done by TERI in association with the Energy Transmission Commission India program, 2.7 MW capacity floatovoltaic projects were in operation as of 2019, while over 1.7 GW were in various stages of development.
The Government plans to establish a renewable energy capacity of 500 GW by 2030.
So far, the NTPC has installed floating solar plants on reservoirs at Kayamkulam in Kerala (92 MW) and Simhadri in Andhra Pradesh (25 MW).
The world’s largest floating 600 MW solar energy project is being constructed on the Omkareshwar dam in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh, covering approximately 2000 hectares.
Projects at Getalsud in Jharkhand, Rihand reservoir in UP, and Vaitarna in Maharashtra have also been cleared.
The project in Ramagundam, Telangana is the country’s largest floating solar power project. Built at a cost of Rs. 423 crores, the project is spread over 600 acres of the NTPC reservoir in Ramagundam.

25.    Consider the following statements:
1. For forest land beyond two hectares, approval for diverting land must be given by the Central government through the Forest Advisory Committee (FAC).
2. The FAC approval means the users of the land should provide compensatory land for afforestation as well as pay the net present value.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : b
Forest Conservation Rules
The Forest Conservation Rules deal with the implementation of the Forest Conservation Act (FCA), 1980.
They prescribe the procedure to be followed for forest land to be diverted for non-forestry uses such as road construction, highway development, railway lines, and mining.
For forest land beyond five hectares, approval for diverting land must be given by the Central government.
This is via a specially constituted committee, called the Forest Advisory Committee (FAC).
This committee examines whether the user agency or those who have requested forest land, have made a convincing case for the upheaval of that specific parcel of land and whether they have a plan in place to ensure that the ensuing damage — from the felling of trees in that area, denuding the local landscape — will be minimal and the said piece of land doesn’t cause damage to wildlife habitat.
Once the FAC is convinced and approves (or rejects a proposal), it is forwarded to the concerned State government where the land is located, who then has to ensure that provisions of the Forest Right Act, 2006, a separate Act that protects the rights of forest dwellers and tribals over their land, are complied with.
The FAC approval also means that the future users of the land must provide compensatory land for afforestation as well as pay the net present value (ranging between rupees 10-15 lakh per hectare.)
What are the updated rules?
The latest version of the rules, which consolidates changes to the Act over the years from various amendments and court rulings, was made public on June 28, 2022.
Prior to the updated rules, state bodies would forward documents to the Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) that would include information on the status of whether the forest rights of locals in the area were settled.
After 2009, the Environment Ministry passed an order mandating that proposals would not be entertained by the FAC unless there was a letter from the State specifying that the forest rights in the place had been “settled” and the gram sabha, or the governing body in villages in the area, had given their written consent to the diversion of the forest.

26.    Consider the following statements regarding Formalisation of economy.
1. Formalisation of the economy means bringing companies under the regulatory regime of government and subject to laws related to manufacturing and income tax.
2. It establishes rule of law and provide benefits of labour laws to entrepreneurs and workers.
3. It leads to more tax revenueswith an increase in tax-to-GDP ratio.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Formalisation of the economy means bringing companies under the regulatory regime of government and subject to laws related to manufacturing and income tax.
Formalisation leads to more tax revenues with an increase in tax-to-GDP ratio.
Formalisation provides a level-playing field for tax-compliant entities, expanding the tax base so that the burden falls more equitably on all the players rather than a select few.
Transitioning economy towards formality brings benefits by establishing the rule of law and provide benefits of labour laws to entrepreneurs and workers.
It enforces minimum wages and proper documentation of benefits by the employer. Formal jobs also end up ensuring the dignity of labour; enable productivity improvements, as well as access to formal training.

27.    Galathea National Park and Campbell Bay National Park are located in which of the following biosphere reserves?
- A. Great Nicobar Biosphere reserve
- B. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve
- C. Khangchendzonga  Biosphere Reserve
- D. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Great Nicobar is the southernmost island of the Nicobar Islands Archipelago. The Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve harbours a wide spectrum of ecosystems comprising tropical wet evergreen forests, mountain ranges reaching a height of 642 m above sea level, and coastal plains.
•  It incorporates two National parks of India, the larger Campbell Bay National Park on the northern part of the island, and Galathea National Park in the southern interior.
•  The region is noted for its rich biodiversity. It houses 650 species of angiosperms, ferns, gymnosperms, bryophytes and lichens among others. The tract is rich in plant diversity and fosters a number of rare and endemic species.
•  The region also harbours a large number of endemic and endangered species of fauna. Of these, the well-known Crab-eating Macaque, Nicobar Tree Shrew, Dugong, Nicobar Megapode, Serpent Eagle, saltwater crocodile, marine turtles and Reticulated Python are endemic and/or endangered.
•  In year 2013 it was included in the list of Man and Biosphere program of UNESCO to promote sustainable development based on local community effort and sound science
•  The Mongoloid Shompen Tribe, about 200 in number live in the forests of the biosphere reserve particularly along the rivers and streams. They are hunters and food gatherers, dependent on forest and marine resources for sustenance.
•  Another Mongoloid Tribe, Nicobarese about 300 in number used to live in settlements along the west coast. After the tsunami in 2004, which devastated their settlement on the western coast, they were relocated to Afra Bay in the North Coast and Campbell Bay. They survive on fish caught from the sea.

28.    Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Gender Gap Index’s indices are economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment.
2. According to the report, India is the best performer among its neighbors in the ‘health and survival’ sub-index.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Global Gender Gap Index
India ranks 135 among a total of 146 countries in the Global Gender Gap Index 2022 and is the worst performer in the world in the “health and survival” sub-index where it is ranked 146.
India also ranks poorly among its neighbors and is behind Bangladesh (71), Nepal (96), Sri Lanka (110), Maldives (117), and Bhutan (126).
Only Iran (143), Pakistan (145), and Afghanistan (146) perform worse than India in south Asia.
The Global Gender Gap Index benchmarks gender parity across four key dimensions or sub-indices, economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment.
It measures scores on a 0 to 100 scale, which can be interpreted as the distance covered towards parity or the percentage of the gender gap that has been closed.
India ranks 146 in health and survival, 143 in economic participation and opportunity, 107 in educational attainment, and 48th in political empowerment.
The report notes that India’s score of 0.629 was its seventh-highest score in the last 16 years.

29.    Global Gender Gap Index is released by which of the following?
 (a) WEF
 (b) UNDP
 (c) UNESCO
 (d) IMF
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
India ranks 135 among a total of 146 countries in the Global Gender Gap Index, 2022, released by the World Economic Forum.
The country is the worst performer in the world in the “health and survival” sub-index in which it is ranked 146.

30.    The Global Gender Gap Report is a flagship publication of
- A. UN Women
- B. United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network
- C. World Bank
- D. World Economic Forum
Answer: D
Sol:
•  The Global Gender Gap Report is a flagship publication of the World Economic Forum.
•  The report benchmarks the evolution of gender-based gaps in four areas:
o  Economic participation and opportunity,
o  Educational attainment,
o  Health and survival, and
o  Political empowerment.
•  It also examines the drivers of gender gaps and outlines the policies and practices needed for a gender-inclusive recovery.

31.    Global Liveability Index is released by which of the following?
 (a) Economist Intelligence Unit
 (b) Amnesty international
 (c) World Economic Forum
 (d) United Nations Development Programme
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Global Liveability Index 2022
Findings:
Best liveable city in the world: Vienna
Best liveable city in India: Delhi
Least: Bengaluru
Released by: Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU)
Theme:Recovery and Hardship

32.    Consider the following statements:
1. Heatwaves happen due to large-scale atmospheric circulation related to Rossby waves.
2. If the arctic ice is present, the vortex or wind circulation will be concentrated around the Arctic.
3. If the arctic ice is absent, the vortex will become wobbly and come down south to the mid-latitudes.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 and 2 only
b.  1 and 3 only
c.  2 and 3 only
d.  1, 2 and 3
Answer : d
Heatwaves in Europe
Normally, heatwaves happen due to large-scale atmospheric circulation related to Rossby waves.
It is a part of the global warming process.
The worst heatwaves were the 2003 heatwave when 40,000 people died.
If the arctic sea ice is present, the vortex or wind circulation will be concentrated around the Arctic.
If it is not there, the vortex will become wobbly and come down south to the mid-latitudes.
This means there will be a cold wave in some areas and a heat wave in others.

33.    Consider the following statements:
1. I2U2 is known as the International Forum for Economic Cooperation with Iran, Israel, UAE, and the UK as its members.
2. The aim of the organization is to discuss common areas of mutual interest, and to strengthen the economic partnership in trade and investment.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : b
I2U2
I2U2 stands for India, Israel, the UAE, and the US, and was also referred to as the ‘West Asian Quad’.
Its stated aim is to discuss “common areas of mutual interest, to strengthen the economic partnership in trade and investment in our respective regions and beyond”.
Six areas of cooperation have been identified by the countries mutually, and the aim is to encourage joint investments in water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security.

34.    The Incheon commitment/strategy 2013-2022 refers to which of the following statements?
a.  Better relationship of India with South Korea.
b.  Empowerment of disabled persons.
c.  Sustainable Development of Indian Ocean region.
d.  Higher education development in India.
Answer : b
Incheon commitment
India’s signing of the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities.
Enactment of new disability legislation (Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016) which increased the number of disabilities from seven conditions to 21 and being a party to the Incheon Strategy for Asian and Pacific Decade of Persons with Disabilities, 2013-2022 (“Incheon commitment”).
It was prepared under the aegis of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) which identifies 10 goals for Asia-Pacific countries.
It ensures the inclusion and the empowerment of persons with disabilities and conformity with the Sustainable Development Goals 2030.
These commitments have changed the discourse around disability by shifting the focus from the individual to society.

35.    Consider the following statements about the Indian Meteorological Department.
1.  It has the responsibility of forecasting, naming and distribution of warnings for tropical cyclones in the Northern Indian Ocean region.
2.  It is the principal agency under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Statement 2 is correct: Indian Meteorological Department was established in 1875. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country and the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology, seismology and allied subjects. IMD is the principal agency under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
•  IMD is also one of the six Regional Specialised Meteorological Centres of the World Meteorological Organization.
•  Statement 1 is correct: It has the responsibility for forecasting, naming and distribution of warnings for tropical cyclones in the Northern Indian Ocean region, including the Malacca Straits, the Bay of Bengal, the Arabian Sea and the Persian Gulf.
Mandate
•  To take meteorological observations and to provide current and forecast meteorological information for optimum operation of weather-sensitive activities like agriculture, irrigation, shipping, aviation, offshore oil explorations, etc.
•  To warn against severe weather phenomena like tropical cyclones, norwesters, dust storms, heavy rains and snow, cold and heat waves, etc., which cause destruction of life and property.
•  To provide meteorological statistics required for agriculture, water resource management, industries, oil exploration and other nation-building activities.
•  To conduct and promote research in meteorology and allied disciplines.
•  To detect and locate earthquakes and to evaluate seismicity in different parts of the country for development projects.

36.    Consider the following statements:
1. The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categories offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’.
2. Offences under Sections 88 and 170 of the IPC are considered bailable offences, while offences under Sections 204 and 209 are non-bailable.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Bail Law
The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categories offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’.
The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a matter of right.
This would involve release on furnishing a bail bond, without or without security.
Non-bailable offences are cognisable, which enables the police officer to arrest without a warrant.
In such cases, a magistrate would determine if the accused is fit to be released on bail.
There need not be any insistence on a bail application while considering the application under Sections 88, 170, 204 and 209 of the Code.
Section 88 - Nothing which is not intended to cause death, is an offence by reason of any harm.
Section 170 - Whoever pretends to hold any particular office as a public servant.
Section 204 - Whoever secretes or destroys any 1[document or electronic record which he may be lawfully compelled to produce as evidence in a Court of Justice.
Section 209 - Whoever fraudulently or dishonestly, or with intent to injure or annoy any person, makes in a Court of Justice any claim which he knows to be false.

37.    Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code has been in the news a lot recently. What is it better known as?
(a) Dowry Harassment Law
(b) Sedition Law
(c) Unlawful Assembly Law
(d) Law Against Hurting Religious Sentiment
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution
Section 124A defines sedition.
Enrich Your Learning
About the Sedition Law
In 1890 British India, sedition was included as an offence under section 124A IPC through the Special Act XVII.
The provision was extensively used to curb political dissent during the Independence movement.
It says ringing or attempting to bring hatred or contempt, or exciting or attempting to excite disaffection towards, the Government established by law shall be punished with imprisonment for life and additionally charged a fine.
Indian Freedom Fighters on the Sedition Law
Lokmanya Tilak
The Lokmanya was tried for sedition three times and was imprisoned twice.
In court, Tilak argued that as a British subject he was entitled to certain legal rights, such as freedom of expression which were being denied to him.
Mahatma Gandhi
In March 1922, Gandhi was charged with sedition for writing three articles in his weekly journal Young India.
Gandhi declared that since he had no affection for the colonial government, it was his moral duty to disobey unjust laws.
He has said that affection cannot be manufactured or regulated by law.
He believed the spreading of disaffection against an immoral government was necessary for those who considered themselves nationalists.
Jawaharlal Nehru
Nehru was charged with sedition in 1930.
Nehru has stated that the Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code is highly objectionable and obnoxious and it should have no place both for practical and historical reasons.
Why is it in the news?
Recently, the Supreme Court stayed all pending trials, appeals, and proceedings relating to Section 124A, which deals with the charge of sedition, until the Union government completes its exercise to review the colonial-era provision.

38.    Recently, which one of the following has inaugurated the world’s first-ever facility dedicated to monitoring space debris and safeguarding assets in space?
 (a) SpaceX
 (b) NASA
 (c) ISRO
 (d) JAXA
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) inaugurated the world’s first-ever facility dedicated to monitoring space debris and safeguarding assets in space, which is expected to significantly help combat the growing threat to orbiting satellites and space stations.

39.    Consider the following statements with reference to the Information Technology Act
1. Section 69 (A) of the IT Act, 2000 allows the Centre to issue blocking orders to social media intermediaries in the country's interest.
2. In case of disputes under the law, only domestic Internet intermediaries/platforms have the right to court and judicial review.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution
All including foreign Internet intermediaries/platforms have the right to court and judicial review.
Enrich Your Learning
About the Information Technology Act, 2000
It was passed and adopted by the Parliament in 2000.
It is the primary law in India for matters related to cybercrime and e-commerce.
Section 69 (A) of the IT Act, 2000 allows the Centre to issue blocking orders to social media intermediaries “in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognisable offence relating to above”.
It defines an intermediary as a person/entity that receives, stores and transmits information or provides service for the transmission of information.
They cannot be held liable for the third-party content published on their platform as long as they comply with the legal order to take down content from courts or other authorities.
Some entities see this as a strike on free speech and are fighting against it.
Why is it in the news?
Social media giant, Twitter, has recently filed a lawsuit against the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (Meity), stating that many of the blocking orders are procedurally and substantively deficient under Section 69 (A) of the Act.

40.    Consider the following statements regarding Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES).
1. Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is a United Nations body established for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.
2. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
3. It is intended to serve a similar role to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 1 and 3 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development. It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 Governments. It is not a United Nations body. However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of the UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
The governing body of IPBES – made up of the representatives of IPBES member States – usually meets once per year. Observers: Any State not yet a member of IPBES; the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and other biodiversity-related conventions; related UN bodies; as well as many other relevant organizations and agencies. It is intended to serve a similar role to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.

41.    Consider the following statements regarding International Development Association (IDA).
1. The International Development Association (IDA) is the part of IMF that helps the world’s poorest countries.
2. IDA lends money on concessional terms i.e., at zero or very low interest charge and repayments are stretched over 30 to 40 years.
3. IDA does not provide any grants to countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 2 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 3
Solution: a)
The International Development Association (IDA) is the part of the World Bank that helps the world’s poorest countries. 
IDA lends money on concessional terms. This means that IDA credits have a zero or very low interest charge and repayments are stretched over 30 to 40 years, including a 5- to 10-year grace period. IDA also provides grants to countries at risk of debt distress.

42.    Consider the following statements about International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC):
1. It is a multi-modal transportation established in 2000 for the purpose of promoting transportation cooperation among the Member States.
2. This corridor connects India Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Pakistan.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
It isa 7,200-km-long multi-mode network of ship, rail, and road route for moving freight.
Regions involved:India, Iran, Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, Russia, Central Asia and Europe.
This corridor connects India Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Iran, Islamic Rep., and is then connected to Saint Petersburg and North European via Russia.

43.    Consider the following statements about the International Space Station:
1. It is the biggest space laboratory of USA.
2. It orbits around the Earth at the same time it moves around the Sun.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
S1: It is a multinational collaborative project involving five participating space agencies: NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe), and CSA (Canada). The ownership and use of the space station is established by intergovernmental treaties and agreements.
S2: It orbits around Earth.

44.    With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
IUCN is a voluntary organization, not an agency of United Nations. Even if you knew this much, you could eliminate all other options to select B. Some facts about IUCN:
Founded in 1948 as the world’s first global environmental organization
Today the largest professional global conservation network
A leading authority on the environment and sustainable development
More than 1,200 member organizations including 200+ government and 900+ non-government organizations
A neutral forum for governments, NGOs, scientists, business and local communities to find practical solutions to conservation and development challenges
Thousands of field projects and activities around the world
CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). States (countries) adhere voluntarily to the agreement. States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention (‘joined’ CITES) are known as Parties.
Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.

45.    Consider the following statements:
1. Internet and Mobile Association of India (IMAI) is the country’s only organization representing the digital services industry.
2. The Blockchain and Crypto Assets Council (BACC) serves as an umbrella organization for various blockchain firms to engage with the government.
3. The IMAI works under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and the BACC functions under the Ministry of Finance.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 and 2 only
b.  1 and 3 only
c.  2 and 3 only
d.  1, 2 and 3
Answer : a
Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)
It is a not-for-profit industry body and the country's only organization representing the digital services industry with over 400 Indian and multinational corporations as its members.
It was established in the year 2004.
It is dedicated to presenting a unified voice of the businesses it represents to the government, investors, consumers, and other stakeholders.
Blockchain and Crypto Assets Council (BACC)
IAMAI had created and nurtured BACC for four years.
BAAC serves as an umbrella organization for various blockchain firms to engage with the government.
The Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) has decided to shut down the Blockchain and Crypto Assets Council (BACC).
With this, IAMAI will cease to represent crypto exchanges operating in India.

46.    Consider the following animals:
1. Shevaroy Hills earth snake
2. Malabar Civet
3. Indian Vulture
Which of the species mentioned above are included in the IUCN Red List as critically endangered?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All 1, 2, and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution
Shevaroy Hills earth snake, Malabar Civet, and Indian Vulture are all included in the IUCN Red List as critically endangered.
Enrich Your Learning
Elvira Rat

[ref: kidadl
The Elvira rat (Cremnomys elvira) is a critically endangered species of rodent in the family Muridae.
It is found in the Salem District of the Eastern Ghats, Tamil Nadu.
It prefers rocky habitats and dry deciduous scrub forests at elevations of about 600 m above mean sea level.
Shevaroy Hills Earth Snake

[ref: inaturalist NZ
Uropeltis shorttii, also known as the Shevaroy Hills earth snake or Shortt's shieldtail snake, is a species of non-venomous snake.
It is endemic to the Shevaroy Hills of Salem district in Tamil Nadu state in South India.
It is listed as Critically Endangered in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

47.    Consider the following statements:
1. Light from distant objects is compressed by the expansion of our universe, which drives the radiation from the visible to infrared region.
2. James Webb Telescope is the biggest and first infrared telescope ever built and collects more photons than the Hubble Telescope.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : d
James Webb Telescope
About 13.8 billion years ago, through the Big Bang, our Universe emerged. The first stars and galaxies were born around 300 million years after the Big Bang.
As light travels with a velocity of about 3,00,000 km per second, light from a distant object will take time to reach us on Earth.
Hence, when we see a distant stellar object, we see it as if it were far back in time.
However, since objects far away are dim, we need giant telescopes to collect more light.
Further, light from distant objects is stretched out by the expansion of our Universe, driving the radiation from the visible range into the infrared.
Therefore, to look deep back into the early phases of the Universe, we need a giant infrared telescope.
JWST is the biggest infrared telescope ever built. With a 6.5-meter primary mirror, the JWST infrared telescope collects more photons than Hubble.
It can see even the faintest flicker from the most distant regions of the cosmos.

48.    Consider the following statements:
1. Jet Streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10 degree Celsius lesser than that of the surroundings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 2 only
 (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
S1: This is obviously incorrect, they occur in upper atmospheres of both hemispheres.
S2: Correct. Extra-tropical cyclones may not always have an eye, whereas mostly mature storms have well developed eye. Rapidly intensifying storms may develop an extremely small, clear, and circular eye, sometimes referred to as a pinhole eye.
S3: It is warmer and not colder for a tropical cyclone. The warmer temperature is what drives the storm.
Context:
An extremely large ‘Azores High’ (a subtropical weather phenomenon) has resulted in abnormally dry conditions across the western Mediterranean.
Azores High is a subtropical high-pressure system that extends over the eastern subtropical North Atlantic and Western Europe during winter. It is associated with anticyclonic winds in the subtropical North Atlantic. It is formed by dry air aloft descending the subtropics and coincides with the downward branch of the Hadley Circulation.

49.    Consider the following statements.
1. Judicial review is considered a basic structure of the constitution.
2. The term ‘untouchability’ has been defined in Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955
3. Article 11 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 2, 3
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1 only
 d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
Judicial review is considered a basic structure of the constitution.
The term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act.
Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressively provides for the doctrine of judicial review. This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.

50.    Consider the following statements:
1. The Juvenile Justice Board is an institutional body constituted under Section 4 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.
2. One or more than one Juvenile Justice Board(s) are established by the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) for each state.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The Juvenile Justice Boardis an institutional body constituted under Section 4 of the JJ Act, 2015. According to the division of powers, the subject of administration of criminal justice has been included in the State List (List II, Schedule VII) of the Indian Constitution. Therefore, one or more than one Juvenile Justice Board(s) are established by the State Government for each district. The Board exercises its powers and discharges functions relating to the ‘child in conflict with law’ as has been defined under Section 2(13) of this Act.

51.    Consider the following statements:
1. The Kerguelen hotspot is a volcanic hotspot at the Kerguelen Plateau in the Southern Indian Ocean.
2. The Kerguelen islands are administratively a part of the Indian Southern and Antarctic Lands.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Kerguelen hotspot
The Kerguelen hotspot is a volcanic hotspot at the Kerguelen Plateau in the Southern Indian Ocean.
The Kerguelen hotspot has produced basaltic lava for about 130 million years.
The Kerguelen Islands, an archipelago in the southern Indian Ocean.
Administratively a part of the French Southern and Antarctic Lands, it consists of the island of Kerguelen (also known as Desolation Island) and nearly 300 islets, which together cover about 2,400 square miles.
Heavily glaciated Kerguelen Island, about 100 miles in length, has active glaciers and peaks up to 6,445 feet.

52.    With reference to the temples at Khajuraho, consider the following statements:
1. The site of Khajuraho belonged to the Chandela Kings who ruled over Central India from the 9th to 13th centuries.
2. The monuments at Khajuraho are a group of Hindu and Jaina temples.
3. The Brahma temple is the only temple at Khajuraho completely built of soapstone and has a four-faced lingam in its sanctum sanctorum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 2 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The site of Khajuraho belonged to the Chandela Kings who ruled over Central India from the 9th to 13th centuries. Khajuraho was the cultural capital of the Chandela rulers as a result of which it continued to flourish despite the frequent shifting of its political capital. Initially, this group of monuments were a total of eighty-four temples out of which only twenty-five remain intact today. The monuments at Khajuraho are a group of Hindu and Jaina temples. Widely known for its magnificent structures and the much-debated erotic sculptures, Khajuraho was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in the year 1986.
Khajuraho temples are considered as some of the best examples of Nagara style of temple architecture with a sanctum cella (garbhagriha), small vestibule (antarala), a large hall (mahamandapa), an assembly hall (mandapa) and an entrance portico (ardhamandapa).
The temples are grouped into three categories; the Western Group, the Eastern Group and the Southern Group.
Western Group:
It is the western group that is known worldwide with the Kandariya Mahadev Temple, Lakshmana Temple, Visvanatha Temple, Chausath Yogini and Chitragupta Temple being a part of it. They are considered to be some of the best representations of a typical Khajuraho temple. Out of these, the Kandariya Mahadev (102 feet in length and 66 feet in breadth) temple has a lingam enshrined in its sanctum sanctorum. Known for its intricately carved interiors depicting Gods and Goddesses, the exteriors of this temple have erotic sculptures carved on them.
Eastern Group:
This group is dominated by the Jaina Temples out of which the Parsvanath Temple is the largest. Initially, the temple was dedicated to Adinath which was later replaced with the idol of Parsvanath. Close to the Parsvanath temple is the Ghantai Temple and the Adinath temple. The Adinath temple is one of the later temples as a result of which the sculptures of this temple are more detailed and delicately carved.
This group also has the Vamana, Brahma and Javeri temples of the Hindu pantheon. The Brahma temple is the only temple at Khajuraho completely built of granite and has a four-faced lingam in its sanctum sanctorum.
Southern Group:
The Southern Group of temples is situated slightly away from other groups and consists of the Duladeo Temple, Chaturbhuj Temple and the Beejamandal Temple. The Duladeo temple dedicated to Lord Shiva has some of the best sculptures depicting apsaras and is the most famous temple among the Southern Group of temples.

53.    Identify the statement associated with the term Lavender Scare, recently in news?
a.  The marginalization of LGBTQ employees working in the US government.
b.  Failure of the lavender cultivation in the perfume producing states of India.
c.  Four-lined plant bug, garden flea hopper found in the lavender plants affecting its yield.
d.  None of the above.
Answer : a
Lavender Scare
The Lavender Scare was the marginalization of LGBTQ employees working in the US government’s offices during the 1950s and 1960s.
It is often described as a “witch-hunt”, where those suspected of being from the LGBTQ community were fired from their jobs.
One such case was of NASA’s Clifford Norton.
Norton was fired in 1963 for “immoral, indecent, and disgraceful conduct” after being interrogated for allegedly being a homosexual man.
NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope has been named after James Webb, who ran the US space agency from 1961 to 1968 and allegedly had a role to play in the “Lavender Scare” at NASA.

54.    With reference to ‘Li-Fi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission.
2. It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘WiFi’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1: Li-fi is loosely expanded to Light-Fidelity. Using precisely controlled light modulation, data can be transmitted using regular, visible light.
Statement 2:It will be 10-100 times faster than current-generation WiFi, and also very secure.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2016

55.    Consider the following statements regarding Li-Fi Technology.
1. Li-Fi is a wireless technology that makes use of High frequency radio waves to transmit data at terabits per second speeds.
2. Li-Fi can work underwater, where Wi-Fi fails completely.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Li-Fi, or light fidelity, invented by German physicist and professor Harald Haas, is a wireless technology that makes use of visible light in place of radio waves to transmit data at terabits per second speeds—more than 100 times the speed of Wi-Fi.
Li-Fi offers great promise to overcome the existing limitations of Wi-Fi by providing for data-heavy communication in short ranges.
Li-Fi can also easily work underwater, where Wi-Fi fails completely, thereby throwing open endless opportunities for military and navigational operations.

56.    The motto “Satyameva Jayate” in the Sarnath Lion Capital is taken from
- A. Mundaka Upanishad
- B. Chhandogya Upanishad
- C. Brihadaranyaka Upanishad
- D. Puranas
Answer: A
 Sol:
•  The Prime Minister unveiled the 6.5 metre-tall National Emblem on top of the under-construction new Parliament building.
About Sarnath Lion Capital
•  In the original Sarnath Lion Capital, there are four lions, mounted back to back, on a circular abacus, which itself rests on a bell-shaped lotus.
•  It has four Asiatic lions, depicting power, courage, pride and confidence, seated on a circular base.
•  The frieze of the abacus has sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening Dharma Chakras. The Bull represents hard work and steadfastness, Elephant represents strength, Lion represents bravery and the Horse represents loyalty, speed, and energy.
•  The Lion Capital crowning the Ashok Pillar is carved out of a single block of yellow sandstone.
•  The Lion Capital was erected by Mauryan Emperor Ashoka in 3rd century BC to mark the spot where Buddha imparted his knowledge of Dharma to his five disciples.
What was taken as the national emblem
•  The State Emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka Column at Sarnath.
•  The profile of the Lion Capital showing three lions mounted on the abacus with a Dharma Chakra in the centre, a bull on the right and a galloping horse on the left, and outlines of Dharma Chakras on the extreme right and left was adopted as the State Emblem of India on January 26, 1950.
o  The national emblem is a 2-Dimensional image, hence only 3 lions are visiblein the adapted emblem.
•  The bell-shaped lotus was omitted.
•  The motto Satyameva Jayate, which means 'Truth Alone Triumphs', written in Devanagari script below the profile of the Lion Capital is part of the State Emblem of India. The words are a quote from Mundaka Upanishad, that is embedded in the Atharva Veda.
•  After Independence, the task of adapting the emblem from Ashoka’s pillar was given to Nandalal Bose, then principal of Kala Bhavan’s fine arts department at Visva-Bharati in Bengal.

57.    Maastricht Treaty and Lisbon Treaty are related to which of the following International organisations?
- A. North Atlantic Treaty Organization
- B. G 7
- C. ASEAN
- D. European Union
Answer: D
Sol:
•  The European Union (EU) is a unique economic and political union between 27 European countries.
•  The United Kingdom, which had been a founding member of the EU, left the organization in 2020.
•  The EU was created by the Maastricht Treaty, which entered into force on November 1, 1993. The treaty was designed to enhance European political and economic integration by creating a single currency (the euro), a unified foreign and security policy, and common citizenship rights and by advancing cooperation in the areas of immigration, asylum, and judicial affairs.
•  Additionally, the Treaty of Lisbon, enacted in 2009, gave the EU more broad powers that included being authorized to sign international treaties, increase border patrol, and other security and enforcement provisions.
•  EU’s headquarters is currently located in Brussels, Belgium.
•  Currently, the euro is the official currency of 19 out of 27 EU member countries which together constitute the Eurozone, officially called the euro area.

58.    Which one of the following heritage site is known especially for its rathas (temples in the form of chariots), mandapas (cave sanctuaries), and giant open-air reliefs such as the famous ‘Descent of the Ganges’?
 (a) Group of Monuments at Hampi
 (b) Group of Monuments at Pattadakal
 (c) Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram
 (d) Khajuraho Group of Monuments
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram
Mahabalipuram
Fifty six kilometre south of Chennai stands Mahabalipuram (traditionally known as Mamallapuram) the ancient seaport of the Pallava kingdom (7th – 8th centuries)
Mahabalipuram,which was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 is a complex of rock cut temples, monolithic structures, rathas (chariot temples), mandapas (caves) and numerous Siva sculptures.
Cave temples
The Cave Temples were built before the reign of the Pallava king Mahendravarman I and are a complex of various temples that denote the oldest forms of Pallava architecture.
These consist of the Adi Paraha Perumal Cave Temple (dedicated to Lord Vishnu), the Trimurti Cave Temple (dedicated to Brahma, Vishnu and Siva), the Krishna Caves, Mahishasuramardini Cave (dedicated to Goddess Durga) and the Yali or Tiger Caves (Narasimhavarman II or Rajasimha – The Royal Seat).
Pancha Ratha
The Pancha Rathas or the five chariots is essentially an architectural eclogue to the five Pandavas and their wife Draupadi from the Mahabharata. Each ratha (Draupadi ratha, Arjuna ratha, Bhim ratha, Dharmaraja ratha, Nakul-Sahadev ratha) structurally signifies the traits of each of the Pandavas which makes them different from one another. Carved from a single slab of rock, the walls of these rathas are adorned with bas reliefs and murals such as elephants and Nandi the bull.
Descent of the Ganges/Arjuna’s Penance
The Descent of the Ganges also known as Arjuna’s penance is the second largest ancient monolithic structure in Asia. The inscription depicts the mythical story of Arjuna from the Mahabharata and scenes from everyday South Indian life.
The centre represents the nagas (snakes) descending from a once water-filled cleft, representing the Ganges. The left has Arjuna performing self-mortification (standing on one leg), in order to procure Pasupatastra, the most powerful weapon from Lord Siva.
Shore Temple
The two towered Shore Temple at the very coast of Coromandel is one of the most significant representations of Pallava architecture. It consists of the seven pagodas that were built between 700 and 728 CE during the reign of Narasimhavarman II and is dedicated to Lord Siva. The entrance of the temple is marked by gopurams and the shikhara or the roof of the temple resembles a pyramidal structure, which is one of a kind. A complex of seven temples, there are a few along with other civil structures that presently lie under the sea.
Olakkanneshvara Temple
The Olakkanneshvara Temple or the Olakkanatha Temple is a temple dedicated to Lord Siva located on the top of a hill.

59.    Consider the following statements regarding Manda buffalo, recently seen in news.
1. It is found in the Eastern Ghats and parts of Odisha.
2. They are less prone to diseases and are resistant to parasitic infections.
3. It is the first animal to be recognised by National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) has recognised the Manda buffalo, found in the Eastern Ghats and plateau of Koraput region of Odisha, as the 19th unique breed of buffaloes found in India.
The Manda are resistant to parasitic infections, less prone to diseases and can live, produce and reproduce at low or nil input system.
This buffalo germ-plasm was first identified through a detail survey conducted by the Animal Resource Development (ARD) department of Odisha in collaboration with Orissa University of Agriculture and Technology (OUAT).
With Manda buffalo recognised by NBAGR, it will be incumbent upon both Centre and State governments to devise a strategy for conservation of these buffaloes.
Four breeds of cattle — Binjharpuri, Motu, Ghumusari and Khariar — and two breeds of buffalo — Chilika and Kalahandi — and one breed of sheep, Kendrapada, have already received NBAGR recognition.

60.    Which of the following pair of elements was discovered by Dr Marie Curie while studying uranium’s rays?
(a) Radon and Polonium
(b) Radium and Polonium
(c) Radium and Plutonium
(d) Radon and Plutonium
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution:
Radium and Polonium are the two elements discovered by Dr Marie Curie while studying uranium’s rays.
Enrich Your Learning
Marie Curie
Marie Curie, a Polish-French physicist and chemist, was the first woman to receive a Nobel Prize and the only woman to receive two Nobel prizes.
While studying uranium’s rays, she discovered new elements and named them polonium and radium.
She also coined the term “radio-active” to describe them.
In 1903, Curie won the Nobel Prize in Physics for her research on radiation phenomena.
She was also the first woman in France to attain a PhD in Physics, and the first woman to teach at the Sorbonne.
In 1911, she won a second Nobel Prize in chemistry for the discovery of polonium and radium.
During World War I, she established mobile radiology units to help doctors treat over a million wounded soldiers.
Curie’s pioneering work in radiation led to new cancer treatments.
After suffering from a short illness, Curie passed away on 4 July 1934.
Why is it in the news?
On 4^th July, Nobel Laureate Marie Curie's 88^th Death Anniversary was observed.

61.    Metamaterial, sometimes seen in news, is an object that gains its electrical properties from its
 a) Change of phase
 b) Constituent materials
 c) Temperature
 d) Internal microstructures
Solution: d)
A metamaterial is defined as an artificial composite that gains its electrical properties from its structure rather than inheriting them directly from the materials it is composed of.
This term is particularly used when the resulting material has properties not found in naturally formed substances.
Potential applications of metamaterials are diverse and include optical filters, medical devices, remote aerospace applications among others.

62.    It is the largest country in the Middle East, and the second-largest country in the Arab world. It is the only country with a coastline along both the Red Sea and the Persian Gulf.
The above description refers to which of the following countries?
- A. Saudi Arabia
- B. Yemen
- C. Iraq
- D. Egypt
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Saudi Arabia is the largest country in the Middle East, and the second-largest country in the Arab world.
•  It is bordered by Jordan, Iraq, and Kuwait to the north; by the Persian Gulf, Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, and Oman to the east; by a portion of Oman to the southeast; by Yemen to the south and southwest; and by the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aqaba to the west.
•  Saudi Arabia is the only country with a coastline along both the Red Sea and the Persian Gulf.

63.    Consider the following statements regarding the Middle-income trap:
1. Middle-income trap is a situation in middle-income countries where they are not able to move up to higher-income status.
2. The World Bank classifies countries with $ 1000 to $1005 per capita income as middle-income countries.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Middle Income Trap
The World Bank is classifying countries in terms of per capita income.
Low-income countries are those with a per capita income lower than $1005.
The second category is the middle-income group with a per capita income varying from $1006 to $ 12235.
This group is the largest one with nearly 81 countries.
Countries with a PCI of $12236 and above are classified as higher-income economies.
An irony about middle-income countries is that many of them are not moving up to the higher income category where the per capita income is above $12736.
This situation of falling at the middle-income level is called the middle-income trap by economists.
The “middle-income trap” is the phenomenon of hitherto rapidly growing economies stagnating at middle-income levels (of per capita income) and failing to graduate into the ranks of high-income countries.
At the same time, many other countries have made significant progress through industrialization.
They were able to expand the national income and thus the per capita income.

64.    With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
 (a) 1 and 3 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
S1:There is some ambiguity in sand being a minor mineral. Sand can be a major mineral or a minor mineral depending on where it is used; same is the case for limestone. A brief discussion follows.
According to section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 “Minor Minerals” means building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes.
The term ordinary sand used in clause (e) of Section-3 of the MMDR Act, 1957 has been further clarified in Rule 70 of the Mineral Concession Rule, 1960.
It is stated that sand shall not be treated as minor mineralwhen used for any of the following purposes namely; (i) purpose of refractory and manufacturer of ceramic, (ii) metallurgical purposes, (iii)optical purposes, (iv) purposes of stowing in coal mines, (v) for manufacture of silvicrete cement, (vi) manufacture of sodium silicate and (vii) manufacture of pottery and glass.
However, given the ambiguity, we need to assume that UPSC is perhaps referring to ordinary sand.S1 is provisionally correct.
S2 and S3:The central government has the power to notify “minor minerals” under section 3 (e) of the MMDR Act, 1957. On the other hand, as per Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957 State Governments have complete powers for making Rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals and levy and collection of royalty on minor minerals.
The power to frame policy and legislation relating to minor minerals is entirely delegated to the State Governments while policy and legislation relating to the major minerals are dealt by the Ministry of Mines under Union /Central Government. So, S2 is incorrect and S3 is correct.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019

65.    Consider the following statements regarding Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR).
1. Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)was established by G-20 countries.
2. The focus of MTCR include non-proliferation of unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) for all weapons of mass destruction.
3. It is not a legally-binding treaty, it is an informal and voluntary partnership among countries.
4. India was the founder member of the Missile Technology Control Regime.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2, 3
 b) 2, 3
 c) 2, 3, 4
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR):
Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) was established in April 1987 by G-7 countries – USA, UK, France, Germany, Canada, Italy, and Japan.
In 1992, the focus of the regime extended to on the proliferation of missiles for the delivery of all types of weapons of mass destruction (WMD), i.e., nuclear, chemical and biological weapons.
It is not a legally-binding treaty. It is an informal and voluntary partnership among countriesto prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying greater than 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
The members are thus prohibited from supplying such missiles and UAV systems that are controlled by the MTCR to non-members.
The decisions are taken by consensus of all the members. This is a non–treaty association of member countries with certain guidelines about the information sharing, national control laws and export policies for missile systems and a rule-based regulation mechanism to limit the transfer of such critical technologies of these missile systems.
India was inducted into the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016 as the 35th member.

66.    Government of India’s ‘Mission Shakti’ aims at
A.  Undertaking research in science and technology priority areas of the nation wherein the capability and capacity are needed to be developed
B.  Strengthening interventions for women safety, security and empowerment
C.  Attract talent to the study of science at an early stage
D.  Provide professionally managed services with efficiency, accessibility and transparency of highest order under one roof to service the demands of industry, start-ups and academia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Sol:
•  ‘Mission Shakti’ is a scheme in mission mode aimed at strengthening interventions for women safety, security and empowerment.
•  It seeks to realise the Government’s commitment for “women-led development‟ by addressing issues affecting women on a life-cycle continuum basis and by making them equal partners in nation-building through convergence and citizen-ownership.
•  The scheme seeks to make women economically empowered, exercising free choice over their minds and bodies in an atmosphere free from violence and threat.
•  It also seeks to reduce the care burden on women and increase female labour force participation by promoting skill development, capacity building, financial literacy, access to micro-credit etc.
•  ‘Mission Shakti’ has two sub-schemes - 'Sambal' and 'Samarthya'.
o  While the "Sambal" sub-scheme is for safety and security of women, the "Samarthya" sub-scheme is for empowerment of women.
o  The components of 'Sambal' sub-scheme consist of erstwhile schemes of One Stop Centre (OSC), Women Helpline (WHL), Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) with a new component of Nari Adalats - women's collectives to promote and facilitate alternative dispute resolution and gender justice in society and within families.
o  The components of 'Samarthya' sub-scheme consist of erstwhile schemes of Ujjwala, Swadhar Greh and Working Women Hostel have been included with modifications.
o  In addition, the existing schemes of National Creche Scheme for children of working mothers and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) under umbrella ICDS have now been included in Samarthya. A new component of Gap Funding for Economic Empowerment has also been added in the Samarthya Scheme.

67.    Consider the following statements about the Monkeypox disease:
1. It is a viral zoonotic disease with symptoms similar to those seen in the past in smallpox patients.
2. It is usually a self-limited disease with the symptoms lasting from 2 to 4 weeks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Monkeypox is a viral zoonosis (a virus transmitted to humans from animals) with symptoms similar to those seen in the past in smallpox patients, although it is clinically less severe.
Monkeypox is usually a self-limited disease with the symptoms lasting from 2 to 4 weeks. Severe cases can occur. In recent times, the case fatality ratio has been around 3–6%.

68.    Mukundara Hills National Park, recently seen in news is located in
 (a) Maharashtra
 (b) Madhya Pradesh
 (c) Rajasthan
 (d) Gujarat
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Mukundara Hills National Parkis a national park in Rajasthan.
It was established in 2004 and consists of three wildlife sanctuaries: Darrah Wildlife Sanctuary, National Chambal Sanctuary, and Jawahar Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary

69.    Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
 (a) 1 and 2
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1, 3 and 4
 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
S1 and S2:Selection of resistant microorganisms is exacerbated by inappropriate use of antimicrobials since a number of microbes are resistant to these anti-biotics. So, S1 is irrelevant to MDR.
The practice of adding antibiotics to agricultural feed promotes drug resistance.
S3:As per WHO, the high volume of antibiotics in food-producing animals contributes to the development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria, particularly in settings of intensive animal production. These bacteria can be transmitted from animals to humans via direct contact between animals and humans, or through the food chain and the environment.
S4:This is a confusing option, nonetheless seems correct.
Many medical advances are dependent on the ability to fight infections using antibiotics, such as for treatment of chronic diseases like diabetes, asthma, and rheumatoid arthritis, and thus, multiple chronic diseases in some people may lead them to take more anti-biotics than others exacerbating the problem.
Sometimes healthcare providers prescribe antimicrobials inappropriately, wishing to placate an insistent patient who has a viral infection or an as-yet undiagnosed condition. At times there could be a wrong identification of the disease. All these worsen the problem. Whether this is actually a reason or not is hard to testify unless we find a solid evidence, but based on reasoning alone this would be correct.
Also, MDR provokes obstruction in disease control by intensifying the possibility of spreading of resistant pathogens, thus, declining efficacy of treatment and, hence, resulting in prolonged time of infection in patient.

70.    Consider the following statements:
1. The muon is one of the fundamental subatomic particles.
2. Muons are similar to proton but weigh more than 207 times as much.
3. Muons are by-products of cosmic rays colliding with molecules in the upper atmosphere.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 1 and 3 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The muon is one of the fundamental subatomic particles, the most basic building blocks of the universe as described in the Standard Model of particle physics.
Muons are similar to electrons but weigh more than 207 times as much.
Muons occur naturally when cosmic rays strike Earth’s atmosphere, and particle accelerators at Fermilab can produce them in large numbers.
Muons are by-products of cosmic rays colliding with molecules in the upper atmosphere. Muons reach earth with an average velocity of about 0.994c.

71.    In the light of the unique breeds recognition program, which of the following breeds got recognition by The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) as a unique breed of buffalo?
a) Binjharpuri
b) Ghumusari
c) Kendrapada
d) Manda
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: Manda has been recognized by The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) as a unique breed of buffalo.
Enrich your learning:
Manda buffalo
  
[Ref-ToI
It is distributed in Koraput, Malkangiri, and Nawarangapur districts of Odisha.
It is a sturdy buffalo, well adapted to hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats and the plateau of the Koraput region of Odisha.
Body colour is mostly ash grey and grey with copper-colored hairs.
The lower part of the leg is lighter.
Horns are broad, emerging slightly laterally, extending backward and inward, and making a half-circle.
It is reared for draught, milk, and manure.
Both males and females are used for agriculture operations.
Daily milk production ranges between 1.2 to 3.7 kg.
Manda buffaloes are reared mostly under an extensive system.
It is resistant to parasitic infections and less prone to diseases.
It can live, produce and reproduce at low or nil input systems.
Why in News?
The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) has recognized the Manda buffalo as the 19th unique breed of buffaloes found in India.

72.    “To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem ” is a provision made in the
 (a) Preamble of the Constitution
 (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
 (c) Fundamental Rights
 (d) Fundamental Duties
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Constitutional & Statutory Provisions regarding National Flag of India:
Art 51A (a) –To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
Statutes Governing Use of Flag:
Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950.
Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act, 1971.

73.    Consider the following statements:
1. National flags made of polyester or machine-made National flags are not allowed for use.
2. Hoisting of the National flag by individuals at their private premises is prohibited under the flag code.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : d
Flag Code
The use, display, and hoisting of the National Flag in the country are guided by an overarching set of instructions called the ‘Flag Code of India 2002’.
It brings together all laws, conventions, practices, and instructions for the display of the National Flag.
It governs the display of the National Flag by private, public, and government institutions.
The Flag Code of India took effect on January 26, 2002.
As per Clause 2.1 of the Flag Code of India, there shall be no restriction on the display of the National Flag by members of the general public, private organizations, educational institutions, etc. consistent with the dignity and honor of the National Flag.
The Flag Code of India, 2002 was amended vide Order dated December 30, 2021, and a National Flag made of polyester or machine-made flag has also been allowed. Now, the National Flag shall be made of hand-spun, hand-woven, or machine-made cotton/polyester/wool/silk/khadi bunting, as per the amended flag code.
In 1995 Delhi High Court allowed the hoisting of the national flag by individuals at their private premises.

74.    Consider the following statements about Natural Resources Accounts:
1. The asset accounts capture details of 34 major minerals, 58 minor minerals, and all four fossil fuels. 
2. The Government Accounting Standards Advisory Board (GASAB) publishes Asset Accounts for Mineral and Energy Resources across 28 States and one Union Territory.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Natural Resources Accounts
The Government Accounting Standards Advisory Board (GASAB) will publish a national report that would capture the Asset Accounts for Mineral and Energy Resources across 28 States and one Union Territory.
The asset accounts capture details of 34 major minerals, 58 minor minerals, and all four fossil fuels.
Once this report is published, policymakers will get a complete picture of mineral and energy resources in the country and this would help them make informed policy decisions and make appropriate interventions.
GASAB, which is part of CAG and constituted in 2002, is handholding the State Governments in the preparation of Asset Accounts and helping them conform to the international obligations around NRA.
The UN adopted (2012) the System of Economic and Environmental Accounting (SEEA) central framework which is the latest internationally accepted framework for NRA.

75.    In which one of the following States is Neora Valley National Parks located?
 (a) Himachal Pradesh
 (b) Uttarakhand
 (c) Assam
 (d) West Bengal
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
The number of red pandas has been declining in the wild, even in the Singalila and Neora Valley National Parks (West Bengal)

76.    Consider the following statements:
1. The observable universe is a ball-shaped region of the universe comprising all matter that can be observed from Earth.
2. The comoving distance from Earth to the edge of the observable universe is symmetrical in any direction.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : d
Observable Universe
The observable universe is a ball-shaped region of the universe comprising all matter that can be observed from Earth or its space-based telescopes and exploratory probes at the present time because the electromagnetic radiation from these objects has had time to reach the Solar System and Earth since the beginning of the cosmological expansion.
There may be 2 trillion galaxies in the observable universe, although that number was reduced in 2021 to only several hundred billion based on data from New Horizons.
Assuming the universe is isotropic, the distance to the edge of the observable universe is roughly the same in every direction.
That is, the observable universe is a spherical region centered on the observer.
Every location in the universe has its own observable universe, which may or may not overlap with the one centered on Earth.
The comoving (moving in the same direction and at the same speed) distance from Earth to the edge of the observable universe is about 14.26 gigaparsecs (46.5 billion light-years or 4.40×1026 m) in any direction.
The observable universe is thus a sphere with a diameter of about 28.5 gigaparsecs (93 billion light-years or 8.8×1026 m).

77.    Open Acreage Licensing, often seen in news, is related to
 (a) Hydrocarbon exploration
 (b) Railways
 (c) Mining of Iron ore
 (d) Land Acquisition
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The OALP, a critical part of the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy, provides uniform licences for exploration and production of all forms of hydrocarbons, enabling contractors to explore conventional as well as unconventional oil and gas resources. Fields are offered under a revenue-sharing model and throw up marketing and pricing freedom for crude oil and natural gas produced.

78.    Consider the following statements:
1. The tropical ozone hole is larger than the size of Antarctica and it appears across all seasons.
2. The Antarctic ozone hole layer is in the stratosphere and is visible only in the spring.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Tropical and Antarctic ozone hole
Tropical ozone hole
The tropical ozone hole is about seven times larger than Antarctica, the study suggested. It also appears across all seasons.
The tropical ozone hole, which makes up 50 percent of Earth’s surface, could cause a global concern due to the risks associated with it.
It is likely to cause skin cancer, cataracts, and other negative effects on the health and ecosystems in tropical regions.
According to studies, chlorofluorocarbon’s (CFC) role in depleting the ozone layer is well-documented.
The tropical stratosphere recorded a low temperature of 190-200 Kelvin (K).
This can explain why the tropical ozone hole is constantly formed over the seasons.
Antarctic ozone hole
What we call the ozone hole is a thinning of the protective ozone layer in the stratosphere (the upper layer of Earth's atmosphere) above Antarctica that begins every September, during spring.
Chlorine and bromine derived from human-produced compounds are released from reactions on high-altitude polar clouds.
The chemical reactions then begin to destroy the ozone layer as the sun rises in the Antarctic at the end of winter.

79.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Polio’:
1. Polio can affect the nervous system of children.
2. For polio eradication, any of the wild or vaccine-derived polio infection have to be reduced to zero.
3. India was declared polio-free in January 2014, after three years of zero cases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution:  For polio eradication, cases of both wild and vaccine-derived polio infection have to be reduced to zero.
Enrich your learning:
Polio
Polio is a crippling and potentially deadly disease that affects the nervous system.
The virus multiplies in the intestine, from where it can invade the nervous system and can cause paralysis.
The virus spreads from person to person and can infect a person’s spinal cord, causing paralysis (can’t move parts of the body).
People can also be infected if they drink water or eat food contaminated with infected feces.

[Ref-The Hindu
Types of Polioviruses
There are three variants of the poliovirus, type 1, type 2, and type 3.
Type 2 wild poliovirus was declared eradicated in September 2015.
Type 3 wild poliovirus was declared eradicated in October 2019.
Only type 1 wild poliovirus remains.
There are two vaccines used to protect against polio disease, oral polio vaccine and inactivated poliovirus vaccine.
For a country to be declared polio-free, the wild transmission of all three kinds has to be stopped.
For eradication, cases of both wild and vaccine-derived polio infection have to be reduced to zero.
India’s strategy against polio
National Immunization Day (NID) commonly known as the Pulse Polio Immunization programme was launched in India in 1995.
The Pulse Polio Initiative was started with the objective of achieving 100% coverage under Oral Polio Vaccine.
The oral polio vaccine is given under Universal Immunisation Programme.
India was declared polio-free in January 2014, after three years of zero cases.
Steps taken by the Government to maintain polio-free status in India
Maintaining community immunity through high-quality National and Sub National Polio rounds each year.
An extremely high level of vigilance through surveillance across the country for and importation or circulation of poliovirus and VDPV (vaccine-derived poliovirus) is being maintained.
All States and Union Territories in the country have developed a Rapid Response Team (RRT) to respond to any polio outbreak in the country.
Emergency Preparedness and Response Plans (EPRP) has also been developed by all States indicating steps to be undertaken in case of detection of a polio case.
To reduce the risk of importation from neighbouring countries, international border vaccination is being provided through continuous vaccination teams (CVT) to all eligible children round the clock.
The government of India has issued guidelines effective since March 2014, for the mandatory requirement of polio vaccination to all international travellers for travel to India and other affected countries namely Afghanistan, Nigeria, Pakistan, Ethiopia, Kenya, Somalia Syria and Cameroon.
The rolling emergency stock of OPV is being maintained to respond to detection/importation of wild poliovirus (WPV) or the emergence of circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus (cVDPV).
Why in News?
A drive to vaccinate more than nine million children against polio has been launched in four countries in southern and eastern Africa after an outbreak was confirmed in Malawi.

80.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’:
1. It aims to provide antenatal care, free of cost, universally to all pregnant women on the 9th of every month.
2. It was launched by the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution: It was launched by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW).
Enrich your learning:
Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan

[Ref-Twitter
It was launched by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW) in 2016.
It was launched to provide fixed-day assured, comprehensive, and quality antenatal care universally to all pregnant women (in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters) on the 9th of every month.
As part of the campaign, a minimum package of antenatal care services is provided to pregnant women in their 2nd/ 3rd trimesters at Government health facilities (PHCs/ CHCs, DHs/ urban health facilities, etc) in both urban and rural areas.
Using the principles of a single-window system, it is envisaged that a minimum package of investigations and medicines such as IFA and calcium supplements, etc would be provided to all pregnant women attending the PMSMA clinics.
One of the critical components of the Abhiyan is the identification and follow-up of high-risk pregnancies and red stickers are added to the Mother and Child Protection cards of women with high-risk pregnancies.
All kinds of medical check-ups under this scheme will be completely free.
Women will be marked differently based on their health problems so that doctors can easily detect the problem.
Green Sticker - for women with no risk factor detected.
Red Sticker – for women with a high-risk pregnancy.
Blue Sticker – for women with Pregnancy Induced Hypertension.
Yellow Sticker – pregnancy with co-morbid conditions such as diabetes, hypothyroidism, STIs.
Why in News?
Under Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan more than 20.6 million antenatal care check-ups were conducted by over 6,000 volunteers in over 17,000 government facilities.

81.    Consider the following statements about Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray:
1. He pioneered the investigation of radio and microwave optics.
2. He is popularly known as the ‘father of Indian Chemistry’.
3. Bengal Chemicals & Pharmaceuticals Limited was established in 1901 by Acharya P.C. Ray.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 2 only
 (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
PC Ray’s contribution to the field of Science was a step toward nation-building. He was also a scholar who championed educational reforms, promoted employment through industry, and rallied for political advancement.
Contributions:
Discovered several ground-breaking chemical compounds (eg: mercurous nitrite), published more than a hundred and fifty research papers in famous science journals (eg: Journal of the Chemical Society of London); authored many books on chemical sciences (eg: Life and Experience of a Bengali Chemist).
Bengal Chemicals & Pharmaceuticals Limited is a Public Sector Undertaking. Established in Kolkata, in 1901 by Prafulla Chandra Ray (1861-1944), it is India’s first pharmaceutical company.
In 1892, Prafulla Chandra Ray founded Bengal Chemical Works with a capital of Rs. 700 (US$10).

82.    Which of following measures could be used by the government to control the sudden spike in specific food items?
1. Temporary ban on the export of inflated item.
2. Imposition of stock limit under the Essential Commodities Act
3. Temporary prohibition on the import of inflated item.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1 only
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Government reviews the price situation regularly and has taken number of measures from time to time to stabilize prices of food items. These include:
Banning the export of inflated food item.
Imposition of stock limit to prevent hoarding.
Easing of restrictions on imports, facilitating imports at integrated check-posts, issuance of licenses for imports and reduction in import duties. This has resulted in cooling of prices.

83.    Consider the following statements.
1. Prices of milk in the country are decided by Cooperative and Private dairies based on cost of production.
2. Improving animal husbandry and the quality of cattle breed is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India.
3. ‘Preservation of cattle’ is a matter on which the Centre has exclusive powers to legislate.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2, 3
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Prices of milk in the country are decided by the Cooperative and Private dairies based on cost of production.
Under the distribution of legislatives powers between the Union of India and States under Article 246(3) of the Constitution, the preservation of cattle is a matter on which the legislature of the States has exclusive powers to legislate.
As per article 48 of Indian Constitution the state shall endeavour to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and shall in particular take steps for preserving improving the breed, and prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle.

84.    Consider the following statements in reference to Private Access Tokens:
1. Private Access Tokens are an alternative to CAPTCHAs for supported client platforms.
2. They ensures that a website learns only exactly what it needs to know about a user in order to provide access to a resource.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution: Both the statements are correct
Enrich Your Learning
About Private Access Tokens
Private Access Tokens are an alternative to CAPTCHAs for supported client platforms.
It is a new authentication method that works completely in the background.
They are powerful tools that prove when HTTP requests are coming from legitimate devices without disclosing someone's identity.
This proof can help reduce how often a user is shown CAPTCHAs.
With Private Access Tokens, the website knows only URL and IP, which it has to know to make a connection, thus protecting user privacy.
What is a CAPTCHA?
CAPTCHA or Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart is a well-known security measure which is also known as challenge-response authentication.
Generally, a CAPTCHA ‘test’ comprises two parts —
numbers that look like a distorted image with a random sequence of letters
a text box.
To prove you are human, you need to get the CAPTCHA code right.
The idea is to protect users from spam and the test proves that it is a human and not a computer that is attempting to break into a site or a password-protected account.

85.    With reference to Rani-ki-Vav (the Queen’s Stepwell), consider the following statements:
1. It was built on the banks of the river Saraswati, by the Gurjar Rani Udayamati of the Chalukya Dynasty.
2. It was built to commemorate her husband Raja Bhimdev I.
3. It was declared as a World Heritage Site in 2014 by UNESCO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 3 only
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 1, 2 and 3
 (d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Rani ki Vav or precisely translated as the Queen’s stepwell was built in 1063, on the banks of the river Saraswati, by the Gurjar Rani Udayamati of the Chalukya Dynasty. The stepwell was built to commemorate her husband Raja Bhimdev I. This remarkably beautiful stepwell, located in Patan is the oldest and most intricately created form of subterranean water architecture and was declared as a World Heritage Site in 2014 by UNESCO.
Initially created as a memorial for Raja Bhimdev I, the stepwell was also constructed with a functional and structural aesthetic. Classified as a Nanda style stepwell, the steps lead down through multiple levels, with queues of carved walls, pillars, columns, brackets and beams ornamented with scroll work and more than 800 sculptures, which mostly depict the ten different avatars of Lord Vishnu (Dasaavatara).

86.    Consider the following statements about Red Panda:
1. It is the state animal of Sikkim.
2. It is listed as Endangered in the IUCN red list of Threatened Species.
3. It is threatened by poaching as well as destruction and fragmentation of habitat due to deforestation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 1 and 3 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Category: endangered species (IUCN) and comes under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Red pandas are shy, solitary and arboreal animalsand are considered an indicator species for ecological change.
They are also one of the most iconic speciesin terms of their importance to global conservation.
The red panda’s survival is crucial for the eastern and north-eastern Himalayan subalpine conifer forestsand the eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests. (2200-4800m under dense bamboo)
It is also the state animal of Sikkim.
Protection measure: Transboundary law enforcement cooperation through the use of multi-government platforms like SAWEN(South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network).

87.    Which of the following are regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
1. Merchant Banker
2. Venture Capital Fund Company
3. Chit Fund Companies
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) None of the above
Solution: d)
Merchant Banker/Venture Capital Fund Company/stock-exchanges/stock brokers/sub-brokers are regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India, and Insurance companies are regulated by Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority. Similarly, Chit Fund Companies are regulated by the respective State Governments.

88.    The countries bordering Russia are
1. China
2. Norway
3. Sweden
4. Kazakhstan
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2, 3
 b) 1, 3, 4
 c) 1, 2, 4
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)

89.    The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from:
 (a) Katha Upanishad
 (b) Chandogya Upanishad
 (c) Aitareya Upanishad
 (d) Mundaka Upanishad
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Satyameva Jayate (‘Truth alone triumphs’) is a part of a mantra from the Hindu scripture Mundaka Upanishad. Following the independence of India, it was adopted as the national motto of India on 26 January 1950, the day India became a republic.

90.    Consider the following statements:
1. A service charge is a direct transaction between the customer and the restaurant staff, specifically the wait staff.
2. It is collected by the banking, hospitality, and food & beverage industries as a fee for serving customers.
3. As per the guidelines, restaurants are prohibited from levying extra charges automatically or by default in the bill or by any other name.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 and 3 only
b.  2 only
c.  3 only
d.  1, 2 and 3
Answer : d
Service Charge
A service charge is a tip or a direct transaction between the customer and the restaurant staff, specifically the wait staff.
It is a fee collected to pay for services associated with the purchase of a primary product or service.
It is collected by hospitality sectors, banking, and food & beverage industries as a fee for serving customers.
As per the new guidelines, hotels or restaurants are prohibited from levying extra charges automatically or by default in the bill or by any other name.
Also, they are not allowed to force service charges, and must clearly inform the consumers that service charges are voluntary, optional, and at their discretion.

91.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘SHRESHTA scheme’:
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Education.
2. It covers all the educational expenses of meritorious students from class 9th to 11th.
3. It provides quality residential education to meritorious SC&ST students.
4. The government is going to fund school and hostel fees through this scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 and 4 only  
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Solution:
SHRESHTA scheme was launched by the Ministry of Social justice and empowerment.
It provides quality residential education to meritorious only SC students.
Enrich your learning:
SHRESHTA scheme
It was launched by the Ministry of Social justice and empowerment.
Scholarships will be provided to the beneficiaries that will cover all the educational expenses of meritorious students from class 9th to 11th.
Only students belonging to scheduled caste will be able to take benefit from this scheme.
The government is going to roll out the scheme from the academic year 2022-23.
In order to take advantage of this scheme, students are required to give an entrance examination which is known as NETS or the National entrance test for SHRESHTA.
It is basically a national-level test that is conducted by the national testing agency in a computer-based mode.
All those students who qualify NETs exam will be shortlisted for admission to CBSE-affiliated schools.
Through this scheme, scholarships will be directly disbursed to the schools that are giving admission to the shortlisted students.
This scholarship will cover school fees and hostel fees.
This scheme is applicable only for the residential schools which are affiliated with CBSE up to class 12th, and are in operation for five years or more with a 75% pass percentage or more in classes 10th and 12th in the last three years.
The interested residential schools are required to submit their online consent by 25th March 2022.
Why in News?
An amount of Rs 300 crore has been sanctioned to implement the SHRESHTA scheme.

92.    Consider the following statements regarding the Silurian Period
1. The supercontinent Gondwana had drifted southward and covered most of the southern latitudes.
2. Silurian fossils show extensive coral reefs built from tabulating and horn corals with calcium carbonate skeletons.
3. During the Silurian Period, the climate was generally cold and stable.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution
During the Silurian Period, the climate was generally warm and stable, in contrast to the glaciers of the Late Ordovician and the extreme heat of the Devonian.
Enrich Your Learning
About the Silurian Period
The Silurian Period occurred from 443.8 million to 419.2 million years ago.
It was the third period in the Paleozoic Era.
It followed the Ordovician Period and preceded the Devonian Period.
The supercontinent Gondwana had drifted southward and covered most of the southern latitudes.
Much of the northern half of the planet was an ocean with two smaller continents, Laurentia and Baltica, near the equator.
Another microcontinent, Avalonia, rifted from the northern edge of Gondwana and drifted northward.
Beginning in the late Ordovician and continuing throughout the Silurian and into the Devonian, the three northern continents collided, forming the new supercontinent, Euramerica.
The hills and mountains of Scotland, Ireland, Wales and the northern Appalachians are remnants of this event, as are the mountains of Sweden and Norway.
Silurian fossils show evidence of extensive reef-building and the first signs that life beginning to colonize the new estuary, fresh water and terrestrial ecosystems.
About Prototaxites

[ref: BBC
There's a very enigmatic fossil called Prototaxites from the Silurian period.
It grew anything up to 8m in height and about a metre in diameter.
It was a sort of funky, humongous fungus; erect, very phallic structures; pillars of fungus that could weigh up to 10 metric tonnes.
Evidence suggests that Prototaxites fires on land were sufficiently large and widespread.
Why is it in the news?
The oldest evidence of wildfire has been identified in South Wales in the form of tiny fragments of charcoal which have been identified as Prototaxites fossils.

93.    In which one of the following States is Singalila National Park located?
 (a) Arunachal Pradesh
 (b) Sikkim
 (c) West Bengal
 (d) Odisha
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Singalila National Park is a National park of India located on the Singalila Ridge at an altitude of more than 7000 feet above sea level, in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal.

94.    In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
 (a) The proportion of literates in the population
 (b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
 (c) The size of population in the working age group
 (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Option A and D are examples of human capital and option B is physical capital.
Straight from Wikipedia: “Social capital broadly refers to those factors of effectively functioning social groups that include such things as interpersonal relationships, a shared sense of identity, a shared understanding, shared norms, shared values, trust, cooperation, and reciprocity.” Option D is the correct answer.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019

95.    North Korea and South Korea are sandwiched between
 a) Korean Strait and Bungo channel
 b) Sea of Japan and Pacific Ocean
 c) Yellow Sea and Sea of Japan
 d) South China Sea and Pacific Ocean
Solution: c)

96.    Consider the following statements about Spanish flu:
1. Influenza-A H1N1 virus was responsible for the Spanish influenza pandemic outbreak.
2. The Influenza-A Virus genome shows a unique capability of gene re-assortment that can rearrange the order in which the genes appear. 
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Spanish Flu
A study published in Nature Communications sheds light on the genome of the Influenza-A H1N1 virus that was responsible for the pandemic outbreak.
The IAV genome shows a unique capability of gene re-assortment.
The genome consists of eight genes, and in the event of a cell being infected by more than one strain of a gene, the genome can rearrange the order in which the genes appear by a process called re-assortment.
Focusing on the geographical spread of the 1918 Influenza A virus, the study found that there was no geographic segregation between continents.
The study theorizes that this could be because of the widespread trans-Atlantic movement in the backdrop of the First World War.

97.    Consider the following statements regarding Special Drawing Right (SDR).
1. The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the IMF.
2. The value of the SDR is not set by IMF, rather it is directly determined by supply and demand in the market.
3. It can be held and used by member countries, private entities or individuals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1 only
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 3
Solution: b)
The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement other reserve assets of member countries.
The SDR is based on a basket of international currencies comprising the U.S. dollar, Japanese yen, euro, pound sterling and Chinese Renminbi. It is not a currency, nor a claim on the IMF, but is potentially a claim on freely usable currencies of IMF members. The value of the SDR is not directly determined by supply and demand in the market, but is set daily by the IMF on the basis of market exchange rates between the currencies included in the SDR basket.
It can be held and used by member countries, the IMF, and certain designated official entities called “prescribed holders”—but it cannot be held, for example, by private entities or individuals. Its status as a reserve asset derives from the commitments of members to hold, accept, and honor obligations denominated in SDR.

98.    Under stagflation, the economy faces
1. Stagnant growth
2. Rising inflation
3. High employment
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Stagflation is the extreme economic situation, a peculiar combination of stagnant growth and rising inflation leading to high unemployment. Generally, rising inflation is a sign of a fast-growing economy as people have more money to spend higher amounts on the same quality of goods. Similarly, when the economic growth stalls, inflation is supposed to go down. And as a result of this stalled economic growth unemployment tends to go up.

99.    Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Street Light National Programme’:
1. Energy Efficiency Services Limited was designated as the implementing agency to implement this program across Pan- India.
2. It aims to mitigate climate change by implementing energy-efficient LED-based street lighting.
3. It promotes LED Based Solid-State Lighting over Sodium Vapour/Fluorescent Lighting.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: All the statements are correct.
Enrich your learning:
Street Light National Programme (SLNP)
It was launched in 2015 as “Prakash Path”.
Energy Efficiency Services Limited, under the administration of the Ministry of Power, is the implementing agency for SLNP.
Objective
Mitigate climate change by implementing energy-efficient LED-based street lighting.
Reduce energy consumption in lighting which helps DISCOMs to manage peak demand.
Provide a sustainable service model that obviates the need for upfront capital investment as well as additional revenue expenditure to pay for the procurement of LED lights.
Enhance municipal services at no upfront capital cost to municipalities.
Improvement in the safety & security in a public area in rural, semi-urban, and urban settings through better illumination.
Market Transformation by reduced pricing through demand aggregation and Shifting the buying preference from Sodium Vapour/Fluorescent Lighting to LED Based Solid-State Lighting.
Why in News?
Street Light National Programme has installed over 1.23 crore LED street lights in ULBs and Gram Panchayats across India.

100. Consider the following statements with reference to Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States Program (STARS):
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Ministry of Education.
2. It aims to providing an all-around development for the students at the primary and secondary level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution:
STARS programme aims at improving the assessment system in schools and ensuring equal education for all.
Enrich Your Learning
About STARS
STARS is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education (MoE).
It was initiated under the National Education Policy (NEP).
The key focus areas are -
Improve learning assessment systems.
Strengthen classroom instruction and remediation by supporting individualized, needs-based training for teachers that will give them an opportunity to have a say in shaping training programs.
Facilitate school-to-work transition by delivering a curriculum that keeps pace with the rapidly evolving needs of the job market.
Strengthen governance and decentralized management through customized local-level solutions for school improvement.

[ref: India Today
Why is it in the news?
The Chhattisgarh Government has received an in-principle nod from the Centre to go ahead with a $300 million school education project the State is negotiating with the World Bank. Chattisgarh was not a part of the 6 original states chosen for this project.

 

Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)