Daily Current Affairs Questions August 2022 Part 5

 

Daily Current Affairs Questions

August 2022 Part 5

Why in News

1.       Ahir community

2.       Arctic Council

3.       Artificial lake

4.       Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana

5.       Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission

6.       Bacteriophage

7.       Bakshaali Manuscript

8.       Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)

9.       Black carbon

10.    Blockchain technology

11.    BRICS grouping

12.    BRICS summit

13.    Capital-augmenting technological progress

14.    Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)

15.    Chicago Convention

16.    Cirrus cloud thinning technique

17.    Climate trend of India

18.    Cloudburst

19.    Coal ash

20.    Daylight Saving Time (DST)

21.    Debtor Reporting System (DRS)

22.    Depreciation of Indian rupee

23.    Derecho

24.    Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO)

25.    Directive Principles

26.    Disaster Management Act, 2005

27.    El Niño

28.    El Niño Southern Oscillation’

29.    Election Commission

30.    Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)

31.    Four Asian Tigers

32.    Freebies

33.    Fundamental rights

34.    G20

35.    Giga Mesh

36.    Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)

37.    Golden Crescent and Golden Triangle’

38.    Government Securities (G-Secs)

39.    Gulf Cooperation Council

40.    Horseshoe crab

41.    India Forest Act,

42.    India Plastics Pact

43.    India State of Forest Report, 2021

44.    International Energy Agency (IEA)

45.    Jiribam-Imphal rail route

46.    kajli’

47.    Kala Sanskriti Vikas Yojana

48.    Kharchi Puja

49.    Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme

50.    Land use, land-use change, and forestry (LULUCF)

51.    Leprosy

52.    longitude closest to

53.    Macaulay’s Minute’

54.    Major minerals

55.    Managarh Hill

56.    Minor minerals

57.    Model Code of Conduct (MCC)

58.    Montreal Protocol

59.    National Parks and Location

60.    Naval Mutiny 1946

61.    Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons

62.    OSIRIS-Rex

63.    ozone layer

64.    Peace Clause

65.    Place: River

66.    PM SVANidhi scheme

67.    Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).

68.    Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor’s Atmanirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme

69.    Raisina Dialogue

70.    Rajya Sabha Nominated members

71.    Rashtriya Gokul Mission

72.    Red Sanders

73.    Right to Equality

74.    Saint Ramanujacharya

75.    Sandfish

76.    Santali language’

77.    Section 69A of the IT Act

78.    'Seed Village Concept'

79.    Sherpa

80.    Sir Creek dispute

81.    Startup India Action plan

82.    State of Food Security and Nutrition

83.    Supercomputing

84.    Surrogate Advertisement

85.    Teaser loan

86.    Transgenic crop

87.    Tribunals

88.    Tuberculosis (TB)

89.    Tuberculosis:

90.    Turkey

91.    Two-state solution

92.    UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity

93.    Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)

94.    United Nations Permanent Observers

95.    Varanasi

96.    Vishaka guidelines’

97.    Water reservoirs

98.    Whale sharks

99.    Wholesale Price Index

100. Wholesale Price Index (WPI)

1.       Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ahir community’:

1. Their traditional occupations are cattle-herding and agriculture.
2. In the Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh, they are known as Gop.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1               b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2      d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution: In the Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh, they are known as Dauwa.
Enrich your learning:
Ahir community
It is a community in India, most members of which identify as being of the Indian Yadav community.
They are variously described as a caste, a clan, a community, a race, and a tribe.
Their traditional occupations are cattle-herding and agriculture.
They are found throughout India but are particularly concentrated in the northern area.
They have a significant population in Nepal, Mauritius, Fiji, South Africa, and the Caribbean especially Guyana, Trinidad and Tobago, and Suriname.
They are known by numerous other names, including Gauli and Ghosi or Gop in North India.
In Gujarat and South India, they are known as Ayar, Golla, and Konar.
In the Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh, they are known as Dauwa.
Why in News?
Ahir community has been camping near Kherki Daula toll plaza in Gurgaon and, demanding an Ahir Regiment in the Indian Army.

2.       Consider the following statements about the Arctic Council.
1.  It is an intergovernmental forum to promote cooperation in regulating the activities in the Arctic region.
2.  The Arctic Council prohibits the commercial exploitation of resources in the Arctic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
 Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic Indigenous peoples and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic. It was formally established in 1996.
•  The Council was established by the eight Arctic States — the countries whose territories fall in the Arctic region — through the Ottawa Declaration of 1996. The eight Arctic States — Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and the United States — are the only members of the Arctic Council.
•  Besides them, six organisations representing the indigenous people of the Arctic region have been granted the status of permanent participants. All decision-making happens through consensus between the eight members, and in consultation with the permanent participants.
•  The Council is not a treaty-based international legal entity like the UN bodies or trade, military or regional groupings like WTO, NATO or ASEAN. It is only an intergovernmental ‘forum’ to promote cooperation in regulating the activities in the Arctic region. It is much more informal grouping.
•  Through six working groups, each dealing with a specific subject, the Arctic Council seeks to evolve a consensus on the activities that can be carried out in the Arctic region in keeping with the overall objective of conserving the pristine environment, biodiversity, and the interests and well-being of the local populations.
•  India is an observer of the Arctic Council.
Commercial and strategic interests
•  The Arctic region is very rich in some minerals, and oil and gas. With some parts of the Arctic melting due to global warming, the region also opens up the possibility of new shipping routes that can reduce existing distances. Countries which already have ongoing activities in the Arctic hope to have a stake in the commercial exploitation of natural resources present in the region.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: The Arctic Council does not prohibit the commercial exploitation of resources in the Arctic. It only seeks to ensure that it is done in a sustainable manner without harming the interests of local populations and in conformity with the local environment.

3.       Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
- Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
- Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
- Nainital (Uttarakhand)
- Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Explanation
The Correct Answer is Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu).
Key Points
• Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu):  it is a manmade/artifificial lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu.
○ Kodaikanal Lake was created in the year 1863 by Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the former Collector of Madurai.
• Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh): Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India located in the state of Andhra Pradesh and forms the largest shallow freshwater lake in Asia. The lake is located between Krishna and Godavari Deltas.
• Nainital (Uttarakhand): It is a natural fresh water lake and is of tectonic origin, located amidst the Nainital city of Uttarakhand.
• Renuka (Himachal Pradesh): It is the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh, this lake is named after the goddess Renuka.

4.       Which of the following schemes is/are under the Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana?
1. Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana
2. Atal Pension Yojana
3. National Social Assistance Programme
4. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Scheme
Choose the correct option from the following:
a) 1, 2 and 4 only            
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution: Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Scheme is not part of the Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana.
Enrich your learning:    
Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana (AVYAY)
It was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
It is a central sector scheme.
The following schemes are under it:
Integrated Programme for Senior Citizens (IPSrC)
Under this, homes are set up to improve the quality of life of the Senior Citizens, especially indigent senior citizens by providing basic amenities like shelter, food, medical care, and entertainment opportunities and by encouraging productive and active aging.
State Action Plan for Senior Citizens (SAPSrC)
Each State/UT is expected to plan and strategize taking into account their local considerations and frame their own State Action Plans for the welfare of their senior citizens.
Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY)
It is a scheme for providing Physical Aids and Assisted living devices to Senior Citizens.
Walking sticks, elbow crutches, walkers/crutches, etc. are provided free of cost to senior citizens belonging to the BPL category who suffer from age-related disabilities/infirmities such as low vision, hearing impairment, loss of teeth, and locomotor disabilities.
Livelihood and Skilling Initiatives for Senior Citizens
(Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity (SACRED)
Action Groups Aimed at Social Reconstruction (AGRASR Groups)
The Senior Citizens are encouraged to form Self-Help Groups (SHGs), which will provide them with a platform to share their time constructively with each other.
Promoting silver economy
It is a new scheme launched with an objective to encourage entrepreneurs to think about the problems of the elderly and come out with innovative solutions
The Government aims to achieve the objective by providing up to Rs. 1 crore as financial assistance through equity participation, through an open invitation on a portal namely Seniorcare Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE).
Channelizing CSR funds for Elderly care
It is a new scheme with an objective to channelize the CSR funds in an appropriate manner for elderly care projects.
Under Schedule VII of Section 135 of the Companies Act, setting up old age homes, day-care centers and such facilities for Senior Citizens is an approved item for CSR funding.
Scheme for Awareness Generation and Capacity Building for the welfare of Senior Citizens
Training, Awareness, Sensitization, Setting up of National Helpline for Senior Citizens.
Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
It was launched by the Ministry of Finance.
Aim: To create a universal social security system for all Indians, especially the poor, the underprivileged, and the workers in the unorganized sector.
It is open to all citizens of India between 18-40 years of age having bank accounts in a bank or post office.
There are five pension plan slabs available under the scheme namely, Rs. 1000, Rs. 2000, Rs. 3000, Rs. 4000, and Rs. 5000 guaranteed by the Government of India to the subscriber at the age of 60 years.
National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)
It was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development.
Under it, the elderly, widows, and disabled persons belonging Below Poverty Line (BPL) and fulfilling eligibility criteria prescribed in the NSAP guidelines, are provided financial assistance ranging from Rs.200/- to Rs.500/- p.m. and in the case of death of the breadwinner, lumpsum assistance of Rs.20,000/- is given to the bereaved family.
Why in News?
The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment has revised the guidelines of the Atal Vayo Abhyudaya Yojana.

5.       Which of the following agencies has been mandated to implement the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission?
- A. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
- B. Drug Controller General of India
- C. National Health Authority
- D. None of the above
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his 2020 Independence Day speech announced a major digital initiative in the form of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (previously known as National Digital Health Mission).
•  Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) project will provide a health ID to every person in the country, and benefit the poor.
ABDM in Detail
•  ABDM seeks to provide efficient and affordable health coverage through a wide-range of data and infrastructure services.
•  The key feature of this mission is the technology part - it will leverage open digital systems to provide high-quality healthcare for all. It will integrate various digital health services to create an ecosystem which can assimilate existing health information systems.
•  The government has said that it will ensure security and privacy of personal information.
What is a health ID?
•  Under ABDM, Indian citizens will get a digital health ID which is basically a digital format of all his/her health records which will be linked to the registry of doctors and health facilities across the country.
•  The government has said that enrollment in the initiative will be voluntary.
•  The health ID will contain information about medical data, prescriptions and diagnostic reports and summaries of previous discharge from hospitals for ailments. The mission is expected to bring efficiency and transparency in healthcare services in the country.
Expected Benefits
•  The ABDM aims to liberate citizens from the challenges of finding the right doctors, seeking appointment with them, payment of consultation fee, making several rounds of hospitals for prescription sheets and will empower all Indians with the correct information and sources enabling them to take an informed decision to avail the best possible healthcare.
•  The ABDM comprises six key building blocks or digital systems - HealthID, DigiDoctor, Health Facility Registry, Personal Health Records, e-Pharmacy and Telemedicine - that will enable access to timely, safe and affordable healthcare through a 'citizen-centric' approach.
Implementing agency
•  The National Health Authority (NHA), the apex agency responsible for the implementation of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), has been given the mandate by the government to design, build, roll-out and implement the ABDM in the country.
o  NHA is an attached office of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare with full functional autonomy.

6.       Why are Bacteriophages seen as a possible therapy against multi-drug-resistant strains of many bacteria?
These are ubiquitous viruses found wherever bacteria exist and can kill bacteria.
They do not contain any RNA or DNA and thus cannot be infected by bacteria.
Select the correct answer code:
 (a) 1 only              b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2     d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria. In fact, the word “bacteriophage” literally means “bacteria eater,” because bacteriophages destroy their host cells. All bacteriophages are composed of a nucleic acid molecule that is surrounded by a protein structure. In other words, they are comprised of a protein capsule around an RNA or DNA genome.

7.       Consider the following statements:
1. There is a mention of the Indian number system in the Bakshaali Manuscript.
2. Aryabhata gave the idea of negative numbers.
3. Gregory-Leibniz’ series is also known as the Infinite Series for Pi.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only                   b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only                   d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution: Brahmagupta gave the idea of negative numbers.
Enrich your learning:
Indian Number System
The Bakshaali Manuscript is the first surviving reference of the Indian Number System.
The algebraic properties of the number zero were first formalized in Brahmagupta’s Brahmasphutasiddhanta in 628 CE.
The Hindu Number System was transmitted to the Arab world by around 800 CE.
It was popularized by the great Persian mathematician Al-Khwarizmi and by the great philosopher Al-Kindi.
From the Arab world, it was transmitted to Europe by around 1100 CE.
The Europeans thus mistakenly called it the ‘Arabic Number System’.
Negative Numbers
Brahmagupta conceived of negative numbers.
He wrote down rules for working with them.
He referred to positive numbers as fortunes (dhana) and negative numbers as debts (rina).
He knew that the product of a debt and a fortune is a debt which correlates to the idea that a positive number multiplied by a negative is a negative.
The Infinite Series for Pi
Madhava discovered the infinite series of Pi.
This series gives the exact value of pi.
It is generally referred to as the ‘Gregory-Leibniz’ series.
It was indeed a landmark discovery that laid the foundations of the discovery of calculus in India.

8.       Consider the following statements regarding Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS).
1. BEPS refers to the phenomenon where companies invest in a host country via shell companies situated in tax havens to reduce their tax liability.
2. India has ratified the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent BEPS.
3. The Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent BEPS is an outcome of the World Bank BEPS Project.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2, 3
 c) 2 only
 d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
The Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent Base Erosion and Profit Shifting is an outcome of the OECD / G20 Project to tackle Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (the “BEPS Project”) i.e., tax planning strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low or no-tax locations where there is little or no economic activity, resulting in little or no tax being paid. The companies need not invest via shell companies to be accused of BEPS.
India has ratified the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent Base Erosion and Profit Shifting.

9.       Consider the following statements:
1. Black carbon concentration increases the absorption of solar radiation by decreasing the surface albedo.
2. Black carbon is the second most significant anthropogenic agent of climate change.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only               b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2      d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Impact of black carbon on glaciers
The impacts of global warming and climate change already witnessed on the region’s mountains are further multiplied by black carbon emissions, which are the second most significant anthropogenic agent of climate change.
Black carbon or soot is a short-lived pollutant and the second-largest contributor to warming the planet.
Black carbon is an essential contributor to warming because it effectively absorbs light and heats its surroundings.
As per estimates, black carbon has a warming impact on climate that is several hundred times stronger than CO2.
In terms of its effects on mountains, black carbon can increase glacial melt by decreasing surface reflectance of radiation and increasing air temperature.
Once black carbon is deposited on the surface of snow and ice, it increases the absorption of solar radiation by decreasing the surface albedo (the ability to reflect sunlight) of the glacier surface.
As the area heats up, snow melts faster.
Likewise, circulating black carbon raises air temperatures before it is deposited, ultimately playing a part in the fast-melting snow cover in the mountains.

10.    Which of the following are the Benefits of blockchain technology?
1. Blockchain technology records and validate each and every transaction made.
2. There is no need of any third-party or central authority for peer-to-peer transactions.
3. The transactions made are immutable and can prevent it from hacking.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2       b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3       d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Benefits of blockchain technology:
As a public ledger system, blockchain records and validate each and every transaction made, which makes it secure and reliable.
All the transactions made are authorized by miners, which makes the transactions immutable and prevent it from the threat of hacking.
Blockchain technology discards the need of any third-party or central authority for peer-to-peer transactions.
It allows decentralization of the technology.

11.    With reference to the BRICS grouping, consider the following statements:
1.  BRICS cooperation is aimed at complementing and strengthening existing bilateral and multilateral relations among member countries.
2.  The grouping has put in place a Contingent Reserve Arrangement to support member countries during balance of payments pressures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  BRICS brings together five major emerging economies- China, Brazil, Russia, India and South Africa. It comprises 43% of the world population, having 30% of the world GDP and a 17% share in world trade.
•  The grouping was formalised during the first meeting of BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India and China) Foreign Ministers on the margins of the UNGA in New York in September 2006.
•  South Africa was added to the grouping in 2011 creating "BRICS".
•  Statement 1 is correct: BRICS cooperation is aimed at complementing and strengthening existing bilateral and multilateral relations among member countries.
•  The Chairship of the forum is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S.
•  Cooperation among members is predicated on three levels or “tracks” of interaction, namely:
o  Track I: Formal diplomatic engagement between the national governments
o  Track II: Engagement through government-affiliated institutions, e.g. state-owned enterprises and business councils
o  Track III: Civil society and “people-to-people” engagement.
Significant developments of BRICS
New Development Bank
•  The NDB created by the BRICS countries formally came into existence at the Ufa Summit (Russia) in 2015.
•  It was established with the objective of financing infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies and developing countries, complementing the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions toward global growth and development.
•  In 2018, the NDB received observer status in the UN General Assembly.
•  Voting power of each member is equal to the number of its subscribed shares in capital stock.
•  All members of the United Nations could be members of the bank, however the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power.
Contingency Reserve
•  Statement 2 is correct: The BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is a framework for the provision of support through liquidity and precautionary instruments in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures.

12.    India has hosted which of the following events from the year 2021?
1. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
2. G-20 summit
3. 2021 BRICS summit
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2, 3
 c) 3 only
 d) None of the above
Solution: c)
The 2021 BRICS summit was the third time that India hosted the BRICS Summit after 2012 and 2016.
India will host both the SCO and G-20 summits in 2023.

13.    The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of
- labour-augmenting technological progress
- capital-augmenting technological progress
- capital-reducing technological progress
- None of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is capital-augmenting technological progress.
Key Points
• Capital refers to capital goods such as manufacturing plants, machinery, tools, or any equipment that can be used to produce other goods.
• The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production increases the productivity thereby encourages steel production.
○ Hence it is capital-augmenting technological progress.
• Labour-augmenting is the technology that increases the skills and productivity of the existing labour.

14.    Consider the following statements.
1. The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is deployed exclusively in the Left-Wing Extremist-affected States.
2. The Border Security Force (BSF) guards India’s border with both Pakistan and Bangladesh.
3. The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) guards the border from Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2                   b) 2, 3
 c) 3 only               d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The CRPF is deployed in the highly disturbed areas of Jammu and Kashmir, the Northeast and the Left-Wing Extremist-affected States.
The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), guards the border from Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh at forbidding heights.
The Border Security Force (BSF) is India’s border guarding organisation on its border with Pakistan and Bangladesh.

15.    Chicago Convention’ related to
 (a) Disaster mitigation
 (b) International Civil Aviation
 (c) Crypto currency
 (d) Population control
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
In response to SpiceJet’s increasing number of air safety problems, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) issued a show-cause notice
Convention on International Civil Aviation (also known as Chicago Convention), was signed on 7 December 1944 by 52 States, India is also part of this.

16.    In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
 (a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
 (b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
 (c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
 (d) Reducing the global warming
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
The ability of stratospheric sulfate aerosols to create a global dimming effect has made them a possible candidate for use in solar radiation management climate engineering projects to limit the effect and impact of climate change due to rising levels of greenhouse gases. Delivery of precursor sulfide gases such as sulfuric acid, hydrogen sulfide (H2S) or sulfur dioxide (SO2) by artillery, aircraft and balloons has been proposed.
Cirrus cloud thinning is a proposed form of climate engineering. Cirrus clouds are high cold ice that, like other clouds, both reflect sunlight and absorb warming infrared radiation. However, they differ from other types of clouds in that, on average, infrared absorption outweighs sunlight reflection, resulting in a net warming effect on the climate. Therefore, thinning or removing these clouds would reduce their heat trapping capacity, resulting in a cooling effect on Earth’s climate.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019

17.    With respect to the climate trend of India, consider the following statements:
1. India’s average temperature has risen 5°C from 1901-2020.
2. The average all-India temperatures of winter and post-monsoon months have risen faster than the monsoon and summer temperatures.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : b
Trends in temperature
An analysis of public weather data over the last half a century by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE), suggests that the all-India average temperature during the monsoon months (June-September) is higher than the summer months (March-May).
In 2012-2021, this anomaly rose to 0.4°C. The India Meteorological Department has said that India’s average temperature has risen 0.62°C.
It is the winter (January and February) and post-monsoon (October-December) average all-India temperatures that have risen faster than even the monsoon and summer temperatures.
Average daily maximum temperature for north-western States in March was 30.7°C, whereas the all-India average was 33.1°C or 2.4°C hotter.
The average daily minimum temperature showed an even larger (4.9°C) difference.
Central India’s normal maximum was 2°-7°C higher, while south peninsular India’s normal minimum was 4°-10°C higher than temperatures in northwest India.

18.    Consider the following statements:
1. Cloudburst is unexpected precipitation exceeding 100mm per hour over a geographical region of approximately 10 square km.
2. During a cloudburst, the relative humidity and cloud cover will be at the maximum level with low temperatures and high winds.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : d
Cloudbursts
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) defines it as unexpected precipitation exceeding 100mm (or 10 cm) per hour over a geographical region of approximately 20 to 30 square km.
Basically, all instances of cloudbursts involve heavy rain in a short period, but all instances of heavy rain in a short period are not cloudbursts if they do not fit this criterion.
Cloudbursts are more likely to occur in mountainous zones mainly because of terrain and elevation.
This is because, in hilly areas, sometimes saturated clouds ready to condense into rain cannot produce rain, due to the upward movement of the very warm current of air.
Instead of falling downwards, raindrops are carried upwards by the air current.
New drops are formed and existing raindrops increase in size.
After a point, the raindrops become too heavy for the cloud to hold on to, and they drop down together in a quick flash.
It was found that during a cloudburst, the relative humidity and cloud cover will be at the maximum level with low temperature and slow winds.

19.    Consider the following statements:
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.
Key Points
• Coal itself isn't a particularly toxic material.
• But after it's burned for domestic or commercial purposes it produces ash.
• Ash includes lead, mercury, cadmium, chromium, arsenic, and selenium, etc.
○ All in levels that may threaten human health. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Thermal power plants produce large amounts of nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide.
○ The pollutants that cause acid rain—when they burn fossil fuels, especially coal, to produce energy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• India's domestic coal reserves have a high ash content of up to 40 to 45 percent. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Explanation
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.
Key Points
• Coal itself isn't a particularly toxic material.
• But after it's burned for domestic or commercial purposes it produces ash.
• Ash includes lead, mercury, cadmium, chromium, arsenic, and selenium, etc.
○ All in levels that may threaten human health. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Thermal power plants produce large amounts of nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide.
○ The pollutants that cause acid rain—when they burn fossil fuels, especially coal, to produce energy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• India's domestic coal reserves have a high ash content of up to 40 to 45 percent. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

20.    With reference to Daylight Saving Time (DST), consider the following statements:
1. It was first proposed by Benjamin Franklin.
2. Countries near the equator do not experience high variation in daytime hours.
3. Morocco and Iran both the countries have adopted DST.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: All the statements are correct.
Enrich your learning:
Daylight Saving Time (DST)
It is the practice of setting the clocks forward one hour from standard time during the summer months, and back again in the fall, in order to make better use of natural daylight.
The idea of aligning waking hours to daylight hours was first proposed in 1784 by US polymath Benjamin Franklin.
DST is in practice in 70 countries.
India does not follow daylight saving time; countries near the equator do not experience high variations in daytime hours between seasons.
In the US, clocks go back on the first Sunday of November and it is practiced everywhere except in Hawaii and most of Arizona states.
The 28 member states of the European Union switch together- moving forward on the last Sunday of March and falling back on the last Sunday in October.
Most Muslim countries do not use DST- during the holy month of Ramzan, this could mean delaying the breaking of the fast for longer.
Morocco has DST but suspends it during Ramzan. However, Iran has DST and stays with it even during Ramzan.
Why in News?
The United States Senate unanimously passed a law making daylight saving time (DST) permanent, scrapping the biannual practice of putting clocks forward and back coinciding with the arrival and departure of winter.

21.    Debtor Reporting System (DRS), sometimes seen in news was established by
 a) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
 b) World Bank
 c) New Development Bank (NDB)
 d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Solution: b)
Debtor Reporting System (DRS) is a statistical reporting system maintained by the World Bank to monitor the debt of developing countries. Information is supplied through reports from debtor countries.

22.    Which of the following factors can or have led to the depreciation of Indian rupee?
1. Massive sell-off by foreign portfolio investors in the Indian stock market
2. Steep interest rate increases by the U.S. Federal Reserve
3. Widening India’s current account deficit (CAD)
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
On July 1, the rupee breached the 79 per dollar mark for the first time ever. The domestic currency has been dominating the headlines for hitting lifetime lows against the greenback for some time. In 2022, it slipped 6.7% against the dollar.
One factor that has triggered this free fall of currencies is the massive sell-off by foreign portfolio investors. Due to steep interest rate increases by the U.S. Federal Reserve to tame four decades-high inflation, investors have withdrawn from riskier emerging markets and opted for safe haven assets.
Besides the FPI outflows, a widening trade deficit has added pressure on India’s current account deficit (CAD), which in turn has added pressure on the outlook for the local currency.
In order to rein in the widening CAD and reduce pressure on the weakening rupee, the government raised the import duty levied on gold to 15% from 10.75%. At the same time, the government also imposed a cess on the export of petrol, diesel and jet fuel. Private refiners have been exporting fuel and earning ‘windfall’ profits while pumps were running dry in some parts of the country.

23.    Consider the following statements:
1. Unlike a tornado, straight-line storms are thunderstorm winds that have no rotation.
2. They are a cold-weather phenomenon and generally occur during the wintertime.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Derecho
A derecho, according to the US’s National Weather Service is “a widespread, long-lived, straight-line windstorm” that is associated with a “band of rapidly moving showers or thunderstorms”.
The name comes from the Spanish word ‘la Derecha which means ‘straight’.
Straight-line storms are those in which thunderstorm winds have no rotation, unlike a tornado.
These storms travel hundreds of miles and cover a vast area.
Being a warm-weather phenomenon, a derecho generally – not always – occurs during summertime beginning in May, with most hitting in June and July.
However, they are a rare occurrence as compared to other storm systems like tornadoes or hurricanes.
For a storm to be classified as a derecho it must have wind gusts of at least 93 km per hour; a wind damage swath extends more than 400 km.

24.    With reference to Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), consider the following statements:
1. It is an attached office of National Statistical Office (NSO).
2. It supports the Government achieve the national development agenda through monitoring and evaluation (M&E) of government policies and programs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) is an attached office of NITI Aayog. As the apex monitoring and evaluation (M&E) office in the country, DMEO supports the Government achieve the national development agenda through M&E of government policies and programs.

25.    Which one of the following Directive Principles was not originally provided in the Constitution of India?
 a) Organization of village panchayats
 b) Safeguard forests and wild life
 c) Uniform civil code for the citizens
 d) Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry
Solution: b)
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
(i) To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
(ii) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
(iii) To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
(iv) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A)

26.    Consider the following statements regarding Disaster Management Act, 2005:
1. It created a two-tier structural system to manage disasters.
2. It envisages responsibility on the central government to constitute National Disaster Response Fund.
3. National Disaster Management Authority is headed by Prime Minister at the national level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution: The disaster Management Act, of 2005 created a three-tier structural system to manage disasters.
Enrich your learning:
Disaster Management Act, 2005
It defines “disaster” as any catastrophe, mishap, calamity, or grave occurrence in any area caused naturally or by human intervention resulting in significant loss of life, destruction of property, degradation of the environment, or any other damage which is beyond the coping capacity of the community wherein such disaster took place.
Objective: To ensure effective management of disasters and matters connected with such disasters.
The legislation comprises 79 sections and 11 chapters.
It ensures effective implementation and monitoring of disaster management plans.
It provides for a three-tier structural system to manage disasters.
National Disaster Management Authority is headed by Prime Minister at the national level.
State Disaster Management Authorities are headed by Chief Ministers at the State level.
District Disaster Management Authorities at the district level.
The legislation also envisages responsibility on the central government to constitute National Disaster Response Fund and National Disaster Mitigation Fund.
National Disaster Response Fund is managed by the Central Government for meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief, and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster.
For the purpose of specialist response to an emergency disaster situation that is threatening, the provision related to the constitution of the National Disaster Response Force has been envisaged in the legislation.
Why in News?
Two years after the National Disaster Management Act, 2005, was invoked for the first time to check the Covid-19 spread, the Centre has revoked its implementation for the pandemic containment.

27.    Consider the following statements.
1. While La Niña conditions enhance the rainfall associated with the Northeast monsoon, it has a negative impact on rainfall associated with the Southwest monsoon.
2. During El Niño, there is abnormal surface warming observed along the eastern and central regions of the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
While El Niño the expression heard more commonly in India, is the abnormal surface warming observed along the eastern and central regions of the Pacific Ocean (region between Peru and Papua New Guinea), La Niña (Spanish for ‘little girl’) is an abnormal cooling of these surface waters.
Together, the El Niño and La Niña phenomena are termed as El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO). These are large-scale ocean phenomena which inflence the global weather — winds, temperature and rainfall. They have the ability to trigger extreme weather events like droughts, floods, hot and cold conditions, globally.
While La Niña conditions enhance the rainfall associated with the Southwest monsoon, it has a negative impact on rainfall associated with the Northeast monsoon.

28.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘El Niño Southern Oscillation’:
1. It is a recurring climate pattern involving changes in the temperature of waters in the central and eastern tropical Pacific oceans.
2. El Niño and La Niña are the extreme phases of the ENSO cycle.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution: Both the statements are correct.
Enrich your learning:
El Niño Southern Oscillation
[Ref-Research gate]
It is a periodic fluctuation (i.e., every 2–7 years) in sea surface temperature (El Niño) and the air pressure of the overlying atmosphere (Southern Oscillation) across the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
El Niño and La Niña are the extreme phases of the ENSO cycle; between these two phases is a third phase called ENSO-neutral.
El Nino is the “warm phase” of a larger phenomenon called the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
La Nina, the “cool phase” of ENSO, is a pattern that describes the unusual cooling of the region’s surface waters.
The Southern Oscillation is the atmospheric component of El Niño.
This component is an oscillation in surface air pressure between the tropical eastern and the western Pacific Ocean waters.
The strength of the Southern Oscillation is measured by the Southern Oscillation Index (SOI).
The SOI is computed from fluctuations in the surface air pressure difference between Tahiti (in the Pacific) and Darwin, Australia.
Why in News?
A new study shows that a shift in the current El Niño/Southern Oscillation cycle is reportedly exacerbating the effects of climate change.

29.    The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their
1. Poll performance
2. Number of elections contested
3. Financial backing
4. Cadre strength
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2, 3
 b) 1 only
 c) 1, 2, 4
 d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their Poll performance.

30.    Consider the following statements regarding the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of a State.
1. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) consists of the seabed and subsoil that extends to the outer edge of the continental margin, or to a distance of 200 nautical miles if the outer edge of the continental margin does not extend up to that distance.
2. According to theUnited Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, the extended continental shelf of a coastal State is considered as an extension of its Exclusive Economic Zone.
3. The sovereign rights that a coastal state may exercise in the Exclusive Economic Zone, especially rights to the resources of the water column also apply to the entire stretch of extended continental shelf.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1 and 2 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
Under international law, as stated in Article 76 of the Law of the Sea Convention, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) consists of the seabed and subsoil that extends to the outer edge of the continental margin, or to a distance of 200 nautical miles if the outer edge of the continental margin does not extend up to that distance.
The continental shelf and the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) are distinct maritime zones. The extended continental shelf is not an extension of the EEZ. Some of the sovereign rights that a coastal state may exercise in the EEZ, especially rights to the resources of the water column (e.g., pelagic fisheries), do not apply to the ECS.

31.    Which of the following countries are known as the Four Asian Tigers?
1. South Korea
2. India
3. Taiwan
4. Singapore
5. Hong Kong
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2, 3, 4
 b) 1, 3, 4, 5
 c) 1, 2, 4, 5
 d) 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: b)
The Four Asian Tigers are the economies of South Korea, Taiwan, Singapore and Hong Kong. Between the early 1960s and 1990s, they underwent rapid industrialization and maintained exceptionally high growth rates of more than 7 per cent a year.

32.    Consider the following statements:
1. Pharmaceutical companies gifting freebies to doctors is prohibited by law.
2. Section 37(1) of the income tax act permits expenditure incurred during the previous years, such as freebies can be counted as a deduction.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Public Good
Upholding a decision by the Madras High Court, the Bench said that the act of pharmaceutical companies giving freebies to doctors is clearly ‘prohibited by the law’.
Further, it cannot be claimed as a deduction under Section 37(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Section37(1): – any expenditure which an assessee incurred during the previous year, such as for payment of hapta, freebies, donations, protection, or extortion money will not be allowed as a deduction.

33.    Consider the following statements.
1. In India, generally the fundamental rights are enforceable against the state whereas in few cases can be enforceable against the private individuals.
2. In the Puttaswamy judgement, the Supreme Court held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
In India, generally the fundamental rights are enforceable against the state whereas in few cases can be enforceable against the private individuals.
The Puttaswamy judgment held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right.

34.    In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?
 (a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
 (b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
 (c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
 (d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The members of the G20 are: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union.

35.    Consider the following statements about Giga Mesh
1. It is the world’s first multi-beam E-band Radio that is able to communicate from one tower to multiple towers simultaneously.
2. It’s communicating range is more than 100 kilometres. 
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Gigamesh
GigaMesh, developed by Astrome, supported by ARTPARK, is world’s first multi-beam E-band Radio that is able to communicate from one tower to multiple towers simultaneously while delivering multi GBPS throughput to each of these towers.
A single GigaMesh device can provide up to forty links with 2+ Gbps capacity, communicating up to a range of ten kilometres.
This flexibility in range makes it suitable for both decongesting the dense urban networks and extending rural coverage.
With India’s huge population in the rural segment, Astrome can help improve domestic internet connectivity.

36.    The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?
1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapers, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities
3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 3 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The correct answer is 2 only.
Key Points
• In order to safeguard and support the world’s agricultural heritage systems, FAO started an initiative for the identification and the dynamic conservation of the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) in 2002. So it is not about providing modern technologies or modern practices to enhance agricultural productivity. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It aims to identify, support and safeguard globally important agricultural heritage systems and their livelihoods, agricultural and associated biodiversity, knowledge systems, cultures and landscapes around the world. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• GI tag is accorded to products from a certain origin and not to traditional agricultural systems. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

37.    The geographical areas ‘Golden Crescent and Golden Triangle’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to?
- A. Paddy Cultivation
- B. Water Scarcity
- C. Gold Reserves
- D. Opium Production
Answer: D
Sol:
•  The Golden Crescent is the name given to one of Asia's two principal areas of illicit opium production (with the other being the Golden Triangle). This space overlaps three nations, Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan, whose mountainous peripheries define the crescent. Afghanistan now produces over 90% of the world's non-pharmaceutical-grade opium.
•  The Golden Triangle is the area where the borders of Thailand, Laos, and Myanmar meet at the confluence of the Ruak and Mekong rivers. The name "Golden Triangle" is commonly used more broadly to refer to an area of approximately 950,000 square kilometres that overlaps the mountains of the three adjacent countries.

38.    Consider the following statements about Government Securities (G-Secs).
1.  They are issued by the Central Government or the State Governments with a promise of repayment upon maturity.
2.  Treasury bill is an example of G-Sec.
3.  G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: G-Secs are tradable instruments like bonds issued by the Central Government or the State Governments with a promise of repayment upon maturity.
•  Statement 2 is correct: Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
•  In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
•  Statement 3 is correct: G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.

39.    Which of the following countries are part of the Gulf Cooperation Council?
1. Oman
2. Yemen
3. Saudi Arabia
4. Iran
5. United India Emirates
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2, 3, 4
 b) 1, 3, 5
 c) 1, 3, 4, 5
 d) 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: b)
the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a regional, intergovernmental, political, and economic union that consists of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.

40.    Consider the following statements:
1. Horseshoe crab’s blood is blue in color and is used to test vaccines and ensure that they aren’t contaminated with dangerous bacterial toxins.
2. Horseshoe crab’s blood contains a special clotting agent Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) which detects a contaminant called endotoxin.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Horseshoe Crab
A horseshoe crab’s bright blue blood is used to test vaccines, drugs, and medical devices to ensure that they aren’t contaminated with dangerous bacterial toxins
Horseshoe crabs have been around even before the dinosaurs.
However, conservationists fear that this 450-million-year-old living fossil may soon be pushed to the brink of extinction
A horseshoe crab’s blood contains a special clotting agent Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) which detects a contaminant called endotoxin.
If even tiny amounts of endotoxin make their way into vaccines or injectable drugs, the results can be deadly.
Therefore, it has been essential for testing the safety of biomedical products since the 1970s, when it replaced rabbit testing.
Every year, pharmaceutical companies round up half a million Atlantic horseshoe crabs, bleed them, and return them to the ocean after which many will die.

41.    Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the India Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on the forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Correct Answer is 2 and 3 only.
Key Points
• The Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill 2018 permits felling and transit of bamboo grown in non-forest areas.
• However, bamboo grown on forest lands would continue to be classified as a tree and would be guided by the existing legal restrictions. Hence, Statement 1 is Not Correct.\
• The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 recognises bamboo as an Minor Forest Produce
• It vests the “right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce” with Scheduled Tribes and traditional forest dwellers. Hence Statement 2 is Correct.
• In 2006, the Forest Rights Act (FRA) for the first time defined minor forest produce as including bamboo and tendu and many other things.
• It also gave tribals and other traditional forest dwellers the “right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce, which has been traditionally collected within or outside village boundaries.” Hence Statement 3 is Correct.

42.    Consider the following statements regarding India Plastics Pact, sometimes seen in news.
1. India Plastics Pact (IPP) was launched as a collaboration between Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
2. It is a collaborative initiative between businesses, governments and NGOs that aims to transform the current linear plastics system into a circular plastics economy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The India Plastics Pact is an ambitious, collaborative initiative that aims to bring together businesses, governments and NGOs to reduce, reuse, and recycle plastics in their value chain.
The Pact aims to transform the current linear plastics system into a circular plastics economy.
The India Plastics Pact aims to promote public-private collaborations that enable solutions to eliminate the plastic waste problem in India and bring innovation to the way plastic is designed, used and reused.
The vision, targets and ambition of the India Plastics Pact are aligned with the circular economy principles of the Ellen MacArthur Foundation’s New Plastics Economy.

43.    Consider the following statements regarding India State of Forest Report, 2021:
1. As per report, forest cover is defined as all lands more than one hectare in the area with a tree canopy density of more than 5% irrespective of ownership and legal status.
2. State of forest report is published biennial.
3. Open forests currently have the biggest share of the country’s forest cover.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution: Forest cover is defined as all lands more than one hectare in the area with a tree canopy density of more than 10% irrespective of ownership and legal status.
Enrich your learning:
Forest Cover
According to the India State of Forest Report, it is defined as:
All lands, more than one hectare in area, with a tree canopy density of more than 10 percent irrespective of ownership and legal status.
Such lands may not necessarily be a recorded forest area.
It also includes orchards, bamboo, and Palm.
Forest is defined structurally on the basis of
Crown cover percentage: Tree crown cover- 10 to 30% (India 10%)
A minimum area of stand: the area between 0.05 and 1 hectare (India 1.0 hectare) and
Minimum height of trees: Potential to reach a minimum height at maturity in situ of 2 to 5 m (India 2m)
India’s State of Forest Report:
It is an assessment of India’s forest and tree cover.
It is published every two years by the Forest Survey of India under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
The first survey was published in 1987, and ISFR 2021 is the 17th.
The assessment of forest cover of the country is done using mid-resolution Satellite data based on interpretation of LISS-III data from Indian Remote Sensing satellite data (Resourcesat-II).
Linear Imaging Self-Scanning Sensor 3- LISS III is a remote sensing satellite camera from the Indian Space Research Organization.
The survey is based on these four categories of forests:
Very Dense Forest (with tree canopy density of 70 percent or above)
Moderately Dense Forest (tree canopy density between 40 and 70 percent)
Open Forest (tree canopy density between 10 and 40 percent)
Scrub (tree canopy density less than 10 percent).
Open forests currently have the biggest share of the country’s forest cover.
Very dense forests (the pristine natural forests) account for the least forest cover.

44.    Consider the following statements about the International Energy Agency (IEA).
1.  It is an autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development.
2.  Before becoming a member country of the IEA, a candidate country must have crude oil or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: The International Energy Agency is an autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) in 1974.
•  Created in 1974, the IEA works to ensure reliable, affordable and clean energy for its member countries and beyond. Its main areas of focus are energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
•  Statement 2 is correct: The IEA is made up of 30 member countries. Before becoming a member country of the IEA, a candidate country must meet several criteria.
o  For eg: It must have crude oil or product reserves equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports.
o  It must have in place a demand restraint program to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10 per cent.
•  India became an Associate Member in 2017.
•  IEA is headquartered in Paris, France.

45.    Consider the following statements:
1. The Jiribam-Imphal rail route consists of India’s longest railway tunnel and the world’s tallest rail bridge pier.
2. India’s northeast comprising Manipur and seven other states is the third most earthquake-prone belt in the world.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Jiribam-Imphal Railway
Sanctioned in February 2005 as a national project, the 110.625 km Jiribam-Imphal line is considered a vital segment of the Trans-Asian Railway envisaged as an integrated freight railway network across Europe and Asia.
The broad-gauge project entails connecting Manipur’s Jiribam, a town on the border with Assam, and the State capital Imphal mostly across the fragile hills of Noney district is expected to reduce the travel time from the existing 10-12 hours to three hours.
The project involves 46 tunnels with a total length of 61.398 km, 16 road overbridges, and under-bridges, and 140 major and minor rail bridges.
Tunnel number 12 on this line is India’s longest railway tunnel at 11.55 km and one of the rail bridges near Noney is being built at a pier height of 141 meters, the world’s tallest.
India’s northeast comprising Manipur and seven other States is the sixth most earthquake-prone belt in the world.

46.    The word ‘kajli’ in Indian culture refers to which of the following art form?
a) A regional Music
b) A regional Dance
c) A regional Drama
d) A regional Painting
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution: Kajli is a regional Music.
Enrich your learning:
Kajli
Kajli is a song sung during the Rainy season.
The connection of these songs with the rains is evident from the name, which is symbolic of the kaajar-like or kohl-like dark rain clouds.
When farmers see their crops flowering their hearts and minds also bloom like a flower and they sing Kajli songs to show their gratitude to God.
Kajli is one of the most striking genres of Indian music and was born in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
On the third day in the second half of the Bhadra, women sing Kajri songs all through the night, while dancing in a semi-circle.
The most popular examples of this folk song can be found in the Bhojpuri language, but there are similar songs in the sister languages Awadhi, Maithili also.
Other Regional Music
Chhakri, Kashmir
Chhakri is a group song that is the most popular form of Kashmir’s folk music.
It is sung to the accompaniment of the noot (earthen pot) rababs, sarangi, and tumbaknari (an earthen pot with a high neck).
Tappa, Punjab
It is a form of semi-classical vocal music inspired by the folk songs of camel riders in the Punjab area.
It is characterized by jumpy and flashy tonal movements with rhythmic and rapid notes.
Powada, Maharashtra
The word Powada itself means “the narration of a story in glorious terms”.
The narratives are always odes in praise of an individual hero or an incident or place.
The chief narrator is known as the Shahir who plays the duff to keep the rhythm.
The tempo is fast and controlled by the main singer who is supported by others in the chorus.
Bhuta song, Kerala
The basis of the Bhuta song is rooted in superstitions.
Some communities of Kerala do Bhuta rituals to send away the evil ghost and spirits.
This ritual is accompanied by vigorous dancing and the music has a piercing and eerie character.
Sana Lamok, Manipur
It is sung at the time of the coronation ceremony by the Maaiba (priest).
It may also be sung to welcome the king.
It is sung to evoke the spirit of Pakhangba, the presiding deity.
There is a belief that this song is potent with magical powers.

47.    Consider the following statements:
1. Kala Sanskriti Vikas Yojana is launched by the Ministry of Culture.
2. National Mission on Manuscripts aims to promote access to manuscripts by digitizing the rarest and most endangered manuscripts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution: Both the statements are correct.
Enrich your learning:
Schemes for the promotion of Art and Culture
Following schemes are administered by the Ministry of Culture
Centenaries and Anniversaries Scheme
It aims to commemorate the centenary and special anniversaries such as 125th/150th/175th etc. of eminent personalities and events of historical importance to the country.
The commemoration starts with the completion of 100/125/150 etc. years and continues for a period of one year.
Kala Sanskriti Vikas Yojana
It aims to promote and disseminate the art & culture of the country by providing financial support to drama, theatre groups, dance groups, music ensembles, folk theatre & music, and other genres of performing art activities.
Museums Grants Scheme
The Ministry of Culture offers financial support for the development of new museums by State Governments, local bodies, autonomous bodies, and other organizations.
Financial assistance is also offered for strengthening and modernizing existing museums, digitization of museum collections, and capacity building and training of museum professionals.
Development of Libraries & Archives
National Mission on Libraries (NML) has the objective of establishing a National Virtual Library of India, establishment of Model Libraries, quantitative/ qualitative survey of Libraries, and capacity building.
All National, State, and district level libraries are to be developed as model libraries, with emphasis on developing these libraries in economically backward districts.
National Mission on Manuscripts
Objectives
To locate manuscripts through national-level Survey and Post-Survey.
Document each and every manuscript and manuscript repository for a National Electronic Database.
It currently contains information on four million manuscripts making this the largest database on Indian manuscripts in the world.
Conserve manuscripts incorporating both modern and indigenous methods of conservation and training a new generation of manuscript conservators.
To train the next generation of scholars in various aspects of Manuscript Studies like languages, scripts, and critical editing and cataloging of texts and conservation of manuscripts.
To promote access to manuscripts by digitizing the rarest and most endangered manuscripts.
To promote access to manuscripts through the publication of critical editions of unpublished manuscripts and catalogs.
To facilitate the public's engagement with manuscripts through lectures, seminars, publications, and other outreach programs.

48.    Kharchi Puja is a Hindu festival celebrated in the Indian state of
 (a) Maharashtra
 (b) Odisha
 (c) Manipur
 (d) West Bengal
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Kharchi Pujais a Hindu festival from Tripura, the festival involves the worship of the fourteen gods forming the dynasty deity of the Tripuri people.

49.    Who are eligible to avail benefits from the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme?
1.  Tenant farmers
2.  Oral lessees
3.  Share Croppers
4.  Self Help Groups of farmers
5.  Farmers involved in activities related to animal husbandry and fisheries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
- A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
- B. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
- C. 4 and 5 only
- D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
Sol:
•  The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was introduced in 1998 with the aim of providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system under a single window with flexible and simplified procedure to the farmers for their cultivation and other needs as indicated below:
a.  To meet the short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops;
b.  Post-harvest expenses;
c.  Produce marketing loan;
d.  Consumption requirements of farmer household;
e.  Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture;
f.  Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities.
•  Note: The aggregate of components ‘a’ to ‘e’ above will form the short term credit limit portion and the aggregate of components under ‘f’ will form the long term credit limit portion.
•  Under the KCC Scheme, a flexible limit of Rs.10,000 to Rs.50,000 has been provided to marginal farmers (as Flexi KCC) based on the land holding and crops grown.
•  The beneficiaries under the scheme will be issued with a Smart card/ Debit card.
•  It enables farmers to purchase agricultural inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, etc. and draw cash to satisfy their agricultural and consumption needs.
•  The Scheme is implemented by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks and Cooperatives.
Eligibility
•  Farmers - individual/joint borrowers who are owner cultivators;
•  Tenant farmers, oral lessees & sharecroppers;
•  Self Help Groups (SHGs) or Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) of farmers including tenant farmers, sharecroppers etc.
•  In 2019, KCC was extended to farmers who are involved in activities related to animal husbandry and fisheries.

50.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Land use, land-use change, and forestry (LULUCF)’:
1. It keeps the record of emission and removal of greenhouse gases.
2. LULUCF activities are permanent in nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution: LULUCF activities are not permanent in nature.
Enrich your learning:
Land use, land-use change, and forestry
It is defined as the greenhouse gas inventory sector that covers emissions and removals of greenhouse gases resulting from direct human-induced land use such as settlements and commercial uses, land-use change, and forestry activities.
It has an impact on the global carbon cycle.
Land-use change can be a factor in CO2 (carbon dioxide) atmospheric concentration and is thus a contributor to global climate change.
The main drawback of LULUCF activities is their potential reversibility and non-permanence of carbon stocks as a result of human activities, natural disturbances, or a combination of the two.

51.    Consider the following statements about Leprosy.
1.  It is a viral disease caused by Aedes aegypti mosquitoes.
2.  The main method of transmission is inhaling airborne droplets from the infected people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- A. Both 1 and 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: Hansen’s disease (also known as leprosy) is a chronic, progressive infection caused by slow-growing bacteria called Mycobacterium leprae.
•  It can affect the nerves, skin, eyes, and lining of the nose (nasal mucosa). With early diagnosis and treatment, the disease can be cured.
•  Symptoms often take between three and five years to manifest.
•  Hansen’s disease is treated with a combination of antibiotics. Typically, 2 or 3 antibiotics are used at the same time. The combination of medications known as "Multi-Drug Therapy" can cure leprosy (MDT).
•  Leprosy has been recorded as one of the oldest illness.  Leprosy has been documented in writing as early as 600 B.C.
•  Thousands of years ago, it was fully understood by the first civilisations in China, Egypt, and India. The existence of leprosy infections in 100,000-year-old remains is supported by genetic data.
•  Statement 2 is correct: The main method of transmission is inhaling airborne droplets from the infected people. The disease can be contracted at any age

52.    Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
- Bengaluru
- Hyderabad
- Nagpur
- Pune
Explanation
The correct answer is Bengaluru.
Key Points
• The longitude of Delhi is 77.216721 E.
• The longitude of Bangalore is 77.5945  E.
• The longitude of Nagpur is 79.0888  E.
• The longitude of Pune is 73.8474  E.
• Therefore among the following cities, Bengaluru is the city that lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi.

53.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Macaulay’s Minute’:
1. Lord Macaulay submitted his famous minute in 1825.
2. He emphasized on governments funds should be used to print the oriental work.
3. Macaulay defined the Indian scholars in his minute as the one who learnt Lock’s philosophy and Milton’s poetry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 2 only 
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution:
Lord Macaulay submitted his famous minute in 1835.
He emphasized on governments funds should not be used to print the oriental work.
Enrich your learning:
Macaulay’s Minute
Lord Macaulay came to India in June 1834, as the law member of the Governor General’s Executive council.
He was appointed as the President of the Committee of Public Instruction.
He was entrusted to settle down the dispute between orientalists and Anglicists in 1835.
He submitted his famous minutes in February 1835 to the council.
Key points of minute
All funds appropriated for the purpose of education would be best employed on English education alone.
All the existing professors and students at all the institutions under the superintendence of the committee shall continue to receive the stipends but no stipend shall be given to any students that may hereafter enter at any of these institutions.
The Government Funds were not to be spent on the printing of oriental works.
All the funds at the disposal of the Government would be henceforth be spent in imparting to the Indians a knowledge of English literature and Science.
Indian scholar was also defined by Macaulay as the one who learnt Lock’s philosophy and Milton’s poetry.
Stoppage of grant to oriental schools means if the government felt that its old educational policy had failed, it could change its policy and stop the grant.

54.    Consider the following minerals:
1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?
- 1 and 2 only
- 4 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The correct answer is 2, 3, and 4 only.
Key Points
• As per Govt. of India Notification S.O. 423(E) dated 10th February 2015 Bentonite has been declared as 'Minor Mineral'. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Important Points
• The Central Government has declared the following minerals as minor minerals:
○ Boulder, shingle, chalcedony pebbles used for ball mill purposes only, lime shell, kankar.
○ And limestone used in kilns for the manufacture of lime used as a building material.
○ Murrum, brick-earth, fuller’s earth, bentonite, road metal, reh-matti.
○ Slate and shale when used for building material, marble, stone used for making household utensils.
○ Quartzite and sandstone when used for purposes of building or for making road metal and household utensils, saltpeter, and ordinary earth
○ Used or filling or leveling purposes in construction or embankments, roads, railways, building.
Additional Information
• Bentonite is essentially a highly plastic clay containing not less than 85% clay mineral, montmorillonite.
• Chromite (Cr) is the single commercially viable ore of chromium which is chemically known as iron chromium oxide (Fe.Cr O ).
• Kyanite, Sillimanite, and andalusite are anhydrous aluminosilicate minerals that have the same chemical formula Al O but differ in the crystal structure and physical properties.

55.    Consider the following statements about Managarh Hill
1. Govind Guru is a social reformer who started the Bhagat movement in 1908 and made the Mangarh hill a centre of faith.
2. The Hill rock is also referred as the Jallianwala Bagh of Bengal.
3. Managarh massacre refers to the brutal killing of tribals from the Bhil community by the Mughal Army in 1911
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  1 and 2 only
c.  1 and 3 only
d.  1, 2 and 3
Answer : a
Managarh hill rock
Govind Guru, was a popular saint of the Bhils who made the Mangarh hill a centre of faith.
He awakened the Bhil community and filled them with a sense of patriotism.
The Bhils were so inspired that they sacrificed their lives for freedom.
Later, 1500 Gurubhakt Bhils sacrificed their lives while fighting against the British army.
It is therefore also known as Jallianwala Bagh of Rajasthan.
Govind Guru and his followers started assembling at Mangarh in October, 1913.
The Mangarh massacre or Adivasi Jallianwala, occurred on 17 November 1913, when a large force consisting of detachments of Imperial Service Troops and the Mewar Bhil Corps opened fire on a gathering of local Bhils in the Mangarh Hills on the border of Rajasthan and Gujarat after they refused to disperse

56.    With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Centre Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.
Key Points
• Sand is a minor mineral, as defifined under section 3 (e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act). Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
• Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith.
• The regulation of grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the state governments.
• Under the power granted to them by section 15 of the MMDR Act, State Governments have framed their own minor minerals concession rules. Hence Statement 2 is Not Correct.
• Section 23C of the MMDR Act, 1957 empowers state governments to frame rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals and for purposes connected therewith.
• Control of illegal mining is, therefore, under the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of state governments. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

57.    With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), consider the following statements:
1. It is a set of norms that have been evolved with the consensus of political parties.
2. It is enforced from the date of announcement of the election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational till the process of elections is completed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 and 2
Explanation
The Correct Answer is Both 1 and 2
Key Points
• Statement 1 is correct: The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms that have been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit.
○ During the election campaign, the political parties and contesting candidates are expected to abide by a Model Code of Conduct evolved by the Election Commission.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational till the process of elections is completed.

58.    Consider the following statements about “Montreal Protocol”:
1. It is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus.
2. It led to the replacement of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) with Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which do not destroy the Ozone layer.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
S1: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS). When released to the atmosphere, those chemicals damage the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth’s protective shield that protects humans and the environment from harmful levels of ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Adopted on 15 September 1987, the Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever that has been ratified every country on Earth – all 198 UN Member States.
S2: The Montreal Protocol led to the replacement of CFCs with Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) which do not destroy the Ozone layer.
Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) are gases used worldwide in refrigeration, air-conditioning and foam applications, but they are being phased out under the Montreal Protocol since deplete the ozone layer. HCFCs are both ODS and powerful greenhouse gases: the most commonly used HCFC is nearly 2,000 times more potent than carbon dioxide in terms of its global warming potential (GWP).
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), were introduced as non-ozone depleting alternatives to support the timely phase out of CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs are now widespread in air conditioners, refrigerators, aerosols, foams and other products. While these chemicals do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer, some of them have high GWPs ranging from 12 to 14,000.

59.    Consider the following pairs:
               National Parks                         Location
Padmaja Naidu Park                      Andhra Pradesh
Singalila National Park                   Sikkim
Neora Valley National Park            West Bengal
Diibru Saikhowa Park                     Arunachal Pradesh
How many pairs are correctly matched?
a.  Only one pair
b.  Only two pairs
c.  Only three pairs
d.  All four pairs
Answer : a
National Parks
Padmaja Naidu Park – West Bengal
Singalila National Park - West Bengal
Neora Valley National Park - West Bengal
Diibru Saikhowa Park – Assam

60.    Consider the following statements with reference to Naval Mutiny of 1946:
1. The revolt spread and found support throughout British India, from Karachi to Calcutta.
2. Congress did not officially support these upsurges because of their tactics and timing.
3. The immediate issues that caused the revolt were living conditions and food.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: All the statements are correct.
Enrich your learning:
Naval Mutiny
It is also known as the 1946 Naval Uprising.
It was an insurrection of Indian naval ratings, soldiers, police personnel, and civilians against the British government in India.
It was suppressed by British troops and Royal Navy warships.
The Indian National Congress and the Muslim League condemned the mutiny.
The Communist Party of India was the only nationwide political organization that supported the rebellion.
The nerve centers of the agitation were Delhi, Bombay, Calcutta, Madras, United Provinces towns, and Punjab, the campaign spread to distant places such as Coorg, Baluchistan, and Assam.
The RIN Revolt started as a strike by ratings of the Royal Indian Navy on 18 February in protest against general conditions.
Racial discrimination (demanding equal pay for Indian and white soldiers).
Unpalatable food.
Abuse by superior officers.
The arrest of a rating for scrawling ‘Quit India’ on HMIS Talwar.
INA trials.
Use of Indian troops in Indonesia, demanding their withdrawal.
Why in News?
1946 Last War of Independence Royal Indian Navy Mutiny; Pramod Kapoor, Roli Books, ₹695.

61.    Consider the following statements.
1.  The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons is the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention.
2.  India is a signatory and party to the Chemical Weapons convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Sol:
•  The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) is a universal, non-discriminatory, multi-lateral, disarmament treaty which prohibits the development, production, stock-piling and use of chemical weapons and monitors its elimination in order to secure a chemical weapons free world.
•  The Convention entered into force in 1997. As on date, 193 countries are parties to the Convention.
•  Statement 2 is correct: India is a signatory and party to the convention. India, pursuant to provisions of the Convention enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000.
About OPCW
•  Statement 1 is correct: The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention.
•  The OPCW, with its 193 Member States (including India), oversees the global endeavour to permanently and verifiably eliminate chemical weapons.

62.    Consider the following statements.
1. Asteroids are rocky objects much smaller than planets, that orbit the Sun.
2. Asteroids were formed after millions of years after the formation of planets and other objects in the solar system.
3. OSIRIS-Rex is European Space Agency’s(ESA) first mission to return a sample from an asteroid.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1 only
 c) 1, 3
 d) 2, 3
Solution: d)
 Asteroids are rocky objects that orbit the Sun, much smaller than planets. They are also called minor planets. According to NASA, 994,383 is the count for known asteroids, the remnants from the formation of the solar system over 4.6 billion years ago.
 Scientists study asteroids to look for information about the formation and history of planets and the sun since asteroids were formed at the same time as other objects in the solar system. Another reason for tracking them is to look for potentially hazardous asteroids.
 OSIRIS-REx mission is NASA’s first mission meant to return a sample from the ancient asteroid.

63.    Consider the following statements:
1. Ozone is made up of three oxygen atoms.
2. Ozone is both a natural and a man-made product.
3. The Vienna Convention is the first international agreement dedicated to the protection of the ozone layer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 1 and 3 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Ozone (O3) is a highly reactive gas composed of three oxygen atoms. It is both a natural and a man-made product that occurs in the Earth’s upper atmosphere (the stratosphere) and lower atmosphere (the troposphere).
Vienna convention: The Vienna Convention is the first international agreement dedicated to the protection of the ozone layer. The Convention commits all countries to take measures to protect human health and the environment resulting from modifications to the ozone layer.
Montreal Protocol: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was designed to reduce the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances in order to reduce their abundance in the atmosphere and thereby protect the earth’s fragile ozone Layer.

64.    The terms 'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures' and 'Peace Clause' appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the
- Food and Agriculture Organization
- United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
- World Trade Organisation
- United Nations Environment Programme
Explanation
The correct answer is the World Trade Organization.
Key Points
• The terms 'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitar Measures' and 'Peace Clause' appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the World Trade Organisation.
World Trade Organisation (WTO)
• WTO is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
• It was created by Uruguay Round negotiations (1986-94) with a membership of 164 members representing 98 percent of world trade.
• It was established on 1 January 1995 with its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The WTO’s agreements are often called the Final Act of the Uruguay Round of Multilateral Trade Negotiations, signed in Marrakesh, Morocco on 15 April 1994.
• The WTO superseded the GATT as the umbrella organization for international trade.
Agreement on Agriculture
• It came into force on 1 January 1995.
• The preamble to the Agreement recognizes that the agreed long-term objective of the reform process initiated by the Uruguay Round to establish a fair and market-oriented agricultural trading system.
• The reform program comprises specific commitments to reduce support and protection in the areas of domestic support, export subsidies, and market access, and through the establishment of strengthened and more operationally effective GATT rules and disciplines.
• The Agreement also takes into account non-trade concerns, including food security and the need to protect the environment, and provides special and differential treatment for developing countries, including an improvement in the opportunities and terms of access for agricultural products of particular export interest to these Members.

65.    Consider the following pairs:
Famous place: River
1. Pandharpur: Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirapalli: Cauvery
3. Hampi: Malaprabha
Which of the pair given above are correctly matched
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.
Pandharpur –
○ It is a city on the banks of Chandrabhaga River in Maharashtra.
○ The famous Lord Vitthal-Rukmini Mandir is located in this city.
Tiruchirappalli –
○ It is situated on the banks of river Cauvery.
○ It is a city in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
○ The famous Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple is located in Tiruchirappalli.
• Hampi –
○ It was the capital of the Vijayanagara kingdom and is located on the bank of the Tungabhadra River.
○ Hampi is located in Karnataka.
○ Many famous temples like Virupaksha Temple, Nandi Statue etc are located in Hampi.
• Pattadakal or Pattadakallu is situated on the banks of the river Malaprabha and is located in Karnataka.

66.    Consider the following statements regarding PM SVANidhi scheme.
1. The PM SVANidhi scheme, is a credit facility that provides street vendors a collateral-free loan of Rs 1 lakh with low rates of interest for a period of one year.
2. The scheme is part of the AtmaNirbhar Bharat package.
3. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the implementing agency for the scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2
 (b) 1 and 3
 (c) 2 and 3
 (d) 2 only
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs launched a scheme PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) to empower Street Vendors by not only extending loans to them, but also for their holistic development and economic upliftment.
The scheme intends to facilitate collateral free working capital loans of up to INR10, 000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors, to help resume their businesses in the urban areas, including surrounding peri-urban/rural areas. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the implementing agency.

67.    Consider the following statements regarding Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
1. PSLV is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages.
2. In the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) system all the stages of the rocket fall back into the ocean and does not leave any space junk.
3. Chandrayaan-1 and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft were launched using PSLV.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 3 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third generation launch vehicle of India. It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. After its first successful launch in October 1994, PSLV emerged as the reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle of India.
The vehicle successfully launched two spacecraft – Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013 – that later traveled to Moon and Mars respectively.
The PSLV is a four-stage rocket where the first three spent stages fall back into the ocean, and the final stage (PS4) — after launching the satellite into orbit — ends up as space junk.
However, in PSLV-C53 mission, the spent final stage will be utilised as a “stabilised platform” to perform experiments.

68.    Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor’s Atmanirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme.
1.  Under the Scheme, vendors can avail an initial working capital loan which is repayable in monthly instalments.
2.  The Small Industries Development Bank is the implementation partner for the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  The Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor’s Atmanirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) for providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to Covid-19 lockdown.
•  Statement 1 is correct: Under the Scheme, vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is repayable in monthly instalments in the tenure of one year. The loans would be without collateral.
•  On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfer on quarterly basis.
•  There will be no penalty on early repayment of loan. The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month.
•  The scheme targets to benefit over 50 lakh street vendors. The duration of the scheme is till March 2022.
•  Statement 2 is correct: SIDBI is mandated to implement the PM SVANidhi Scheme under the guidance of MoHUA.

69.    Consider the following statements about the Raisina Dialogue.
1.  It is India’s flagship conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, held annually since 2016.
2.  It is organised by the NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: The Raisina Dialogue is India’s flagship conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, held annually since 2016.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: It is jointly organised by the Ministry of External Affairs and the Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
o  ORF is an independent global think tank based in Delhi.
•  It is a multilateral conference committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. Every year, global leaders in policy, business, media and civil society are hosted in New Delhi to discuss cooperation on a wide range of pertinent international policy matters.
•  The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and academics.

70.    Consider the following statements:
1. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha enjoy all the powers and privileges to which the elected MPs are entitled.
2. Nominated members are not allowed to vote in the election of the President and have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President.
3. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha are not allowed to join any political party.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a.  1 and 2 only
b.  3 only
c.  1, 2 and 3
d.  All are correct
Answer : b
Nominated Candidates to Rajya Sabha
Nominated members of Rajya Sabha enjoy all the powers and privileges to which the elected MPs are entitled.
They can take part in the proceedings of the House in the normal manner.
Nominated members are not allowed to vote in the election of the President.
They do have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President, however.
While a nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking his/ her seat in the House, even those who remain technically independent are assumed to be aligned with the ruling regime.

71.    Consider the following statements.
1. India is the highest livestock owner of the world.
2. Rashtriya Gokul Mission was initiated with a focus on the genetic upgradation of the bovine population through widespread initiatives on artificial insemination and in vitro fertilization.
3. The contribution of Livestock in total agriculture and allied sector Gross Value Added (GVA) has doubled from 2014-15 to 2018-19.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 b) 1 and 2 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
To enhance the productivity of cattle, the Rashtriya Gokul Mission was initiated in 2014 with a focus on the genetic upgradation of the bovine population through widespread initiatives on artificial insemination, sex-sorted semen, and in vitro fertilization.
India is the highest livestock owner of the world.
As per the Economic Survey-2021, the contribution of Livestock in total agriculture and allied sector Gross Value Added (at Constant Prices) has increased from 24.32% (2014-15) to 28.63% (2018-19).

72.    Consider the following statements regarding Red Sanders.
1. Red Sanders is a flora-species that is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Eastern Ghats region of Andhra Pradesh.
2. Red Sanders is also listed in Appendix-II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wildlife Fauna and Flora (CITES).
3. Operation Rakth Chandan is related to surveillance of export of Red Sanders.
4. The export of Red Sanders from India is prohibited as per the Foreign Trade Policy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2, 3
 b) 2, 3, 4
 c) 1, 2
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) had recently recovered 14.63 MT of Red Sanders. Intelligence was developed by DRI that red sanders logs were concealed in an export consignment declared to contain “assorted toiletries”, for being smuggled out of the country. Accordingly, Operation Rakth Chandan was launched and close surveillance was kept on the suspect export consignment.
Red Sanders is a flora-species that is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Eastern Ghats region of Andhra Pradesh and fall under ‘endangered list’ in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. Red Sanders is also listed in Appendix-II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wildlife Fauna and Flora (CITES). Its rich hue and therapeutic properties are responsible for its high demand across Asia, particularly China, for use in cosmetics, medicinal products and high-end furniture/woodcraft. The export of Red Sanders from India is prohibited as per the Foreign Trade Policy.

73.    Right to Equality in the Indian constitution does not include this right?
 a) Prohibition on discrimination on ground of religion
 b) Rights of the accused and convicts
 c) Abolition of titles
 d) Equality of opportunity in employment
Solution: b)
Right to Equality includes the following laws:
Equality before law
Equal protection of laws
Prohibition on discrimination on ground of religion
Equal access to shops, bathing ghats, hotels etc.
Equality of opportunity in employment
Abolition of titles
Abolition of untouchability

74.    Which of the following statements is true about Saint Ramanujacharya?
1.  Ramanuja is considered to be the inspiration for poets like Annamacharya, Bhakt Ramdas, Thyagaraja, Kabir, and Meerabai.
2.  He is the main proponent of the dvaita subschool of Vedanta.
3.  Ramanuja appealed for the protection of nature and its resources like air, water, and soil.
4.  Ramanuja was an advocate of social equality among all sections of people and encouraged temples to open their doors to everyone irrespective of caste or position in society.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
- A. 1 and 4 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Born in 1017 CE in Tamil Nadu, Ramanujacharya is revered as a Vedic philosopher and social reformer. He travelled across India, advocating equality and social justice.
•  Statement 1 is correct: Ramanuja revived the Bhakti movement, and his preachings inspired other Bhakti schools of thought. He is considered to be the inspiration for poets like Annamacharya, Bhakt Ramdas, Thyagaraja, Kabir, and Meerabai.
•  Statement 3 is correct: From the time he was a young budding philosopher, Ramanuja appealed for the protection of nature and its resources like air, water, and soil. He went on to write nine scriptures known as the navaratnas which included three important commentaries on the Vedartha-Sangraha, the Sribhasya, and the Bhagavadgita-bhasya, all of which attempted to provide a philosophical framework for devotional worship. He also composed numerous commentaries on Vedic scriptures.
•  Ramanuja is also credited with establishing the correct procedures for rituals performed in temples throughout India, the most famous being Tirumala and Srirangam.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: He is known for his Sri Vaishnavism ideology and is the main proponent of the Vishishtadvaita subschool of Vedanta.
•  According to Vishishtadvaita philosophy (or qualified monism), Brahman is eternal, but also includes elements of plurality. The soul, or the Self, and the material world both exist only through Brahman. Unlike some Hindu philosophies, Vishishtadvaita doesn't see the world as simply an illusion, which would make it separate from Brahman. The material world is a part of Brahman's nature.
•  Moksha, or spiritual liberation, is seen as the joy of contemplating Brahman (rather than release from the life-death-rebirth cycle), and that joy is the result of devotion, praise, worship and contemplating divine perfection.
•  Statement 4 is correct: Ramanuja was an advocate of social equality among all sections of people centuries ago, and encouraged temples to open their doors to everyone irrespective of caste or position in society at a time when people of many castes were forbidden from entering them.
•  He took education to those who were deprived of it. His greatest contribution is the propagation of the concept of “vasudhaiva kutumbakam”, which translates as “all the universe is one family”.
•  He travelled across India for several decades, propagating his ideas of social equality and universal brotherhood from temple podiums. He embraced the socially marginalised and condemned, and asked royal courts to treat them as equals.
•  He spoke of universal salvation through devotion to God, compassion, humility, equality, and mutual respect, which is known as Sri Vaishnavam Sampradaya.

75.    Consider the following statements:
1. Sandfish is naturally found in India only.
2. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
S1:Sandfish are migratory freshwater fish found only in South Africa that can grow to over half a metre in length. They help to keep the rivers clean and the food web balanced.
S2: The Asiatic lion’s range is restricted to the Gir National Park and environs in the Indian state of Gujarat.
S3:The one-horned rhinoceros is native to the Indian subcontinent (not only India). The Indian rhinoceros once ranged throughout the entire stretch of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, but excessive hunting and agricultural development reduced their range drastically to 11 sites in northern India and southern Nepal.

76.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Santali language’:
1. It is widely spoken by Munda Tribe.
2. It was added in the 8^th schedule of the constitution through the 71^st Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. Ol chiki is recognized as a Santali script.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution: It was added in the 8th schedule of the constitution through the 92^nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Enrich your learning:
Santali language
It is the most widely spoken language of the Munda subfamily of the Austroasiatic languages.
It is spoken mainly in the Indian states of Assam, Bihar, Jharkhand, Mizoram, Odisha, Tripura, and West Bengal.
92nd Amendment Act, 2003 added Santali language to the Eighth Schedule.
It is spoken by around 7.6 million people in India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal, making it the third most-spoken Austroasiatic language after Vietnamese and Khmer.
It was mainly oral language until the development of Ol Chiki.
Ol Chiki is alphabetic, sharing none of the syllabic properties of the other Indic scripts.
Ol Chiki as a Santali script is widely accepted among Santal communities.

77.    Consider the following statements:
1. Section 69A of the IT Act empowers the government to restrict access to any content.
2. All directions to restrict information or content in circulation must be recorded in writing.
3. Content blocked in social media must follow legislations that should be read under the purview of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 and 2 only
b.  1 and 3 only
c.  2 and 3 only
d.  1, 2 and 3
Answer : d
The legality behind blocking content
Section 69A of the IT Act empowers the government to restrict access to any content in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of the country, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states, or for public order.
All directions to restrict information or content in circulation must be recorded in writing.
Social media intermediaries failing to comply with the regulations are liable to be monetarily penalized along with an imprisonment term which may extend up to seven years.
The procedures for executing the provisions of the act are enlisted in the Information Technology (Procedure and Safeguards for Blocking for Access of Information by Public) Rules, 2009.
It entails that a government-designated officer along with an examination committee assesses the content in question within 48 hours of receiving the takedown request.
It must enable an opportunity for the author or originator of the content to provide clarifications.
The recommendations are then sent to the Secretary of the Dept of Information Technology for approval to forward a request to the social media intermediary for restricting access.
Emergency provisions stipulate that the clarification be sought after the content has been blocked for specified reasons but within 48 hours.
They can be revoked after due examination.
Internet advocacy groups have been particularly critical of Rule 16 which suggests strict confidentiality be maintained on all requests and actions taken thereof — often attributed to being the cause for lack of transparency.
The mentioned legislations are to be read under the purview of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guaranteeing freedom of speech and expression.
However, Clause 2 of the article permits the state to impose reasonable restrictions for the same reasons as those for Section 69A.

78.    Which one of the following best describes the main objective of 'Seed Village Concept'?
(a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from others
(b) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost
(c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds
(d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in village and providing them technology and finance to set up seed companies
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 Only
- 2 Only
- 3 Only
- 4 Only
In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the
- Essential Commodities Act, 1955
- Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States
- Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937
- Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973
Explanation
The correct answer is the Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States.
Key Points
Agricultural Produce Market Committee:
• Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) under the State Government regulates the notified agricultural produce and livestock.
• Agriculture is a State subject under Schedule 7 of the Indian Constitution.
• The whole geographical area in the State is divided and declared as a market area (Yard Mandis) wherein the markets are managed by the Market Committees constituted by the State Governments.
• Once a particular area is declared a market area and falls under the jurisdiction of a Market Committee, no person or agency is allowed freely to carry on wholesale marketing activities.
• Buyers, too, need to obtain individual licenses from each APMC to transact.
• It is a part of government policy toward food security, remunerative prices to farmers, and fair prices to consumers.
Important Points
Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955
• The ECA has been used by the Government to regulate the production, supply, and distribution of a whole host of commodities it declares ‘essential to make them available to consumers at fair prices.

79.    Which of the following statements is/are correct about Sherpa?
1. A sherpa is the personal representative of a head of state or government who prepares an international summit.
2. The sherpa is generally quite influential and have the authority to make a final decision about given agreement.
3. India will hold the presidency of the G-20 from 1 December 2022 to 30 November 2023
Select the correct code:
a.1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer : b
Sherpa
A sherpa is the personal representative of a head of state or government who prepares an international summit, especially annual G7 and G20 summits.
This reduces the amount of time and resources required at the negotiations of the heads of state.
The sherpa is quite influential, although they do not have the authority to make a final decision about any given agreement.
India will hold the G20 Presidency from 1 December 2022 to 30 November 2023. G20 comprises of the world's major developed and developing economies, accounting for 85% of global GDP, 75% of international trade and two-thirds of the world population, making it the premier forum for international economic cooperation.

80.    ‘Sir Creek dispute” sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
- A. India and Nepal
- B. India and Pakistan
- C. India and China
- D. Israel and Palestine
Answer: B
Sol:
What is Sir Creek?
•  Sir Creek is a 96-km strip of water disputed between India and Pakistan in the Rann of Kutch marshlands.
•  The Creek opens up in the Arabian Sea and roughly divides the Kutch region of Gujarat from the Sindh Province of Pakistan.
What's the dispute?
•  The dispute lies in the interpretation of the maritime boundary line between Kutch and Sindh.
•  The dispute goes back to 1908 between the ruler of Kutch and the British authorities in Sindh.
•  In 1914, the government of Bombay province took up the resolution of the dispute and gave an award where on the map attached they indicated that the boundary lay along the eastern bank of the creek, called the Green Line, now claimed by Pakistan.
•  But the actual text of the decision seemed to suggest that the boundary was through the middle of the creek, as per the international law's 'Thalweg principle'.
•  The Thalweg principle defines the border between two states separated by a watercourse or flowing body of water as lying along the thalweg, which is the line of greatest depth of the channel or watercourse.
War in 1965 and tribunal
•  After Pakistan’s and India’s independence in 1947, the creek was physically noted as the border between India and Pakistan but no formal resolution of the 1914 map’s ambiguity was determined.
•  The war of 1965 between India and Pakistan over various territorial differences also involved the Kutch region. Subsequently, both countries agreed to take the matter to the International Court of Justice, which issued a ruling in 1968 favoring 90 percent of India’s claim to the salt marsh (i.e., the Rann of Kutch) but excluded a mention of Sir Creek itself, thus leading to an uncertain outcome regarding its status.
•  Since 1969, 12 rounds of talks have been held over the issue of Sir Creek, but both sides have denied reaching any solution.
What's the importance of Sir Creek?
•  Apart from strategic location, Sir Creek's core importance is fishing resources. Sir Creek is considered to be among the largest fishing grounds in Asia.
•  It is also significant for the possible presence of oil and gas concentration under the sea.

81.    Which of the following are the conditions that must be fulfilled in order to be eligible as a Startup as per the Startup India Action plan?
1.  It should not be formed by splitting up or reconstructing a business already in existence.
2.  It should be working towards innovation, development or improvement of products or processes. or services, or if it is a scalable business model with a high potential of employment generation or wealth creation.
3.  It should not have completed a period of ten years from the date of incorporation/registration.
4.  It should have an annual turnover not exceeding Rs. 1000 crore for any of the financial years since incorporation/registration.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Sol:
•  As per the Startup India Action plan, the followings conditions must be fulfilled in order to be eligible as Startup :
o  Has not yet completed a period of ten years from the date of incorporation/registration.
o  Is a private limited company or registered as a partnership firm or a limited liability partnership.
o  Has an annual turnover not exceeding Rs. 100 crore for any of the financial years since incorporation/registration.
o  Is working towards innovation, development or improvement of products or processes or services, or if it is a scalable business model with a high potential of employment generation or wealth creation.
o  It is not formed by splitting up or reconstructing a business already in existence.

82.    The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World is an annual flagship report jointly prepared which of the following?
1. Food and Agriculture Organization
2. International Fund for Agriculture Development
3. World Resources Institute
4. UN world food Programme
5. World Health Organization
Select the correct answer using the code below:
 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
 (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World is an annual flagship report jointly prepared by Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD), the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), the World Food Programme (WFP) and the World Health Organization (WHO).

83.    Supercomputing play an important role in which of the following fields?
1. Quantum mechanics
2. Weather forecasting
3. Genomics
4. Oil and gas exploration
5. Drug discovery
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2, 3, 4
 2) 2, 3, 4, 5
 c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
 d) 1, 3, 4, 5
Solution: c)
Supercomputers are used for a wide range of computationally intensive tasks in various fields, including quantum mechanics, weather forecasting, flood prediction, climate research, oil and gas exploration, genomics and drug discovery.

84.    Which of the following best describes the term “Surrogate Advertisement”, sometimes seen in the news recently?
a.  The payment for advertisement is paid by the partner company
b.  The advertisement of goods in the shadow of other goods
c.  The advertisement which conveys social message to the citizens
d.  The advertisement made for surrogate mothers
Answer : b
Surrogate advertisement
Surrogate advertisement refers to the advertisement of goods in the shadow of other goods.
For example, the advertisement of tobacco in the garb of pan masala. Advertisement of tobacco as such is prohibited by the law.
While existing laws such as the Cigarettes and other Tobacco Products (Prohibition of Advertisement and Regulation of Trade and Commerce, Production, Supply, and Distribution) Act, 2003 already seeks to govern advertisements related to tobacco, manufacturers and advertisers have been able to circumvent the regulation through the grey area created by a surrogate advertisement.
The guidelines seek to ensure that these grey areas are filled by the black letter of the law, completely disallowing any attempts to advertise products that are otherwise prohibited by law.

85.    Teaser loan, sometimes seen in news means
 a) Loans provided to weaker sections of the society with interest rate below the repo rate.
 b) Loans provided to high net worth individuals.
 c) Loans which charge lower rates of interest in the first few years after which the rates are increased.
 d) Loans provided for priority sectors
Solution: c)
Teaser loans are those which charge comparatively lower rates of interest in the first few years after which the rates are increased.

86.    Consider the following statements regarding transgenic crop.
1. In India there is no commercial cultivation of transgenic crops.
2. Transgenic crops can bring new gene combinations which are not found in nature.
3. Transgenic crops are more toxic and can highly proliferate in the environment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 2 only
 b) 1 and 2 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
Plant genetic engineering methods were developed over 30 years ago, and since then, genetically modified (GM) crops or transgenic crops have become commercially available and widely adopted in many countries.
In India, Bt cotton was approved by Government of India in March 2002 as the first transgenic crop for commercial cultivation.
Though, it is widely claimed that transgenic crops offers dramatic promise for meeting some of greatest challenges but like all new technologies, it also poses certain risks, because of the fact that transgenic crops can bring together new gene combinations which are not found in nature having possible harmful effects on health, environmental and non-target species.
Transgenic crops are not toxic nor are likely to proliferate in the environment. However, specific crops may be harmful by virtue of novel combinations of traits they possess.

87.    Consider the following statements regarding Tribunals.
1. The idea of a National Tribunals Commission was first mooted by the Supreme Court in Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997).
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976 embedded tribunals as an integral part of the justice delivery mechanism in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976 embedded tribunals as an integral part of the justice delivery mechanism in India.
Since then, specialised tribunals have been set up in a wide range of sectors both under union as well as state laws.
The introduction of Articles 323A and 323B into the Constitution of India has successfully embedded tribunals as an integral part of the justice delivery mechanism in the country.
The Supreme Court has repeatedly called for the establishment of a national tribunals commission to make suitable appointments and evaluate the functioning of tribunals.
The idea of a National Tribunals Commission was first mooted by the Supreme Court in Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997).
The objective of National Tribunals Commission is envisaged to be an independent umbrella body to supervise the functioning of tribunals, appointment of and disciplinary proceedings against members, and to take care of administrative and infrastructural needs of the tribunals.

88.    Consider the following statements:
1. Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacteria.
2. TB can spread from person to person through the air.
3. TB is a treatable and curable disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) that most often affect the lungs. Tuberculosis is curable and preventable.
TB is spread from person to person through the air. When people with lung TB cough, sneeze or spit, they propel the TB germs into the air. A person needs to inhale only a few of these germs to become infected.

89.    Consider the following statements with reference to Tuberculosis:
1. It is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
2. Women Winning Against TB was organized by the Ministry of Health and Family welfare.
3. Under Nikshay Poshan Yojana, Government is providing Rs 1000 to enable a nutritious diet for TB patients.
4. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare developed a national framework for a gender-responsive approach to TB in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution:
Women Winning Against TB was organized by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Under Nikshay Poshan Yojana, Government is providing Rs 500 to enable a nutritious diet for TB patients.
Enrich your learning:
Tuberculosis
It is a potentially serious infectious disease that mainly affects the lungs.
It is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
It is curable and preventable.
The bacteria that cause tuberculosis are spread from person to person through tiny droplets released into the air via coughs and sneezes.
In India, the TB case fatality ratio increased from 17 percent in 2019 to 20 percent in 2020.
The Health Ministry-Central TB Division developed a national framework for a gender-responsive approach to TB in India.
In December 2021, a parliamentary conference on ‘Women Winning Against TB’ was organized by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Under Nikshay Poshan Yojana, the government has effectively provided a monthly benefit of Rs 500 to enable a nutritious diet for TB patients.
Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) remains a public health crisis and a health security threat.
Why in News?
According to a joint report (2010-13) of the Registrar General of India and the Centre for Global Health Research, TB was the fifth-leading cause of death among women in India.

90.    Which of these countries border Turkey?
1. Greece
2. Bulgaria
3. Israel
4. Syria
Choose the correct option.
a.  1, 2 and 3 only
b.  2, 3 and 4 only
c.  1, 2 and 4 only
d.  1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : c
Turkey

91.    The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
- A. China - B. Israel
- C. Iraq     - D. Yemen
Answer: B
Sol:
Israel-Palestine conflict
•  Britain took control of the area known as Palestine after the ruler of that part of the Middle East, the Ottoman Empire, was defeated in World War 1.
•  The land was inhabited by a Jewish minority and Arab majority.
•  Tensions between the two peoples grew when the international community gave Britain the task of establishing a "national home" in Palestine for Jewish people.
•  For Jews, it was their ancestral home, but Palestinian Arabs also claimed the land and opposed the move.
•  Between the 1920s and 40s, the number of Jews arriving there grew, with many fleeing from persecution in Europe and seeking a homeland after the Holocaust of WWII. Violence between Jews and Arabs, and against British rule, also grew.
•  In 1947, the UN voted for Palestine to be split into separate Jewish and Arab states, with Jerusalem becoming an international city.
•  That plan was accepted by Jewish leaders but rejected by the Arab side and never implemented.
The creation of Israel and the 'Catastrophe'
•  In 1948, unable to solve the problem, British rulers left and Jewish leaders declared the creation of the state of Israel.
•  Many Palestinians objected and a war followed. Troops from neighbouring Arab countries invaded. Hundreds of thousands of Palestinians fled or were forced out of their homes in what they call Al Nakba, or the "Catastrophe".
•  By the time the fighting ended in a ceasefire the following year, Israel controlled most of the territory. Jordan occupied land which became known as the West Bank, and Egypt occupied Gaza.
•  Jerusalem was divided between Israeli forces in the West, and Jordanian forces in the East.
•  Because there was never a peace agreement - each side blamed the other - there were more wars and fighting in the decades which followed.
•  In another war in 1967, Israel occupied East Jerusalem and the West Bank, as well as most of the Syrian Golan Heights, and Gaza and the Egyptian Sinai peninsula.
•  Most Palestinian refugees and their descendants live in Gaza and the West Bank, as well as in neighbouring Jordan, Syria and Lebanon.
•  Neither they nor their descendants have been allowed by Israel to return to their homes - Israel says this would overwhelm the country and threaten its existence as a Jewish state.
•  Israel still occupies the West Bank, and although it pulled out of Gaza the UN still regards that piece of land as part of occupied territory.
•  Israel claims the whole of Jerusalem as its capital, while the Palestinians claim East Jerusalem as the capital of a future Palestinian state. The US is one of only a handful of countries to recognise Israel's claim to the whole of the city.
•  In the past 50 years Israel has built settlements in these areas, where more than 600,000 Jews now live.
•  Palestinians say these are illegal under international law and are obstacles to peace, but Israel denies this.
What's happening now?
•  Gaza is ruled by the Palestinian militant group Hamas, which has fought Israel many times. Israel and Egypt tightly control Gaza's borders to stop weapons getting to Hamas.
•  Palestinians in Gaza and the West Bank say they're suffering because of Israeli actions and restrictions. Israel say it is only acting to protect itself from Palestinian violence.
•  Things have escalated since the start of the holy Muslim month of Ramadan in mid-April 2021, with nightly clashes between police and Palestinians.
•  The threatened eviction of some Palestinian families in East Jerusalem has also caused rising anger.
What are the main problems?
•  There are a number of issues which Israel and the Palestinians cannot agree on.
•  These include what should happen to Palestinian refugees, whether Jewish settlements in the occupied West Bank should stay or be removed, whether the two sides should share Jerusalem, and - perhaps most tricky of all - whether a Palestinian state should be created alongside Israel.
•  Peace talks have been taking place on and off for more than 25 years, but so far have not solved the conflict.
What does the future hold?
•  The UN and majority of the countries are pushing for the “two-state solution” to the Israeli–Palestinian conflict. Its basis is two separate states, Israel and Palestine, living peacefully side by side on the land between the western bank of the Jordan river and the Mediterranean Sea.
•  This territory would be divided broadly along the pre-1967 armistice line or “green line”. Jerusalem, which both sides want as their capital, would be shared.
•  Past negotiations have failed to make progress and there are currently no fresh talks in prospect.

92.    Which of the following have been inscribed on UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
1.  Yoga
2.  Kumbh Mela
3.  Bharatanatyam
4.  Durga Puja in Kolkata
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Sol:
UNESCO List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity
•  According to UNESCO, cultural heritage does not end at monuments and collections of objects, but also includes traditions or living expressions inherited from our ancestors and passed on to our descendants, such as oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, festive events, knowledge and practices concerning nature and the universe or the knowledge and skills to produce traditional crafts.
•  UNESCO established its Lists of Intangible Cultural Heritage with the aim of ensuring better protection of such important intangible cultural heritages worldwide and the awareness of their significance.
•  The list was established in 2008 when the 2003 Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage took effect.
•  The following 14 traditional-cultural elements of India have been added into this list:
o  Tradition of Vedic chanting
o  Ramlila, the traditional performance of the Ramayana
o  Kutiyattam, Sanskrit theatre
o  Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas
o  Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala
o  Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan
o  Chhau dance of Eastern India
o  Buddhist chanting of Ladakh
o  Sankirtana, ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur
o  Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab
o  Yoga
o  Nawrouz
o  Kumbh Mela
o  Durga Puja in Kolkata

93.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)’:
1. It is a statutory authority under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. It was established under the provision of the Aadhar act.
3. Its vision is to empower residents of India with a unique identity and a digital platform to authenticate anytime, anywhere.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only       b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only       d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution: It is a statutory authority under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Enrich your learning:
Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
It is a statutory authority under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
It was established under the provisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (“Aadhaar Act 2016”).
It was created to issue Unique Identification numbers (UID), named as "Aadhaar", to all residents of India.
Earlier, it was functioning as an attached office of the then Planning Commission.
Vision: To empower residents of India with a unique identity and a digital platform to authenticate anytime, anywhere.
Mission
To provide for good governance, efficient, transparent, and targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits, and services, the expenditure for which is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India or the Consolidated Fund of State to residents of India through assigning of unique identity numbers.
To develop policy, procedure, and system for issuing Aadhaar numbers to residents of India, who request for same by submitting their demographic information and biometric information by undergoing the process of enrolment.
To develop policy, procedure, and systems for Aadhaar holders for updating and authenticating their digital identity.
Ensure availability, scalability, and resilience of the technology infrastructure.
Build a long-term sustainable organization to carry forward the vision and values of the UIDAI.
To ensure security and confidentiality of identity information and authentication records of individuals.
To ensure compliance with Aadhaar Act by all individuals and agencies in letter and spirit.
To make regulations & rules consistent with the Aadhaar Act, for carrying out the provisions of the Aadhaar Act.
Why in News?
The UIDAI and government departments are set to allow for changes to other documents, such as PAN, once user revises address in Aadhaar.

94.    Consider the following statements regarding Permanent Observers to the United Nations.
1. Only Member States of the United Nations can apply for the status of Permanent Observer.
2. The status of a Permanent Observer is based purely on practice, and there are no provisions for it in the United Nations Charter.
3. Permanent Observers have free access to most meetings and relevant documentation of UNGA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only              b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 1 and 3 only      d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
Non-Member States of the United Nations, which are members of one or more specialized agencies, can apply for the status of Permanent Observer. The status of a Permanent Observer is based purely on practice, and there are no provisions for it in the United Nations Charter.
Permanent Observers have free access to most meetings and relevant documentation.
Many regional and international organizations are also observers in the work and annual sessions of the General Assembly.

95.    Which Indian city has been selected as the first Cultural and Tourism Capital of SCO for 2022-23? Varanasi
The city of Varanasi will be declared the first Cultural and Tourism Capital of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
Varanasi will become the Capital of SCO for 2022-23 under a new rotating initiative by the eight-member organisation, which aims to promote people-to-people contacts and tourism among the member states.

96.    Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Vishaka guidelines’:
1. There should be an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch with 10 or more employees.
2. It makes mandatory for all organizations to set up a complaint redressal committee.
3. The Sexual Harassment of women at the workplace (prevention, prohibition, and redressal) Act, 2013 replaced these guidelines.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: All the statements are correct.
Enrich your learning:
Vishaka Guidelines
The guidelines were laid down by Supreme Court in a judgment in 1997.
Vishakha and others v State of Rajasthan (1997): A women’s rights group named Vishaka filed public interest litigation over the alleged gang rape of a social worker from Rajasthan.
The guidelines were legally binding.
It defines sexual harassment as an unwanted sexual determination that is directly or impliedly intended to cause the following:
Physical contact or advances.
A demand or request for sexual favours.
Sexually coloured remarks.
Showing pornography.
Any other unwelcome conduct whether it is physical, verbal, or non-verbal.
It imposed three key obligations on institutions — prohibition, prevention, redress.
Objective: To protect the rights of all women working or visiting any workplace, in any capacity.
It directed that they should establish an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch with 10 or more employees.
Mandate: it would look into matters of sexual harassment of women at the workplace.
It lays down the obligation of the employer to file a complaint if the conduct towards an employee amount to a criminal offence that is punishable under the Indian Penal Code.
It makes mandatory for all organizations to set up a complaint redressal committee.
It is the duty of the employer to spread awareness in his organization with regard to matters pertaining to sexual harassment and the safety of women.
These were later on replaced by the Sexual Harassment of women at the workplace (prevention, prohibition, and redressal) Act, 2013.

97.    Which is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
- Recently discovered uranium deposits
- Tropical rain forests
- Underground cave systems
- Water reservoirs
The correct answer is Water reservoirs.
Key Points
• Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are the names which have water reservoir common to them.
○ The Aliyar reservoir is a reservoir located in Aliyar village near Pollachi town in Coimbatore district of Tamil Nadu. The dam is located in the Anaimalai Hills of the Western Ghats.
○ The Isapur Dam is an earth-fill dam on the Penganga river in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra.
○ The Kangsabati Reservoir Project was started in 1956 as part of the Indian Second Five-year Plan to provide water in the districts of Midnapur, Bankura, and Hooghly. It involves irrigation of land using water from the Kangsabati River, as well as the Shilabati and the Bhoirobbanki rivers.

98.    Consider the following statements regarding Whale sharks.
1. Whale sharks are the largest fish in the sea.
2. They feed on plankton and travel large distances to find enough food to sustain their huge size, and to reproduce.
3. They are mainly found in the temperate oceans of the world.
4. They are easily distinguished by their white spotted colouration.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2                   b) 1, 2, 3
 c) 1, 2, 4               d) 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
Whale sharks (Rhincodon typus) are the largest shark, and indeed largest of any fishes alive today. They feed on plankton and travel large distances to find enough food to sustain their huge size, and to reproduce. Whale sharks are found in all the tropical oceans of the world. Their white spotted colouration makes these gentle giants easy to distinguish, and popular with snorkelers and divers at sites where they aggregate off the coast.
 

99.    Consider the following statements regarding Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price Index(CPI).
1. WPI pertains to only goods, not services.
2. WPI captures the average movement of wholesale prices of goods and is primarily used as a GDP deflator.
3. WPI has a higher weight of manufactured goods and the CPI has a greater constitution of food items.
4. RBI considers WPI as the main metric for the purpose of setting monetary policy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2 and 3 only              b) 1 and 3 only
 c) 1, 3 and 4 only              d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Solution: a)
While the Consumer Price Index-based retail inflation — the more widely tracked policy tool — looks at the price at which the consumer buys goods, the WPI tracks prices at the wholesale, or factory gate/mandi levels. Between the wholesale price and the retail price, the difference essentially is the former only tracks basic prices devoid of transportation cost, taxes and the retail margin etc. And that WPI pertains to only goods, not services.
So, the WPI basically captures the average movement of wholesale prices of goods and is primarily used as a GDP deflator (the ratio of the value of goods an economy produces in a particular year at current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year).
In recent years, the WPI and CPI have shown a degree of dissonance, given that the WPI has a higher weight of manufactured goods and the CPI has a greater constitution of food items.
WPI numbers are not the RBI’s main metric for the purpose of setting monetary policy.

100. What is the rate of inflation based on All-India Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in June 2022? 15.18 %
The rate of inflation based on All-India Wholesale Price Index (WPI) number is 15.18% for the month of June, 2022 (over June, 2021).
This is lower than the WPI number of 15.88% in May 2022. The high rate of inflation this month is primarily due to rise in prices of mineral oils, food articles, crude petroleum & natural gas, basic metals, chemicals & chemical products, food products etc.

 

Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)