Daily Current Affairs Questions August 2022 Part 2

 

Daily Current Affairs Questions

August 2022 Part 2

Why in News

1.       Aircraft Carriers

2.       Anthrax

3.       Apollo 11 mission

4.       Bandung Principles

5.       Banni Grasslands

6.       Bonn Challenge

7.       BRICS countries

8.       Comity of Courts

9.       Coronal Mass Ejections

10.     Criminal investigation

11.     Critical Wildlife Habitat

12.     Cyanobacteria

13.     Donbas region

14.     Eastern coast of Africa

15.     Economic Advisory Council

16.     Electoral bonds

17.     Enforcement Directorate (ED)

18.     Environment Protection Act of 1986’

19.     Fields Medal

20.     Financial Services Institutional Bureau (FSIB)

21.     Floating agriculture

22.     Food Corporation of India (FCI)

23.     Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act

24.     Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act

25.     Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Act

26.     Foreign Portfolio Investment’

27.     Forex market

28.     Fully Accessible Route (FAR)

29.     Geological Survey of India (GSI)

30.     Global Assessment Report on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services

31.     GloLitter Partnerships Project’

32.     Goods and Services Tax (GST)

33.     GST council

34.     Handcuffed

35.     Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI).

36.     India’s external debt

37.     Indian and Nepal

38.     Indian Coast Guard

39.     Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS)

40.     Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC)

41.     ITHACA

42.     Kai

43.     Kessler Syndrome

44.     Konark Sun temple

45.     Ladakh

46.     Large Hadron Collider

47.     Large Hadron Collider (LHC)

48.     Lithium

49.     Mahuli temples

50.     Maitri Setu

51.     Maneka Gandhi versus Union of India case (1978)

52.     Mediterranean coast

53.     Mediterranean Sea

54.     Mid-Day meal scheme

55.     Money Bill

56.     Mukurthi National Park

57.     National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED),

58.     National Education Policy

59.     National Education Policy 2020(NEP)

60.     National Food Security Act,

61.     National Investigation Agency

62.     National Investigation Agency

63.     National Investigation Agency (NIA)

64.     National Investigation Agency (NIA)

65.     National Landslide Susceptibility Mapping

66.     Nitrogen oxides

67.     Ocean Conference

68.     Ocean Conference 2022

69.     Off-budget borrowing

70.     On tap licensing

71.     One Sun One World One Grid

72.     Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act,

73.     Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII)

74.     PENCiL portal

75.     Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules

76.     PM Formalisation of Micro Food processing enterprise (PMFME) Scheme

77.     Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)

78.     POSHAN Abhiyaan

79.     POSHAN Abhiyaan

80.     Pulverized Coal Injection (PCI)

81.     Race to Zero

82.     Rampa Rebellion

83.     Reservation

84.     Rivers

85.     Saharia tribe

86.     Sample Registration System (SRS)

87.     Sarna Religion

88.     Sawfish

89.     Shanghai Co-operation Organization (SCO)

90.     Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary

91.     single-use plastic (SUP).

92.     Small savings schemes

93.     Snake Island

94.     Space Station

95.     Space Tourism Industry

96.     Speaker of the legislative assembly

97.     Startup Ecosystems

98.     Strait of Gibraltar

99.     Stunting

100.  Tamil Sangam literature

 

 

 

1.       Consider the following pairs regarding Active Aircraft Carriers with their respective countries:
Match 1                            Match 2
1.  INS Vikramaditya         India
2.  Fujian                          Japan
3.  USS Nimitz                  USA
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A 1 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
INS Vikramaditya is the Indian Navy’s largest aircraft carrier and warship, it is a modified Kiev-class aircraft carrier that was commissioned into service in November 2013. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Recently, China unveiled its new-generation aircraft carrier named Fujian (Type 003), the third aircraft carrier of the Chinese navy, and its more technologically advanced than its predecessors. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
USS NIMITZ is the lead ship of the U.S. Navy's Nimitz-class nuclear-powered aircraft carriers. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option B is correct.

2.       Consider the following statements regarding Anthrax.
1. Flies also appear to play a significant role in explosive outbreaks of the disease.
2. People with cuts or scrapes in the skin can get infected with anthrax.
3. One way to prevent the disease is by vaccination of livestock so that the disease cannot spread.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
 How do animals get Anthrax?
Domestic and wild animals can get infected when they breathe in or ingest spores in contaminated soil, plants or water.
Host animals shed the bacteria into the ground, which sporulates when exposed to the air. These spores, which can persist in the soil for decades, wait to be taken up by another host, subsequently germinating and multiplying, leading to its spread. Flies also appear to play a significant role in explosive outbreaks of the disease, as per the WHO.
 How do humans get infected?
Humans almost always contract the disease directly or indirectly from animals or animal products.
 People get infected with anthrax when spores enter the body, through breathing, eating contaminated food or drinking contaminated water, or through cuts or scrapes in the skin. The spores then get “activated” and multiply, spreading across the body, producing toxins and causing severe illness.
 How can it be treated?
Antibiotic therapy that is administered early in the course of the infection has been proven to be responsive, according to the WHO. Penicillin has long been the antibiotic of choice and in recent years, ciprofloxacin and doxycycline have also been used as alternatives.
One way to prevent the disease is by vaccination of livestock so that the disease cannot spread. There are also vaccines for humans, but their availability is usually restricted to at-risk individuals, such as lab workers and people who handle animals.

3.       Apollo 11 mission is related to
 a) Electrodynamics of Moon’s Interaction with the Sun
 b) Explore the dark side of the Moon
 c) First manned mission to the Moon.
 d) Collect data on the moon’s radiation levels
Solution: c)
Apollo 11 became one of the most publicly recognised missions of NASA and was the first manned mission to the Moon.

4.       The Bandung Principles is related to
A.  Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
B.  BRICS
C.  G 20
D.  Non-Aligned Movement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ]
Sol:
•  The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was officially founded in 1961, at the Belgrade Summit, drawing on the principles (also known as Bandung Principles) agreed at the Afro-Asian Conference held in Bandung, Indonesia  in 1955.
•  Such principles were adopted later as the main goals and objectives of the policy of non-alignment. The fulfillment of those principles became the essential criterion for Non-Aligned Movement membership.
•  The ten principles of Bandung are followings:
o  Respect of fundamental human rights and of the objectives and principles of the Charter of the United Nations.
o  Respect for the sovereignty and territorial integrity of all nations.
o  Recognition of the equality among all races and of the equality among all nations, both large and small.
o  Non-intervention or non-interference into the internal affairs of another -country.
o  Respect the right of every nation to defend itself, either individually or collectively, in conformity with the Charter of the United Nations.
o  Non-use of collective defense pacts to benefit the specific interests of any of the great powers.
 B. Non-use of pressures by any country against other countries.
o  Refraining from carrying out or threatening to carry out aggression, or from using force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any country.
o  Peaceful solution of all international conflicts in conformity with the Charter of the United Nations.
o  Promotion of mutual interests and of cooperation.
o  Respect of justice and of international obligations.

5.       ‘Banni Grasslands’ seen in news is found in
 a) Odisha
 b) Meghalaya
 c) Gujarat
 d) Uttarakhand
Solution(c)
Banni Grasslands Reserve or Banni grasslands form a belt of arid grassland ecosystem on the outer southern edge of the desert of the marshy salt flats of Rann of Kutch in Kutch District, Gujarat State, India. Banni grassland is peculiar to the Rann of Kutch, it has some forty Sindhi speaking Maldhari (cattle breeders) hamlets, home to the Halaypotra, Hingora, Hingorja, Jat and Mutwa tribes.
Context – Gujarat plans on restoring Banni grassland which is a high-biodiversity area.

6.       Consider the following statements.
1. 2021 to 2030 has been declared as the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration for improving environmental conditions and enhancing human communities.
2. India has joined the Bonn Challenge with a pledge to restore its entire degraded and deforested land by 2030.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Despite various international conventions and national policies in place to improve green cover, there is a decline in global forest cover. This is the prime reason for forest restoration activities including tree planting to become increasingly popular and declaring 2021-2030 as the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration for improving environmental conditions and enhancing human communities.
India joined the Bonn Challenge with a pledge to restore 21 MHA of degraded and deforested land which was later revised to 26 MHA to be restored by 2030. The first-ever country progress report under the Bonn Challenge submitted by India by bringing 9.8 million hectares since 2011 under restoration is an achievement.

7.       Consider the following statements:
1.  All the BRICS countries are also members of the G-20.
2.  South Africa is the only country from the African continent to be part of the G
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
 Sol:     
•  Founded in 1999, the Group of Twenty (G20) is the premier forum for its members’ international economic cooperation and decision-making.
•  The G20 comprises Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, European Union, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, UK and USA.
•  Statement 1 is correct: BRICS member states- Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa- are also part of the G20.
•  G7 countries include Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States. They are all part of the G20 grouping.
•  Statement 2 is correct: South Africa is the only country from African continent to be part of the G-20.
•  The objectives of the G20 are:
o  Policy coordination between its members in order to achieve global economic stability, sustainable growth;
o  To promote financial regulations that reduce risks and prevent future financial crises; and
o  To create a new international financial architecture.

8.       The doctrine ‘comity of Courts’ enables the courts:
a) of one state to give effect the laws of another state.
b) of one state to prohibit the laws of another state.
c) to issue an arrest warrant to foreigners.
d) to protects the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution: The doctrine of ‘Comity of Courts’ implies that the courts of one state or jurisdiction will give effect to the laws and decisions of another.
Enrich your learning:
Comity of Courts
It is the principle in accordance with which the courts of one state or jurisdiction will give effect to the laws and decisions of another, not as a matter of obligation, but out of deference and respect.
It is essentially a principle of self-restraint.
It is contained in Sections 13 and 44-A of the Civil Procedure Court, 1908.

9.       Consider the following statements regarding ‘Coronal Mass Ejections’:
1. They are powerful eruptions on the sun’s surface.
2. It can severely disrupt electrical systems and produce brilliant auroral displays.
3. They are caused by instabilities in the sun’s magnetic field.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: All the statements are correct.
Enrich your learning:
Coronal Mass Ejections
It is a significant release of plasma and accompanying magnetic field from the Sun's corona into the solar wind.
They can eject billions of tonnes of coronal material and carry an embedded magnetic field (frozen in flux) that is stronger than the background solar wind interplanetary magnetic field (IMF) strength.
If a CME enters interplanetary space, it is referred to as an interplanetary coronal mass ejection (ICME).
They are capable of reaching and colliding with Earth's magnetosphere, where they can cause geomagnetic storms, aurorae, and in rare cases damage to electrical power grids.
They travel outward from the Sun at speeds ranging from slower than 250 km per second (km/s) to as fast as near 3,000 km/s.

10.    Which of the following technologies are used in the criminal investigation in India without the consent of the accused?
1. Polygraph
2. Narco-analysis
3. Brain mapping
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2, 3
 c) 3 only
 d) None of the above
Solution: d)
Given the problem of custodial deaths, technology has been proposed as a silver bullet by many. Several technological solutions are available to help prevent custodial deaths. These include body cameras and automated external defibrillators. There is no doubt that technology can help avert police custodial deaths. For example, body cameras could hold officers liable. Deception detection tests (DDTs), which deploy technologies such as polygraph, narco-analysis and brain mapping, could be valuable in learning information that is known only to a criminal regarding a crime.
Among the DDTs, the Brain Fingerprinting System (BFS) is an innovative technology that several police forces contemplate adding to their investigative tools.
In 2010, the Supreme Court, in Selvi v. State of Karnataka, rendered the evidence inadmissible. The court observed that the state could not perform narco analysis, polygraph, and brain-mapping tests on any individual without their consent.

11.    Consider the following statements:
1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 1, 3 only
 (c) 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018

12.    Consider the following statements regarding Cyanobacteria.
1. Cyanobacteria are microscopic organisms commonly found in water and sometimes in soil.
2. Not all Cyanobacteria produce toxins.
3. Climate change and increasing global temperature is leading to cyanobacterial blooms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Cyanobacteria are microscopic organisms common in water and sometimes found in soil. Not all produce toxins but scientists say toxic ones are occurring more frequently as climate change drives up global temperatures.
Some cyanobacterial blooms can harm people and animals and scientists are concerned about their potential impact as climate change leads to warmer water temperatures, which many cyanobacteria prefer.

13.    ‘Donetsk and Luhansk’ are the two areas that together make up the ‘Donbas region’ on the border of which of the following countries?
 (a) China – Magnolia
 (b) Ukraine – Russia
 (c) Israel – Palestine
 (d) Bangladesh – Myanmar
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Donetsk and Luhansk are the two areas that together make up the Donbas region on the Ukraine-Russia border.
Donbas is a key industrial hub and important from a resource perspective having the largest coal reserves in Ukraine.
These two areas broke away from the Ukrainian government’s control back in 2014 and proclaimed themselves independent “people’s republics”. Donbas region also offers strategic advantages for Russia. By controlling the region, Russia intends to create a ‘land bridge’ to Crimea, a territory it annexed in 2014.
Access to the Black Sea and warm water ports in Crimea such as Sevastopol allows it to access important trade routes throughout the year.

14.    What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the countries in Eastern coast of Africa as one proceeds from South to North?
1. Mozambique
2. Tanzania
3. Kenya
4. Somalia
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 2-3-1-4
 b) 3-2-1-4
 c) 1-2-3-4
 d) 2-1-4-3
Solution: c)

15.    Consider the following statements:
1. Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is an independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
2. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) is an independent body constituted to give advice on economic and related issues to the Government of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.
At present, the composition of EAC-PM is: Dr. Bibek Debroy (Chairman), Shri Rakesh Mohan (Part-Time Member), Dr. Sajjid Chinoy (Part-Time Member), Dr. Neelkanth Mishra (Part-Time Member), Shri Nilesh Shah (Part-Time Member), Prof. T.T. Ram Mohan (Part-Time Member) and Dr. Poonam Gupta (Part-Time Member).
The Terms of Reference of EAC-PM include analyzing any issue, economic or otherwise, referred to it by the Prime Minister and advising him thereon, addressing issues of macroeconomic importance and presenting views thereon to the Prime Minister. These could be either suo-motu or on reference from the Prime Minister or anyone else. They also include attending to any other task as may be desired by the Prime Minister from time to time.

16.    With reference to electoral bonds, which one of the following statements is not correct?
A.  They can be purchased by any citizen of India or a body incorporated in India.
B.  Electoral bonds will not bear the name of the donor.
C.  Only political parties which secured no less than one per cent votes in the last Lok Sabha or State elections are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
D.  A company’s contribution cannot be more than 7.5% of its average net profit in the three preceding years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Sol:
•  An electoral bond is designed to be an interest-free bearer instrument like a Promissory Note — in effect, it will be similar to a bank note that is payable to the bearer on demand.
•  Statement A is correct: It can be purchased by any citizen of India or a body incorporated in India.
•  The electoral bonds were announced in the 2017 Union Budget.
•  The bonds will be issued in multiples of ₹1,000, ₹10,000, ₹1 lakh, ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore and will be available at specified branches of State Bank of India.
•  They can be bought by the donor with a KYC-compliant account.
 Features
•  The bonds will be available for purchase for a period of 10 days each in the beginning of every quarter, i.e. in January, April, July and October as specified by the Central Government.
•  Statement B is correct: The donor will remain anonymous. The electoral bonds will not bear the name of the donor. The intention is to ensure that all the donations made to a party will be accounted for in the balance sheets without exposing the donor details to the public.
•  Political parties are allotted a verified account by the Election Commission and all the electoral bond transactions are done through this account only.
•  Statement C is correct: Only political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 and have secured no less than one per cent votes in the last Lok Sabha or State elections are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
•  A donor will get tax deduction and the recipient, or the political party, will get tax exemption, provided returns are filed by the political party.
•  The information furnished by the buyer shall be treated confidential by the authorised bank and shall not be disclosed to any authority for any purposes, except when demanded by a competent court or upon registration of a criminal case by any law enforcement agency.
 Criticisms
•  The key critique is that, for something meant to bring transparency to the system, electoral bonds actually make political funding more opaque – but only for the public. Companies don’t have to say who they are donating money to and parties don’t need to say from whom they’re getting the cash.
•  Experts have said this undercuts the freedom of political information, which is an integral element of Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution (the free expression clause).
•  Statement D is incorrect: Prior to 2017, Companies Act, 2013, stipulated that a company can donate only up to 7.5% of its average profit of the last three years. Now, through the electoral bonds, there is no limit to the amount companies can donate, and the requirement for such firms to have existed for the last three years on a profit-making basis has also been deleted.
•  The implication is that even loss-making companies or shell companies can be used to purchase electoral bonds.
•  In 2016 and 2017, amendments were made to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010, with retrospective effect. Thus, enabling the Indian subsidiaries of foreign companies to make donations to political parties through electoral bonds.
•  This allows anonymous financing by foreign entities opening Indian elections to the influence of foreign interests.
•  The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Election Commission had both said the sale of electoral bonds had become an avenue for shell corporations and entities to park illicit money and even proceeds of bribes with political parties.
•  The Election Commission of India criticised electoral bonds saying it would wreck transparency in political funding and allow for unchecked foreign funding of Indian political parties.
•  However, the government defended the scheme, saying it allowed anonymity to political donors to protect them from “political victimisation”.

17.    Among the following Acts, an Enforcement Directorate (ED) in India will be most concerned with
 a) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
 b) Negotiable Instrument Act
 c) Prevention of Money Laundering Act
 d) Public Debt Act
Solution: c)
Enforcement Directorate (ED) is a law enforcement agency and economic intelligence agency responsible for enforcing economic laws and fighting economic crime in India. It is part of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
The prime objective of the Enforcement Directorate is the enforcement of two key Acts- the Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999 (FEMA) and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 (PMLA).

18.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Environment Protection Act of 1986’
1. The Act empowers the Central Government to lay down standards for the quality of the environment
2. The purpose of the Act is to implement the decisions of the United Nations Conference on the Environment and Development
3. The Act also provides for coordination of the activities of various central and state authorities established under Water Act and the Air Act
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 1, 2 and 3 only
 d) 1 and 3 only
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
Section 3 of the EPA, 1986, empowers the Central Government to lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources having regard to the quality or composition of the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from such sources.
Statement 2 Incorrect
The Act was passed by the Government of India under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, which empowers to union government to enact laws to give effect to international agreements signed by the country. The purpose of the Act is to implement the decisions of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment. UNCED took place in 1992.
Statement 3 Correct
The Act also provides for coordination of the activities of various central and state authorities established under other environment-related laws, such as the Water Act and the Air Act.
 Context – The Environment Ministry proposes to dilute the provisions of punishment for the violations of Environment Protection Act (EPA)

19.    Fields Medal, recently seen in news is awarded in the field of
 a) Agriculture
 b) Economy
 c) Astronomy
 d) Mathematics
Solution: d)
Ukrainian mathematician Maryna Viazovska, was on July 5 named as one of four recipients of the 2022 Fields Medal, an honour that is often described the Nobel Prize in mathematics.
The Fields Medal is awarded by the International Mathematical Union (IMU), an international non-governmental and non-profit scientific organisation that aims to promote international cooperation in mathematics.

20.    Consider the following about Financial Services Institutional Bureau (FSIB):
1. FSIB was constituted to replace Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).
2. The FSIB will comprise a Chairperson nominated by the Central government.
3. It will advise the government on formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics for whole-time directors of the state-run financial services institutions.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.   3 only
b.   1 and 2 only
c.   2 and 3 only
d.   1, 2 and 3
Answer : c
Financial Services Institutional Bureau (FSIB)
The FSIB will replace the Banks Board Bureau (BBB).
FSIB will advise the government on a suitable performance appraisal system for whole-time directors and non-executive chairmen of the state-run financial services institutions.
It will build a data bank relating to the performance of public-sector banks (PSBs), FIs and insurance companies.
It will advise the government on “formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics for whole-time directors” in these institutions.
The FSIB will even help these state-run banks, FIs and insurers in developing business strategies and capital raising plans, etc.
The FSIB will comprise a chairperson nominated by the central government.
They are the secretaries of the departments of financial services and public enterprises; the chairman of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India; and a deputy governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
The government has also appointed three part-time members of the new entity (FSIB) who will be looking after affairs relating to PSBs and FIs.
FSIB shall be a professional body with autonomy in its affairs and shall have its own secretariat.

21.    Consider the following statements about Floating agriculture.
1.  It is a way of utilising areas which are waterlogged for long periods of time in the production of food.
2.  The approach employs beds of rotting vegetation, which act as compost for crop growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: Floating agriculture is a way of utilising areas which are waterlogged for long periods of time in the production of food. The technology is mainly aimed at adapting to more regular or prolonged flooding.
•  Statement 2 is correct: The approach employs beds of rotting vegetation, which act as compost for crop growth. These beds are able to float on the surface of the water, thus creating areas of land suitable for agriculture within waterlogged regions. Scientifically, floating agriculture may be referred to as hydroponics.
•  Floating raft farming had been taken up as a measure of improving adaptability and resilience in the background of climate change.
 Where can it be used?
•  Floating agriculture can be used in areas where agricultural land is submerged for long periods.
•  The practice is similar to hydroponic agriculture whereby plants can be grown on the water on a floating bed of water hyacinth, algae or other plant residues.
•  A typical example of floating agriculture involves a floating layer of water hyacinth, straw or rice stubble to which is added upper layers of small and quick-rotting waterworts (water plants) which make for good manure.
•  India has many brackish water bodies which are conducive for such agriculture.

22.    Consider the following statements.
1. Marine products constitute the maximum share in India’s Agri exports.
2. Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a statutory body that undertake purchase, store, transport, distribute and sell food grains and other food products.
3. The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) regulates the exports of agricultural products from India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 (b) 2 only
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 3
Solution: c)

Food Corporation of India (FCI)
It is a Public Sector Undertaking, under the Department of Food & Public Distribution, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
FCI is a statutory body set up in 1965 under the Food Corporations Act 1964.
It was established against the backdrop of a major shortage of grains, especially wheat.
It has the primary duty to undertake purchase, store, move/transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs.
Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) Organization is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is headed by Director General of Foreign Trade. Right from its inception till 1991, when liberalization in the economic policies of the Government took place, this organization has been essentially involved in the regulation and promotion of foreign trade through regulation.
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) issues notification regarding banning exports of agricultural products.

23.    Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act:
1. The Ministry of Finance is the nodal ministry of the regulation of foreign contribution.
2. It is mandatory to open a bank account in State Bank of India (SBI) branch in Delhi to receive foreign contributions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA)
Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs amended certain provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
The Ministry of Home Affairs had made the FCRA rules tougher in November 2020, making it clear that NGOs (Non-Government Organizations) which may not be directly linked to a political party but engage in political action like bandhs, strike or road blockades will be considered of political nature if they participate in active politics or party politics.
According to the law, all NGOs receiving funds have to register under the FCRA.
The Ministry of Home Affairs as told Delhi High Court that all non-government organisations (NGOs), except one, have been granted permission to open bank accounts with the State Bank of India (SBI) in New Delhi under the amended Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA), 2020. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 in an atmosphere of apprehension that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping in funds through independent organisations.
These concerns had been expressed in Parliament as early as 1969.
The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic”.

24.    Regarding Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, which of the following statements is/are true?
1. FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for three years.
3. The entities covered by the Act does not include an individual.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 2 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANs: (a)
Explanation:
FCRAregulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect the internal security of the country.
The Act, first enacted in 1976 was amended in the year 2010 and then 2020.
Section 5 of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 gives the Union government “unchecked and unbridled powers” to declare an organisation as being one of political nature and deny it access to funds from sources abroad.
FCRA is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Applicability:
The provisions of the Act apply to the territory of India, to citizens of India who may be outside India and to companies or their branches outside India that are registered or incorporated in India.
The entities covered by the Act include an individual, a Hindu undivided family, an association, or a registered company.
For how long is approval granted?
Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration. In case of failure to apply for renewal, the registration is deemed to have expired, and the NGO is no longer entitled to receive foreign funds or utilise its existing funds without permission from the ministry.

25.    Consider the following statements about the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Act, 2020.
1.  The amendment adds public servants to the list of persons who are prohibited to accept any foreign contribution.
2.  Organisations can receive the foreign funds in a bank account designated as the ‘FCRA account’ only in branches of the State Bank of India, New Delhi, as notified by the central government.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
About Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, (FCRA), 2010
•  The FCRA 2010 regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution by individuals, associations and companies. Foreign contribution is the donation or transfer of any currency, security or article (of beyond a specified value) by a foreign source.
•  The objective is to prevent use of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality for any activity detrimental to the national interest.
•  All societies, companies, associations and NGOs have to register themselves under the FCRA and fulfil definite criteria to be eligible for foreign funds.
•  The registration is initially valid for five years and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
•  Registered associations can receive foreign contributions for social, educational, religious, economic and cultural purposes.
•  Filing of annual returns, on the lines of Income Tax, is compulsory.
Who cannot receive foreign donations?
•  Members of the legislature and political parties, government officials, judges and media persons are prohibited from receiving any foreign contribution.
•  However, in 2017 the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), amended the FCRA law paving the way for political parties to receive funds from the Indian subsidiary of a foreign company or a foreign company in which an Indian holds 50% or more shares.
FCRA Amendment Act, 2020
•  In 2020, the Parliament passed the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Act, 2020 which amends the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010. 
Highlights of the 2020 Act
Prohibition to accept foreign contribution
•  Statement 1 is correct: The amendment adds public servants (as defined under the Indian Penal Code) to the list of persons who are prohibited to accept any foreign contribution.
•  Public servant includes any person who is in service or pay of the government, or remunerated by the government for the performance of any public duty.
Transfer of foreign contribution
•  The amendment act prohibits the transfer of grants received under FCRA to any other person or organisation.     
Aadhaar for registration
•  Any person seeking prior permission, registration or renewal of registration must provide the Aadhaar number of all its office bearers, directors or key functionaries, as an identification document. 
•  In case of a foreigner, they must provide a copy of the passport or the Overseas Citizen of India card for identification. 
FCRA account
•  Statement 2 is correct: Organisations can receive the foreign funds in a bank account designated as the ‘FCRA account’ only in branches of the State Bank of India, New Delhi, as notified by the central government.      
Reduction in use of foreign contribution for administrative purposes
•  Under the 2010 Act, a person who receives foreign contribution must use it only for the purpose for which the contribution is received. Further, they must not use more than 50% of the contribution for meeting administrative expenses. 
•  The amendment act reduces this limit to 20%.
Suspension of registration
•  Under the 2010 Act, the government may suspend the registration of a person for a period not exceeding 180 days. 
•  The latest amendment adds that such suspension may be extended up to an additional 180 days.

26.    With reference to ‘Foreign Portfolio Investment’, consider the following statements
1. They are largely non-debt creating capital unlike foreign direct investment
2. FPI’s in India are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
FDI, FPI and Depository Receipts are non-debt flows. These inflows don’t create any repayment burden. On the other hand, ECBs, FCCBs, Rupee Denominated Bonds, NRI deposits and banking capital are debt creating flows.
Statement 2 Correct
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates foreign portfolio investment in India. To invest in a company in India, foreign investors must obtain an approval from SEBI.
 Context – There was a massive outflow of FPI from India

27.    Consider the following statements.
1. In a floating exchange rate system, market forces determine the value of a currency.
2. The demand for rupees in the forex market depends on foreign demand for Indian exports.
3. Currency appreciation encourages a country’s export activity as its products and services become cheaper to buy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
In the forex market, the supply of rupees is determined by the demand for imports and various foreign assets. So, if there is high demand to import oil, it can lead to an increase in the supply of rupees in the forex market and cause the rupee’s value to drop. The demand for rupees in the forex market, on the other hand, depends on foreign demand for Indian exports and other domestic assets. So, for instance, when there is great enthusiasm among foreign investors to invest in India, it can lead to an increase in the supply of dollars in the forex market which in turn causes the rupee’s value to rise against the dollar.
Appreciation Vs Depreciation:
In a floating exchange rate system, market forces (based on demand and supply of a currency) determine the value of a currency.
Currency Appreciation: It is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency.
Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including government policy, interest rates, trade balances and business cycles.
Currency appreciation discourages a country’s export activity as its products and services become costlier to buy.

28.    India has come a long way in liberating the capital account transactions in the last three decades and currently has partial capital account convertibility. Which of the recent moves indicate the above statement?
1. Easing of external commercial borrowing.
2. Introducing the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) — through which non-residents can invest in specified government securities without any restrictions.
3. Increasing the foreign portfolio investment limits in the Indian debt markets.
4. Allowing outbound FDI by Indian incorporated entities.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2, 3
 b) 1, 3, 4
 c) 2, 3, 4
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
India has come a long way in liberating the capital account transactions in the last three decades and currently has partial capital account convertibility.
Some of the recent moves include increasing the foreign portfolio investment limits in the Indian debt markets, introducing the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) — through which non-residents can invest in specified government securities without any restrictions and the easing of the external commercial borrowing framework by relaxing end-user restrictions. Inward FDI is allowed in most sectors, and outbound FDI by Indian incorporated entities is allowed as a multiple of their net worth.

29.    Consider the following statements about the Geological Survey of India (GSI).
1.  It functions under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
2.  It is the prime provider of basic earth science information to government, industry and general public, as well as the official participant in steel, coal, metals, cement, power industries and international geoscientific forums.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a scientific agency of India. Founded in 1851, it functions under the Ministry of Mines.
•  It is one of the oldest of such organisations in the world and the second oldest survey in India after Survey of India (founded in 1767), for conducting geological surveys and studies of India.
•  Statement 2 is correct: It is also the prime provider of basic earth science information to government, industry and general public, as well as the official participant in steel, coal, metals, cement, power industries and international geoscientific forums.

30.    Consider the following statements.
1. Global Assessment Report on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services was released by the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES).
2. The World Network of Biosphere Reserves is created by UNEP.
3. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is designated as the first biosphere reserve in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Global Assessment Report on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services released in 2019 by the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES).
 World Network of Biosphere Reserves, created in 1971 by UNESCO.
 The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India designated in the year 1986 by UNESCO. It stretches across the States of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala.

31.    Consider the following statements about the ‘GloLitter Partnerships Project’:
1. It is launched by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and initial funding from the World Bank Group.
2. It is aimed to prevent and reduce marine plastic litter from shipping and fisheries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
It is launched by theInternational Maritime Organization (IMO)and the FAO and initial funding from the Government of Norway. It is aimed to prevent and reduce marine plastic litter from shipping and fisheries.

32.    Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution of India confers the power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax only to the Parliament and not State Legislatures.
2. July 2022 marks the completion of five years since the introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India.
3. GST was first discussed in the report of the Kelkar Task Force on indirect taxes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2, 3
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
GST was first discussed in the report of the Kelkar Task Force on indirect taxes.
July 1 marks the completion of five years since the Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced in our country.
Article 246A: Parliament and the Legislature of every State, have power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax imposed by the Union or by such State.

33.    Consider the following statements about the GST council.
1.  The Prime Minister acts as the chairman.
2.  Decisions of the council are made by voting with a 3/4th majority.
3.  State governments and the centre have an equal share of voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A of the amended Constitution, for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax.
•  The Council was introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.
Mandate of GST Council
•  The Goods and Services Tax Council shall make recommendations to the Union and the States on—
o  the taxes, cesses and surcharges levied by the Union, the States and the local bodies which may be subsumed in the goods and services tax;
o  the goods and services that may be subjected to, or exempted from the goods and services tax;
o  the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from goods and services tax;
o  the rates including floor rates with bands of goods and services tax;
o  the date on which the goods and services tax be levied on petroleum crude, high speed diesel, motor spirit (commonly known as petrol), natural gas and aviation turbine fuel.
•  Quorum: One-half of the total number of Members of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall constitute the quorum at its meetings.
•  Statement 2 is correct: Voting share: Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken at a meeting, by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, in accordance with the following principles, namely: —
o  the vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, and
o  the votes of all the State Governments taken together shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast, in that meeting. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
•  No act or proceedings of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be invalid merely by reason of—
o  any vacancy in, or any defect in, the constitution of the Council; or
o  any defect in the appointment of a person as a Member of the Council; or
o  any procedural irregularity of the Council not affecting the merits of the case.
•  Dispute adjudication: The Goods and Services Tax Council shall establish a mechanism to adjudicate any dispute
o  between the Government of India and one or more States; or
o  between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other side; or
o  between two or more States, arising out of the recommendations of the Council or implementation thereof.

34.    In India, under which of the following occasions a person can be legally handcuffed?
1. An accused on his/her arrest and before he/she is produced before the magistrate.
2. An under-trial prisoner during transit from jail to the court.
3. A convict being transported from jail to the court.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d)
There can be three occasions when a person can be (legally) handcuffed, i.e., an accused on his arrest and before he is produced before the magistrate; an under-trial prisoner during transit from jail to the court and back; and a convict being transported from jail to the court and back.
The law with regard to handcuffing was settled in 1980 when the Supreme Court of India, in Prem Shankar Shukla vs Delhi Administration, held that ‘the only circumstance which validates incapacitation by irons — an extreme measure — is that otherwise there is no other reasonable way of preventing his escape’.
The Court mandated that in case of handcuffing, the reasons for this have to be recorded in writing and it is the duty of the court to make inquiries with the person arrested as to whether he had been handcuffed or not and then approve or reject the reasons.

35.    Consider the following statements about the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI).
1.  It is released by the National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
2.  Steel production has been accorded with the highest weightage in ICI.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Sol:
•  The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production volume index.
•  The objective of the ICI is to provide an advance indication on production performance of industries of ‘core’ nature. These industries are likely to impact on general economic activities as well as industrial activities.
•  The Eight Core Industries- Electricity, steel, refinery products, crude oil, coal, cement, natural gas and fertilizers- comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
•  Industry Weight (In percentage)
o  Petroleum & Refinery production - 28.04; Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
o  Electricity generation - 19.85
o  Steel production - 17.92
o  Coal production - 10.33
o  Crude Oil production - 8.98
o  Natural Gas production - 6.88
o  Cement production - 5.37
o  Fertilizers production - 2.63
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: ICI is released by the Office of Economic Advisor, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industries. The base year of the ICI is 2011-12.

36.    Which of the following is/are components of India’s external debt?
1.  Sovereign Borrowings
2.  Commercial Borrowings
3.  Non-Resident Deposits
4.  Foreign Direct Investments
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ]
A. 1 onl
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Answer: C
 Sol:
•  External debt is the portion of a country's debt that is borrowed from foreign lenders through commercial banks, governments, or international financial institutions.
•  If a country cannot repay its external debt, it faces a debt crisis.If a nation fails to repay its external debt, it is said to be in sovereign default.
•  India’s external debt includes Commercial Borrowings, Sovereign Borrowings, Non-Resident Deposits and Trade credits.
•  Foreign Direct Investments are not included in the external debt account.

37.    Which of the following are the disputed regions between Indian and Nepal?
1. Limpiyadhura
2. Susta
3. Galwan Valley
4. Kalapani
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 4
 b) 1, 2, 4
 c) 1, 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
Disputed area between Indian and Nepal — Lipulekh, Kalapani, Limpiyadhura,  Susta, Mechi, and Tanakpur.
Galwan Valley is disputed region between India and China.

38.    With reference to the Indian Coast Guard, consider the following statements.
1.  It operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2.  It is the coordinating authority for response to oil spills in Indian waters.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Answer: B
 Sol:
•  The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is a maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency of India with jurisdiction over its territorial waters including its contiguous zone and exclusive economic zone.
•  The Indian Coast Guard was formally established by the Coast Guard Act, 1978 of the Parliament of India.
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: It operates under the Ministry of Defence.
•  Statement 2 is correct: It is responsible for marine environment protection in maritime zones of India and is coordinating authority for response to oil spills in Indian waters.

39.    Consider the following statements about the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS).
1.  IONS is an annual event conceived by the Indian Navy.
2.  It seeks to enhance maritime cooperation among Navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) is a biennial event conceived by the Indian Navy in 2008.
•  Statement 2 is correct: It seeks to enhance maritime cooperation among Navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues that would lead to common understanding on the way ahead.
•  The forum helps to preserve peaceful relations between nations, and thus is critical to building effective maritime security architecture in the Indian Ocean Region and is also fundamental to our collective prosperity.
•  It also serves to develop an effective response mechanism and humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR) against natural disasters.
•  The chairmanship of IONS has been held by India (2008-10), UAE (2010-12), South Africa (2012-14), Australia (2014-16), Bangladesh (2016-18) and Islamic Republic of Iran (2018-21).  France assumed the Chairmanship in June 2021 for a two-year tenure.

40.    Consider the following statement regarding the ‘Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) programme’:
1. It was launched in 1991 after the economic reforms.
2. It was funded by the Ministry of External affairs.
3. It was an important part of India's attempt to contribute to South-South cooperation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution: It was launched in 1964.
Enrich your learning:
Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) programme
It is a bilateral assistance programme run by the Government of India.
It was officially launched on 15 September 1964.
It is a demand-driven, response-oriented programme that focuses on addressing the needs of developing countries through innovative technological cooperation between India and the partnering nation.
This program is funded by the Ministry of External Affairs.
It covers 158 countries across Asia, Africa, Latin America, Central and Eastern Europe, and several Pacific and Caribbean nations.
It was an important part of India's attempt to contribute to South-South cooperation.
South Asia accounts for 70% of the grants dispersed under ITEC.
Lines of credit are also offered under ITEC and African nations have been the major beneficiaries under this head.

41.    ‘ITHACA’ is recently seen in the news. What does it refer to?
a) A newly developed missile by DRDO.
b) An application for money Transfer.
c) Digital currency based on Blockchain technology.
d) Deep Neural network based on Artificial Intelligence.
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: ITHACA is a deep neural network that is based on Artificial Intelligence.
Enrich your learning:
ITHACA
It is based on Artificial Intelligence.
It is the first Deep Neural Network for the textual restoration, geographical and chronological attribution of ancient Greek inscriptions.
It is designed to assist and expand the historian's workflow: its architecture focuses on collaboration, decision support, and interpretability.
It is one such development that merges the fields of technology, supercomputing, and ancient history to reveal unknown secrets.
It was trained to simultaneously perform the tasks of textual restoration, geographical attribution, and chronological attribution.
Researchers trained the system on inscriptions written in the ancient Greek language and across the ancient Mediterranean world between the seventh century BC and the fifth century AD.
[Ref-ITHACA]

42.    Consider the following statements about Kai (Red Weaver Ant):
1. Kai’s are recognized as biological control agents in tropical crops.
2. The Kai Chutney made out of this ants are rich in proteins, calcium, zinc, etc and are known to boost the immune system.
3. The Kai Chutney made up of Kai Ants was recently granted Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a.   1 and 2 only
b.   1 and 3 only
c.   2 and 3 only
d.   1, 2 and 3
Answer : a
Kais (Red Weaver Ant)
In Odisha, scientists are now fine-tuning their research to make a presentation for the geographical indications (GI) registry of Kai Chutney.
The tribal healers also prepare medicinal oil by dipping the collected Kais in pure mustard oil.
The tribes of Mayurbhanj consume Kai chutney or soup to get rid of flu, common cold, whooping cough, to increase appetite, enhance vision
It also enhances eyesight naturally without corrective eye wear and to treat joints pain, stomach diseases, essentials for the development of a healthy brain and the nervous system.
Kais are bio-control agents. They are aggressive and prey on most arthropods entering their territory.
Due to their predatory habit, Kais are recognized as biological control agents in tropical crops as they are able to protect a variety of crops against many different insect pests.
In this way, they are utilized indirectly as an alternative to the chemical insecticides.

43.    The word ‘Kessler Syndrome’ is associated with which of the following?
a) Space debris
b) Mental health
c) Cyberattacks
d) A geophysical phenomenon
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution: ‘Kessler Syndrome’ is associated with space debris.
Enrich your learning:
Kessler Syndrome
It was proposed by NASA scientist Donald J. Kessler in 1978.
It is a phenomenon in which the density of objects in the Low Earth Orbit grows so high that collisions between two objects could cause a massive cascade.
The collisions could increase the scope of further collisions generating more space junk.

44.    The Konark Sun temple was built during the reign of
A. Chalukyas of Badami
B. Hoysalas
C. Eastern Ganga dynasty
D. Vakatakas
Answer: C
Sol:
•  The Konark or Konarak Sun temple is dedicated to the Hindu sun god Surya Surya, and conceived as a giant stone chariot with 12 wheels.
•  It is located about 35 km northeast of the city of Puri on the coastline in the state of Odisha (earlier Orissa).
•  It was built c. 1250 CE by King Narasimhadeva I (r. 1238-1264 CE) of the Eastern Ganga dynasty (8th century CE - 15th century CE).
•   The temple in its present state was declared by UNESCO a World Heritage Site in 1984 CE.
Eastern Ganga Dynasty & Odisha Temple Architecture
•  The Eastern Gangas established their kingdom in the Kalinga region in eastern India (present-day Odisha state) at the beginning of the eighth century CE.
•  The greatest king of this dynasty was Anantavarman Chodaganga (1077 - 1147 CE), who ruled for about 70 years. He was not only a formidable warrior but also a patron of arts, and greatly favoured temple building.
•  The great temple of the god Jagannatha at Puri, begun by him, stands as a brilliant monument to the artistic vigour and prosperity of Orissa during his reign' .
•  His successors continued the tradition, with the most notable being Narasimhadeva I who not only completed the construction of the Jagannatha temple but also the temple at Konarak.
Architectural style of Sun temple
•  The temple follows the Kalinga or Orissa style of architecture, which is a subset of the nagara style of Hindu temple architecture.
o  The nagara was among the three styles of Hindu temple architecture in India and prevailed in northern India, while in the south, the dravida style predominated and in central and eastern India, it was the vesara style.
•  The main characteristics of the Orissa style are primarily two: the deul or the sanctum housing the deity covered by a shikhara, and the jaganamohana or the assembly hall.
Characteristics of the temple
•  The Konarak temple, built entirely in stone, is in the form of a colossal chariot with twelve pairs of lavishly-ornamented wheels, drawn by seven richly-caparisoned, galloping horses. The 12 pairs of wheels represent the 12 months of the year.
•  Between the wheels, the plinth of the temple is entirely decorated with reliefs of fantastic lions, musicians and dancers, and erotic groups.
•  The vimana (principal sanctuary) was surmounted by a high tower with a shikhara (crowning cap), which was razed in the 19th century.
•  To the east, the jahamogana (audience hall) dominates the ruins with its pyramidal mass. Farther to the east, the natmandir (dance hall), today unroofed, rises on a high platform. Various subsidiary structures are still to be found within the enclosed area of the rectangular wall, which is punctuated by gates and towers.
•  The early Europeans traversing this sea referred to the Jagannatha temple as the 'White Pagoda' owing to its white plaster (now removed after restoration) and Konarak as the 'Black Pagoda'.

45.    Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh?
1.  Tso Kar
2.  Pangong Tso
3.  Tso Moriri
Select the correct answer using the code given below ]
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Sol:
•  The Tso-Kar Lake also known as 'White Lake' is one of the three high altitude salt water lakes in Ladakh. The Tso-Kar Lake is known as 'White Lake' because the white salt of the water deposits all over the lake shores.
•  Pangong Tso is a long narrow, deep, endorheic (landlocked) lake situated in Ladakh. The Lake, situated at a height of almost 4,350m, is the world’s highest saltwater lake. Extending to almost 160km, one-third of the Pangong Lake lies in India and the other two-thirds in China.
•  Tso-moriri or Lake Moriri is a High Altitude Lake (officially named as Tso-moriri Wetland Conservation Reserve), located in Ladakh with an altitude of 4,595 m (15,075 ft).

46.    With reference to ‘Large Hadron Collider’, consider the following statements
1. It is the world’s largest and highest-energy particle collider used to study particle physics
2. The goal of the experiment is to allow physicists to test measuring the properties of the Higgs boson
3. The collider primarily collides two opposing beams of electrons at high speed
Select the correct statement(s)
  a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) All the above
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the world’s largest and highest-energy particle collider. It was built by the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN) between 1998 and 2008 in collaboration with over 10,000 scientists and hundreds of universities and laboratories, as well as more than 100 countries
Statement 2 Correct
The LHC’s goal is to allow physicists to test the predictions of different theories of particle physics, including measuring the properties of the Higgs boson searching for the large family of new particles predicted by super symmetric theories, and other unresolved questions in particle physics.
Statement 3 Incorrect
The LHC primarily collides proton beams, but it can also accelerate beams of heavy ions: lead–lead collisions and proton–lead collisions are typically performed for one month a year. The collider has four crossing points where the accelerated particles collide. Seven detectors, each designed to detect different phenomena, are positioned around the crossing points.
Context – Scientists at CERN observe three exotic particles for the first time

47.    Which of the following are particle detectors at Large Hadron Collider (LHC)?
1. ALICE (A Large Ion Collider Experiment)
2. The Large Hadron Collider beauty (LHCb)
3. The Compact Muon Solenoid (CMS)
4. ATLAS
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
 (b) 3 and 4 only
 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Explanation: What is the LHC?
The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator. It first started up on 10 September 2008, and remains the latest addition to CERN’s accelerator complex. The LHC consists of a 27-kilometre ring of superconducting magnets with a number of accelerating structures to boost the energy of the particles along the way.
The beams inside the LHC are made to collide at four locations around the accelerator ring, corresponding to the positions of four particle detectors – ATLAS, CMS, ALICE and LHCb.
ALICE (A Large Ion Collider Experiment) is a detector dedicated to heavy-ion physics at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC). It is designed to study the physics of strongly interacting matter at extreme energy densities, where a phase of matter called quark-gluon plasma forms.
The Large Hadron Collider beauty (LHCb) experiment specializes in investigating the slight differences between matter and antimatter by studying a type of particle called the “beauty quark”, or “b quark”.
The Compact Muon Solenoid (CMS) is a general-purpose detector at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC). It has a broad physics programme ranging from studying the Standard Model (including the Higgs boson) to searching for extra dimensions and particles that could make up dark matter. Although it has the same scientific goals as the ATLAS experiment, it uses different technical solutions and a different magnet-system design.
ATLAS is one of two general-purpose detectors at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC). It investigates a wide range of physics, from the search for the Higgs boson to extra dimensions and particles that could make up dark matter. Although it has the same scientific goals as the CMS experiment, it uses different technical solutions and a different magnet-system design.

48.    Consider the following statements
1. Lithium is a relatively stable Alkali metal
2. Argentina, Bolivia and Chile form the Lithium triangle.
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
It is a soft, silvery-white alkali metal. Like all alkali metals, lithium is highly reactive and flammable and must be stored in a vacuum, inert atmosphere, or inert liquid such as purified kerosene or mineral oil.
Statement 2 Correct
The Lithium Triangle is a region of the Andes rich in lithium reserves around the borders of Argentina, Bolivia and Chile. The area is thought to hold around 54% of the world’s lithium reserves.
 Context: Australia to supply rare earth minerals (Lithium)  to Indian EV makers

49.    Consider the following statements about Mahuli group of temples:
1. This famous group of temples, known as Dakshin Kashi, is located in Maharashtra.
2. It comprises five temples belonging to 11th and 12th century CE .
3. It was constructed in Panchayatana style of architecture.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a.   1 and 2 only
b.   1 and 3 only
c.   2 and 3 only
d.   1, 2 and 3
Answer : a
Mahuli group of temples
The famous group of Mahuli temples are also known as Dakshin Kashi.
It comprises five temples belonging to 11th and 12th century CE in Hemadpanthi style of architecture .
It is located near Satara in Maharashtra.
Samadhis of great Maratha queens Rani Tarabai Bhosle and Rani Yesho Bai Bhosle are located in Mahuli (Satara).

50.    Maitri Setu, recently seen in news is a link between
 a) India and Nepal
 b) India and Myanmar
 c) India and Bhutan
 d) India and Bangladesh
Solution: d)
India-Bangladesh Friendship Bridge (Maitri Setu) over the Feni river at Sabroom in south Tripura.

51.    The Maneka Gandhi versus Union of India case (1978), is known for
 a) Setting parameters for Governor’s rule in a state
 b) Striking a balance between fundamental rights and directive principles
 c) Expansion of rights available under Article 21 of the Constitution
 d) ‘Rarest of rare’ doctrine
Solution: c)
In the Menaka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of the Article 21. Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just.
In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’. In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action.
Further, the court held that the ‘right to life’ as embodied in Article 21 is not merely confined to animal existence or survival but it includes within its ambit the right to live with human dignity and all those aspects of life which go to make a man’s life meaningful, complete and worth living.
It also ruled that the expression ‘Personal Liberty’ in Article 21 is of the widest amplitude and it covers a variety of rights that go to constitute the personal liberties of a man.

52.    If you keep walking on the Mediterranean coast, starting from the coast of Egypt towards middle-east, you are likely to touch the coast of which of these countries en route?
1. Iraq
2. Israel
3. Syria
4. Lebanon
5. Egypt
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2, 3
 b) 1, 2, 4
 c) 2, 3, 4, 5
 d) 1, 3, 4, 5
Solution: c)

53.    The Mediterranean Sea connects to the Atlantic Ocean by the
 a) Dardanelles strait
 b) Strait of Gibraltar
 c) Straits of Bosporus
 d) Suez Canal
Solution: b)
The Mediterranean is positioned between Europe to the north, Africa to the south, and Asia to the east.
The Mediterranean Sea connects:
to the Atlantic Ocean through the Strait of Gibraltar in the west
to the Sea of Marmara and the Black Sea, by the Straits of the Dardanelles and the Bosporus respectively, in the east
The 163 km (101 mi) long artificial Suez Canal in the southeast connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.

54.    Consider the following statements about the Mid-Day meal scheme:
1. The scheme guarantees one meal to all children in government and aided schools and madarsas supported under Samagra Shiksha.
2. The Scheme comes under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About the Mid-Day meal scheme:
The scheme guarantees one meal to all children in government and aided schools and madarsas supported under Samagra Shiksha.
Students up to Class VIII are guaranteed one nutritional cooked meal at least 200 days in a year.
The Scheme comes under the Ministry of HRD.
It was launched in the year 1995 as the National Programme of Nutritional Support toPrimary Education (NP – NSPE), a centrally sponsored scheme. In 2004, the scheme was relaunched as the Mid Day Meal Scheme.
The Scheme is also covered by the National Food Security Act, 2013

55.    Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
 (a) A bill shall be deemed to be money bill if it contains only provisions related to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
 (b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
 (c) A Money Bill is concerned with appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
 (d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the government of India.
Ans: (c)
Explanation: A110. Definition of Money Bill
(1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely
(a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
(b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;
(c) the custody of the consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;
(d) the appropriation of moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India (not Contingency Fund of India). So, C is incorrect.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018

56.    The Mukurthi National Park, one of the habitats of Nilgiri tahr, is situated in 
A.  Kerala
B.  Tamil Nadu
C.  Karnataka
D.  Goa
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Sol:
•  Mukurthi National Park is located in the Nilgiris district of the state of Tamil Nadu.
•  The park is characterized by montane grasslands and shrublands interspersed with sholas in a high altitude area of high rainfall, near-freezing temperatures and high winds.
•  Mukurthi is perhaps the only area of the Nilgiris that has not been badly affected by conversion to exotic monoculture plantations. It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
•  The Park is sandwiched between the Mudumalai National Park and the Silent Valley National park.
•  There are several streams, many of which drain into the Bhavani River (a tributary of Cauvery).
•  Major attraction of the park is Nilgiri tahr (endemic sheep, IUCN- Endangered).

57.    Which among the following is the nodal procurement agency for pulses in India?
 a) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
 b) National Pulses Corporation Ltd
 c) National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED)
 d) India Pulses and Grains Association
Solution: c)
The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED), is the nodal procurement agency for pulses (like Food Corporation of India, or FCI, is for rice and wheat).

58.    Which of the following are the proposals of the National Education Policy, 2020?
1.  Replace the 10+2 structure of school curriculum with a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure corresponding to ages 3-8, 8-11, 11-14, and 14-18 years respectively.
2.  Increase the public investment in the Education sector to reach 12% of GDP at the earliest.
3.  Establishing the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) as a single umbrella body for the entire higher education, excluding medical and legal education.
4.  Establishing the Gender Inclusion Fund which will focus on ensuring 100% enrollment of girls in schooling.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Answer: C
 Sol:
Highlights of National Education Policy
Early Childhood Care & Education
•  The current 10+2 system to be replaced by a new 5+3+3+4 curricular structure corresponding to ages 3-8, 8-11, 11-14, and 14-18 years respectively. This will bring the hitherto uncovered age group of 3-6 years under school curriculum, which has been recognized globally as the crucial stage for development of mental faculties of a child.
•  The new system will have 12 years of schooling with three years of Anganwadi/ pre schooling.
•  New Policy aims for universalization of education from preschool to secondary level with 100 % Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030.
•  NEP 2020 will bring 2 crore out of school children back into the mainstream through an open schooling system.
 Reforms in school curricula and pedagogy
•  The school curricula and pedagogy will aim for holistic development of learners by equipping them with the key 21st century skills, reduction in curricular content to enhance essential learning and critical thinking and greater focus on experiential learning. Students will have increased flexibility and choice of subjects.
•  There will be no rigid separations between arts and sciences, between curricular and extra-curricular activities, between vocational and academic streams.
•  Vocational education will start in schools from the 6th grade, and will include internships.
•  A new and comprehensive National Curricular Framework for School Education, NCFSE 2020-21, will be developed by the NCERT.
•  NEP 2020 calls for the setting up of a National Mission on Foundational Literacy and Numeracy by the Education Ministry. States will prepare an implementation plan for attaining universal foundational literacy and numeracy in all primary schools for all learners by grade 3 by 2025.
 Medium of instruction
•  The policy states, the medium of instruction until at least class 5 (and preferably till class 8) should be “home language or mother tongue or local/regional language”. The policy gives the freedom to the state, region, and child to choose three languages to be learned. However, at least two of the three languages should be native Indian languages.
•  Assessment reforms with 360 degree Holistic Progress Card, tracking Student Progress for achieving Learning Outcomes.
 NCFTE 2021
•  A new and comprehensive National Curriculum Framework for Teacher Education, NCFTE 2021, will be formulated by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) in consultation with NCERT.  
•  By 2030, the minimum degree qualification for teaching will be a 4-year integrated B.Ed. degree.
•  Every state/district will be encouraged to establish ''Bal Bhavans'' as a special daytime boarding school, to participate in art-related, career-related, and play-related activities.
 Higher Education
•  Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education to be raised to 50 % by 2035; 3.5 crore seats to be added in higher education.
•  The policy envisages broad based, multi-disciplinary, holistic Undergraduate education with flexible curriculum, creative combinations of subjects, integration of vocational education and multiple entry and exit points with appropriate certification.
•  UG education can be of 3 or 4 years with multiple exit options and appropriate certification within this period.
•  Academic Bank of Credits to be established to facilitate Transfer of Credits.
•  Multidisciplinary Education and Research Universities (MERUs), at par with IITs, IIMs, to  be set up as models  of best multidisciplinary education of global standards in the country.
•  The National Research Foundation will be created as an apex body for fostering a strong research culture and building research capacity across higher education.
•  A National Mission for Mentoring will be established, with a large pool of outstanding senior/retired faculty – including those with the ability to teach in Indian languages – who would be willing to provide short and long-term mentoring/professional support to university/college teachers.
Higher Education Commission of India (HECI)
•  HECI will be set up as a single umbrella body for the entire higher education, excluding medical and legal education. Public and private higher education institutions will be governed by the same set of norms for regulation, accreditation and academic standards.
•  Also, HECI will be having four independent verticals namely,
o  National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC) for regulation,
o  General Education Council (GEC) for standard setting,
o  Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC) for funding,
o  National Accreditation Council (NAC) for accreditation.
•  Affiliation of colleges is to be phased out in 15 years and a stage-wise mechanism is to be established for granting graded autonomy to colleges.
•  Over a period of time, it is envisaged that every college would develop into either an Autonomous degree-granting College, or a constituent college of a university.
•  Internationalization of education will be facilitated through both institutional collaborations, and student and faculty mobility and allowing entry of top world ranked Universities to open campuses in our country.
Others focus areas
•  The policy aims to achieve 100% youth and adult literacy.
•  An autonomous body, the National Educational Technology Forum (NETF), will be created to provide a platform for the free exchange of ideas on the use of technology to enhance learning, assessment, planning, administration.
•  NEP 2020 emphasizes setting up of Gender Inclusion Fund, Special Education Zones for disadvantaged regions and groups.
•  The Gender Inclusion Fund will focus on ensuring 100% enrollment of girls in schooling and will boost their participation rate in higher education.
•  A new National Assessment Centre, PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development), will be set up as a standard-setting body.
•  New Policy promotes Multilingualism in both schools and higher education.
•  National Institute for Pali, Persian and Prakrit, Indian Institute of Translation and Interpretation to be set up.
•  The Centre and the States will work together to increase the public investment in the Education sector to reach 6% of GDP at the earliest.

59.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘National Education Policy 2020(NEP)’
1. NEP 2020 is the third such education policy post-Independent India
2. NEP 2020 was drafted based on the recommendation of the Bimal Jalan Committee
3. The ABC (Academic bank of Credit) framework is part of NEP 2020
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) All the above
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
 The first NEP came in 1968 and the second in 1986, under Indira Gandhi and Rajiv Gandhi respectively; The NEP 1986 was revised in 1992 when P V Narasimha Rao was Prime Minister. The third is the NEP released under the Prime Ministership of Narendra Modi.
Statement 2 Incorrect
NEP 2020 was drafted based on the recommendation of the Kasturirangan Committee.
Statement 3 Correct
ABC will allow higher education institutions to maintain a digital repository of credits earned by students; under ABC, students can choose to study one course in a year in one institution and switch to another one the next year.
Context: Prime Minister to inaugurate Akhil Bharatiya Shiksha Samagam on implementation of NEP at Varanasi tomorrow

60.    With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidies food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3
 (d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1:Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per month. Not restricted to only BPL families.
Statement 3:Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes.
The nutritional and feeding norms for supplementary nutrition as prescribed by GOI are 500 calories and 12-15 grams of protein of children between the ages of 6 months to 6 years, 600 (not 1600) caloriesand 18-20 grams of protein to pregnant and nursing mothers and 800 calories and 20-25 gm. of protein to malnourished children.
Statement 2: Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.

61.    Consider the following statements about the National Investigation Agency.
1.  NIA’s jurisdiction includes offences affecting the friendly relations with foreign states.
2.  The agency came into existence in 1991.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ]
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a central agency mandated to investigate all the offences affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, friendly relations with foreign states, and the offences under the statutory laws enacted to implement international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organisations.
•  These include terror acts and their possible links with crimes like smuggling of arms, drugs and fake Indian currency and infiltration from across the borders. The agency has the power to search, seize, arrest and prosecute those involved in such offences.
•  Headquartered in Delhi, the NIA has its branches in Hyderabad, Guwahati, Kochi, Lucknow, Mumbai, Kolkata, Raipur, Jammu, Chandigarh, Ranchi, Chennai, Imphal, Bengaluru and Patna.
When did the NIA come into being?
•  In the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attack in November 2008, which shocked the entire world, the central government decided to establish the NIA.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: The agency came into existence on December 31, 2008, and started its functioning in 2009.
What are the scheduled offences?
•  The list includes the Explosive Substances Act, Atomic Energy Act, Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, Anti-Hijacking Act, Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation Act, SAARC Convention (Suppression of Terrorism) Act, Suppression of Unlawful Acts Against Safety of Maritime Navigation and Fixed Platforms on Continental Shelf Act, Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act and relevant offences under the Indian Penal Code, Arms Act and the Information Technology Act.
•  In September 2020, the Centre empowered the NIA to also probe offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act that are connected to terror cases.
How wide is NIA's jurisdiction?
•  The law under which the agency operates extends to the whole of India and also applies to Indian citizens outside the country; persons in the service of the government wherever they are posted; persons on ships and aircraft registered in India wherever they may be; persons who commit a scheduled offence beyond India against the Indian citizen or affecting the interest of India.

62.    With reference to the National Investigation Agency, consider the following statements:
1. State governments can directly refer the cases pertaining to the scheduled offences to the National Investigation Agency.
2. The jurisdiction of NIA extends only within the territorial region of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
As provided under Section 6 of the Act, State governments can refer the cases pertaining to the scheduled offences registered at any police station to the Central government (Union Home Ministry) for NIA investigation.
After assessing the details made available, the Centre can then direct the NIA to take over the case. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The jurisdiction of NIA extends to the whole of India and also applies to Indian citizens outside the country.
People in the service of the government wherever they are posted.
Persons on ships and aircraft registered in India wherever they may be.
Persons who commit a scheduled offence beyond India against the Indian citizen or affecting the interest of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

63.    Consider the following statements about National Investigation Agency (NIA):
1. The NIA was constituted in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attack in November 2008.
2. The law under which the agency operates extends to the whole of India and also applies to Indian citizens outside the country.
3. The Centre empowered the NIA to probe offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act that are connected to terror cases.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.   2 only
b.   1 and 2 only
c.   2 and 3 only
d.   1, 2 and 3
Answer : d
National Investigation Agency
It is a central agency mandated to investigate all the offences affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, friendly relations with foreign states.
The offences under the statutory laws enacted to implement international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organisations.
These include terror acts and their possible links with crimes like smuggling of arms, drugs and fake Indian currency and infiltration from across the borders.
The agency has the power to search, seize, arrest and prosecute those involved in such offences.
In September 2020, the Centre empowered the NIA to also probe offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act that are connected to terror cases.
The law under which the agency operates extends to the whole of India and also applies to Indian citizens outside the country.

64.    Consider the following statements about National Investigation Agency (NIA):
1. It is the primary counter-terrorist task force of India.
2. It is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
3. The founding Director-General of NIA was T. N. Seshan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
S3: The founding Director-General of NIA was Radha Vinod Raju, and he served until 31 January 2010.
S1 and S2: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the primary counter-terrorist task force of India. The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states under written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.

65.    In India, the National Landslide Susceptibility Mapping is undertaken by
 a) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
 b) National Disaster Response Force
 c) Geological Survey of India
 d) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Solution: c)
The Geological Survey of India is undertaking ‘National Landslide Susceptibility Mapping’.

66.    Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 3 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 2 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Since 2002, N2O has replaced methane as the second largest Greenhouse Gas (GHG) from Indian agriculture.
Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.
The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.

67.    With reference to UN (United Nations) Ocean Conference 2022, consider the following statements:
1. The conference was co-hosted by the Governments of Norway and Sweden.
2. Minister of Earth Sciences led the Indian delegation at UN Ocean Conference.
3. The conference ended with Lisbon Declaration titled ‘Our Ocean, Our Future: call for action’.
Which of the statements given above is/are corrcet?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 2 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
ANs: (b)
Explanation:
The conference was co-hosted by the Governments of Kenya and Portugal.
Minister of Earth Sciences led the Indian delegation at UN Ocean Conference.
2nd UNOC ended with Lisbon Declaration titled ‘Our Ocean, Our Future: call for action’.

68.    Ocean Conference 2022 recently seen in news is an initiative of
a) Food and Agriculture Organization
b) International maritime organization
c) World Economic Forum
d) United Nations
Answer: (D)
Explanation: UN Ocean Conference 2022 is being held for five days with participation of over 130 countries from across the world in Lisbon, Portugal.

69.    Consider the following statements regarding Off-budget borrowing.
1. Off-budget borrowing helps keep the country’s fiscal deficit within acceptable limits.
2. The RBI does not allow Public sector banks to fund off-budget expenses.
3. Off-budget financing is not part of the calculation of the fiscal deficit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
Off-budget borrowings are loans that are taken not by the Centre directly, but by another public institution which borrows on the directions of the central government. Such borrowings are used to fulfil the government’s expenditure needs.
But since the liability of the loan is not formally on the Centre, the loan is not included in the national fiscal deficit. This helps keep the country’s fiscal deficit within acceptable limits.
Comptroller and Auditor General report points out, this route of financing puts major sources of funds outside the control of Parliament. “Such off-budget financing is not part of the calculation of the fiscal indicators despite fiscal implications,” said the report.
Public sector banks are also used to fund off-budget expenses. For example, loans from PSU banks were used to make up for the shortfall in the release of fertiliser subsidy.

70.    On tap licensing provided RBI means
 a) the RBI window for granting banking licences will be open only on specific dates.
 b) the RBI window for granting banking licences will open only when a proposal arises.
 c) the RBI window for granting banking licences will be open throughout the year.
 d) None of the above
Solution: c)
 What is on tap licensing?
It means the RBI window for granting banking licences will be open throughout the year.

71.    Consider the following statements about One Sun One World One Grid:
1. India launched ‘One Sun One World One Grid’ (OSOWOG) at the Paris climate summit of UNFCCC.
2. ISA is the nodal agency for implementing One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG.
3. Its aim to provide energy to all countries through a common grid that will transfer solar power.
Which of the statements given above is/ are not correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of these
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
At the COP-26 climate summit in Glasgow, India launched ‘One Sun One World One Grid’ (OSOWOG).
ISA is the nodal agency for implementing One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG).
The idea was first proposed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s during the first assembly of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) in 2018.
Its aim to provide energy to about 140 countries through a common grid that will transfer solar power.

72.    Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 3 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A.
According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019

73.    The Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII) was recently announced by which of the following gropings?
A. North Atlantic Treaty Organization
B. European Union
C. ASEAN
D. G7
Answer: D
Sol:
•  U.S. President Joe Biden along with his G7 allies recently unveiled the ambitious Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII), announcing the collective mobilisation of $600 billion by 2027 to deliver “game-changing” and “transparent” infrastructure projects to developing and middle-income countries.
•  The PGII is being seen as the G7’s counter to China’s multi-trillion dollar Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) to build connectivity, infrastructure, and trade projects in Asia, Europe, Africa, and Latin America.
 What is the PGII?
•  The West has been sceptical of the BRI, since it was launched in 2013 by President Xi Jinping, as it was considered to be part of China’s larger strategy to increase geopolitical influence in Asia and other developing countries.
•  The U.S., along with G7 partners the U.K., Japan, France, Canada, Germany, Italy, and the European Union (EU), had in 2021 announced the launch of the Build Back Better World (B3W) with the aim of narrowing the $40 trillion infrastructure gap in the developing world. PGII is therefore a relaunch of Mr. Biden’s B3W plan.
•  PGII is envisaged as a values-driven, high-impact, and transparent infrastructure partnership to meet the enormous infrastructure needs of low and middle-income countries and support the United States’ and its allies’ economic and national security interests.
•  The G7 members aim to collectively mobilise $600 billion by 2027 to invest in sustainable and quality infrastructure projects in developing countries, including India, and strengthen global supply chains.
What kind of projects will the PGII undertake?
•  All PGII projects will be driven by four priority pillars that will define the second half of the 21st century.
•  First, the G7 grouping aims to tackle the climate crisis and ensure global energy security through clean energy supply chains. Second, the projects will focus on bolstering digital information and communications technology (ICT) networks facilitating technologies such as 5G and 6G internet connectivity and cybersecurity. Third, the projects aim to advance gender equality and equity, and lastly, to build and upgrade global health infrastructure.
How does it compare to China’s BRI?
•  The Belt and Road project was started to revive connectivity, trade, and infrastructure along what was China’s ancient Silk Road. China had announced a two-pronged approach of building a Silk Road Economic Belt on Land and a maritime 21st century Silk Road.
•  The project initially aimed to strengthen connectivity with Southeast Asia but later expanded to South and Central Asia, Africa, Europe, and Latin America.
•  The G7 meanwhile has specifically touted the PGII as a values-based plan to help underfunded low and middle-income countries meet their infrastructure needs. PGII has laid focus on climate action and clean energy, while China has built large coal-fired plants under BRI along with solar, hydro, and wind energy projects.
•  While the G7 has pledged $600 billion by 2027, China’s overall funding for BRI by that time could reach $1.2 to 1.3 trillion dollars with the actual funding being higher. Under the PGII, large private capital will be also mobilised while China’s BRI is majorly state-funded.
•  While G7 leaders emphasised ‘transparency’ as the cornerstone of PGII projects, the BRI has faced criticism for making countries sign confidential tenders for extending massive loans, leaving countries indebted to China. For instance, after the BRI’s flagship $62 billion China-Pakistan Economic Corridor, Pakistan owes Beijing a large proportion of its foreign debt.
•  China builds BRI’s projects by extending large, low-interest loans to countries that have to usually be paid over 10 years. There have been cases of debt-saddled countries failing to repay on time. Sri Lanka, for instance, had to cede its key Hambantota Port on a 99-year lease to China. Mr. Biden has said meanwhile, that PGII aims to build projects through grants and investments.
 •  A PGII project has already been announced in India but India had opted out of China’s BRI, being wary of Beijing’s aim to increase its influence in the Indian Ocean Region by roping in Pakistan as a major BRI recipient.

74.    The PENCiL portal has been launched with the main objective of
A.  Achieving the target of child labour free society
B.  Simplifying processes to make it easier for incorporating a business in India
C.  Provide mentorship to tribal youth through digital mode
D.  Recognition of Prior Learning under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Sol:
•  The Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour (PENCiL) Portal is an electronic platform organised by the Ministry of Labour and Employment involving Centre, State, District, Governments, civil society and the general public in achieving the target of child labour free society.
•  The portal was launched in 2017 under the Ministry of Labour and Employment’s National Child Labour Project (NCLP).
o  NCLP is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 1988 to rehabilitate children indulged in child labour. Under the scheme District Project Societies (DPS) are set up at the district level under the Chairmanship of the Collector/District Magistrate for overseeing the implementation of the project.
•  At district level District Nodal Officers (DNOs) are nominated to take action on the complaints of their respective districts. Complaints about child labour filed on PENCiL are forwarded to the DNOs for further action. Rescue measures are undertaken in coordination with police.
•  Rescued children are sent to centres where they get an education or are imparted vocational training. Children less than 8 years are enrolled in schools under the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan; children in the 8-14 year bracket are sent to special training centres (STCs) and 14-18-year-olds are enrolled in vocational (skill) training centres.
•  India has 1.01 crore child labourers, according to Census 2011, against 1.26 crore in 2001.

75.    As per the Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
 (a) The thickness of plastic carry bags has been increased from twenty microns to fifty microns.
 (b) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
 (c) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
 (d) The waste management infrastructure in the States/UTs is being strengthened through the Swachh Bharat Mission.
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Thicknessof plastic carry bags to be increased from 50 microns –
to 75 microns from 30th September, 2021
to 120 microns from the 31st December, 2022
The waste management infrastructure in the States/UTs is being strengthened through the Swachh Bharat Mission.
Refer: Government notifies the Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021, prohibiting identified single use plastic items by 2022.

76.    Consider the following statements about the PM Formalisation of Micro Food processing enterprise (PMFME) Scheme:
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
2. It will be implemented over a period of five years from 2020-21 to 2024-25.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Centrally sponsored schemeunder Ministry of Food processing industries (MoFPI) under AatamaNirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
Aim: To empower unorganized Micro Enterprises through the ‘One District One product’ approach. States to identify food products e.g., perishable Agri-produce, and cereal-based products.
Time: 2020-21 to 2024-25
Convergence: With NULM- will provide Seed capital to the Area level Federationinvolved in food processing for giving grants to micro-enterprises in the area.
Achievements: Implemented in 35 states, Digital ODOP map developed, over 1 lakh SHG members.

77.    With reference to the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), consider the following statements.
1.  It is a three-stage system comprising a combination of solid and liquid-fuelled rocket stages.
2.  PSLV does not have the payload capacity for launching satellites into Polar Sun Synchronous Orbit.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
 Sol:
•  The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is a third-generation rocket launcher designed, manufactured and operated by the ISRO.
•  It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages.
•  Besides, the vehicle successfully launched two spacecraft – Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft (Mangalyaan) in 2013 – that later traveled to Moon and Mars respectively.
•  Another notable feature was the launch of PSLV C37 in 2017 successfully deploying 104 satellites in sun-synchronous orbit.
Technical aspects
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: PSLV has a four-stage system comprising a combination of solid and liquid-fuelled rocket stages.
•  The first stage at the very bottom is solid fuelled, having six strap-on solid rocket boosters wrapped around it. Second stage is liquid fuelled (Vikas liquid engine) whereas the third stage has a solid fuelled rocket motor. At the fourth stage, the launcher uses a liquid propellant to boost in outer space.
•  PSLV earned its title 'the Workhorse of ISRO' through consistently delivering various satellites to Low Earth Orbits.
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: PSLV has a payload capacity of 1,050 kg for launching into the GeoSynchronous Transfer Orbit and 1,600 kg for the Polar Sun Synchronous Orbit.
•  The PSLV is also capable of placing multiple payloads into orbit, thus multi-payload adaptors are used in the payload fairing.

78.    Consider the following statements regarding POSHAN Abhiyaan.
1. It was launched by the government on the occasion of the International Women’s Day on 8th March, 2018.
2. NITI Aayog is the monitoring authority for POSHAN Abhiyaan.
3. The target of the missionis to eliminate stunting among children in the age group 0-6 years by 2022.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 3 only
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Poshan Abhiyaan:
The programme seeks to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women and lactating mothers.
Launched in 2018 with specific targets to be achieved by 2022.
It aims to reduce:
Stunting and wasting by 2% a year (total 6% until 2022) among children.
Anaemia by 3% a year (total 9%) among children, adolescent girls and pregnant women and lactating mothers.
The target of the mission is to bring down stunting among children in the age group 0-6 years from 38.4% to 25% by 2022.
NITI Aayog has played a critical role in shaping the POSHAN Abhiyaan. NITI Aayog has been entrusted with the task of closely monitoring the POSHAN Abhiyaan and undertaking periodic evaluations.

79.    POSHAN Abhiyaan, a flagship programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, targets to address
1.  Stunting
2.  Under-nutrition
3.  Low birth weight
4.  Anemia
 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
- A. 1, 2 and 3 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Answer: D
 Sol:
•  Prime Minister's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment (POSHAN Abhiyaan), or the National Nutrition Mission is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development that aims to improve nutrition amongst children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.
•  Launched in 2018, it is a multi-ministerial convergence mission with the vision to ensure attainment of malnutrition free India by 2022.
•  The mission targets to reduce stunting, under-nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively.
•  The mission also strives to achieve a reduction in Stunting from 38.4% (NFHS-4) to 25% by 2022 (Mission 25 by 2022).
 Significance
•  Amongst India’s most serious yet marginally addressed development challenges is malnutrition, which contributes significantly to the country’s disease burden.
•  Even as National Family Health Survey 2015-16 (NFHS-4) data shows that the country’s malnutrition rates have gone down, half of all children from families in the lowest income quintile are still stunted (51 percent) or underweight (49 percent).
•  Today, India is home to the largest number of stunted children (46.6 million) and wasted children (25.5 million) in the world. More than a third of children under five suffer from stunting and wasting and 40% of children between one and four are anaemic.
•  According to the NFHS-4, over 50% of pregnant and non-pregnant women were found to be anaemic.
 Poshan Maah
•  To ensure community mobilisation and bolster people’s participation, every year the month of September is celebrated as Rashtriya Poshan Maah under POSHAN Abhiyaan across the country.
•  The activities in the Poshan Maah are focussed on Social Behavioural Change and Counselling (SBCC). The broad themes are: antenatal care, optimal breastfeeding (early and exclusive), complementary feeding, anaemia, growth monitoring, girls’ education, diet, right age of marriage, hygiene, and sanitation, eating healthy and food fortification.

80.    With reference to the ‘Pulverized Coal Injection (PCI)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In this process big blocks of coal are placed in Blast Furnace.
2. In this method, there is lower emission in coke making.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution: In this process, fine granules of coal are placed in a Blast Furnace.
Enrich your learning:
Pulverized Coal Injection (PCI)
It was developed in the 19th century but was not implemented industrially until the 1970s.
It is a process that involves blowing large volumes of fine coal granules into the Blast Furnace (BF).
It provides a supplemental carbon source to speed up the production of metallic iron, reducing the need for coke production.
Benefits of PCI
Lower consumption of expensive coking coals.
Replacing BF coke with cheaper soft coking or thermal coals reduces reductant costs.
Extended coke oven life since less coke is required to be produced.
This is important as many coke ovens are reaching the end of their useful life and significant investment is needed to replace or maintain them.
PCI system is less costly than the cost of an additional coke oven battery.
Lower capital cost means lower depreciation and interest to be charged on the HM.
Higher BF productivity, that is, higher amount of HM produced per day.
Reduced overall emissions from the steel plant, in particular, lower emissions from coke-making due to the decreased coke requirements.

81.    Race to Zero global campaign, is carried out under the aegis of
 a) UNFCCC
 b) UNESCO
 c) World Bank
 d) OECD
Solution: a)
UN-backed Race To Zero is a global campaign to rally leadership and support from businesses, cities, regions, investors for a healthy, resilient, zero carbon recovery that prevents future threats, creates decent jobs, and unlocks inclusive, sustainable growth. It aims to create jobs while meeting goals of climate change and sustainable development.

82.    With reference to Rampa Rebellion, consider the following statements:
1. It marked the first major rebellion of people in Punjab towards the political order of British in 1849.
2. It was led by Alluri Sitarama Raju.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The Rampa Rebellion of 1922, also known as the Manyam Rebellion,was a tribal uprising, led by Alluri Sitarama Rajuin Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India. It began in August 1922 and lasted until the capture and killing of Raju in May 1924.

83.    Consider the following statements.
1. Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority edu­cational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities.
2. Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority edu­cational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward communities who are inadequately represented in these services and institutions.
Justice G. Rohini Committee was set up to examine the possibility of creating categories within OBCs for the reservation to ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. Its objectives include working out a mechanism, criteria, norm and parameters through a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within the OBCs and identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.
Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures.
Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST.

84.    Consider the following statements:
1. One of the major characteristics of peninsular rivers is that they form big delta as compared to Himalayan rivers.
2. Himalayan rivers are famous for the formation of Meanders.
3. Himalayan rivers form a V-shaped valley, while Peninsular rivers form a valley having a U-shape.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only 
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution:
Big deltas are formed by Himalayan Rivers.
Enrich your learning:
Himalayan rivers vs peninsular river
Himalayan Rivers are the water bodies that emanate from the north of Himalayan Mountain ranges. On the other extreme, Peninsular Rivers include those watercourses that arise from, the Western Ghats or Central Highlands.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, i.e., they have water all around the year. As against, Peninsular rivers are seasonal, in the sense that they have water during a particular period only.
Big deltas are formed by Himalayan Rivers. On the other extreme, some peninsular rivers like the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauveri form deltas, while the Narmada and the Tapi form estuaries.
While Himalayan rivers form meanders, there is an absence of meanders in the case of Peninsular rivers.
The bedrocks of Himalayan rivers are soft, sedimentary and easily erodible. Conversely, bedrocks of Peninsular rivers are hard, resistant and not easily erodible.
Himalayan rivers get water from snow and rain, whereas Peninsular rivers are fed by rain only.
The drainage basin of Himalayan rivers is comparatively larger than the Peninsular rivers.
Himalayan river's water helps in the irrigation of the Northern Plains. In contrast, Peninsular rivers irrigate Deccan Plateau.
Himalayan rivers form a V-shaped valley, while Peninsular watercourses form the valley having a U-shape.

85.    Consider the following statements regarding Saharia tribe.
1. Saharia are an ethnic group in the state of Gujarat.
2. They are classified as Particularly vulnerable tribal group.
3. They are particularly skilled in making catechu from Khair trees.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
 Saharia are an ethnic group in the state of Madhya Pradesh. Saharia tribe comes under the particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs).
The Saharias are expert woodsmen and forest product gatherers. They are particularly skilled in making catechu from Khair trees.

86.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Sample Registration System (SRS)’:
1. It comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. According to its report, the rural total fertility rate (TFR) is close to urban TFR.
3. It also shows India is experiencing an increase in the share of the working-age population.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution: All the statements are correct.
Enrich your learning:
Sample Registration System (SRS)
It is conducted by the Office of Registrar General which comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Findings of SRS
It shows trend will bring down the size of rural households to around the same as their urban counterparts.
The Total Fertility Level (TFR) in rural and urban India in 2019 has been estimated to be 2.3 and 1.7.
Rural TFR is now closest to urban TFR since 2006.
TFR is defined as the number of children a woman is expected to have in her reproductive age (15-49 years).
In the 2018 SRS, these numbers were 2.4 and 1.7.
The SRS report shows that India is already experiencing an increase in the share of the working-age population.
The share of those in the 0-15 age group decreased from 25.9% to 25.4% and that of the 15-59 age group increased to 66.5% from 66%.
The share of the 60 years and above population remained unchanged at 8.1%.
It underlines the consistent improvement in India’s maternal and child mortality indicators.
Maternal mortality ratio (MMR), or maternal deaths per 100,000 live births, has decreased from 113 in 2016-18 to 103 in 2017-19.
The under-five mortality rate decreased from 36 per 1000 in 2018 to 35 in 2019.
Difference between National Family and Health Survey and SRS data
A state-wise comparison shows that the difference between NFHS and SRS numbers is a result of a difference in the estimates of some of the most populous states.
NFHS reported a TFR of 2.0, which is lower than the replacement fertility level of 2.1. While SRS 2019 has reported a TFR equal to the replacement rate.
Replacement fertility level is the TFR at which a population can replace itself.
NFHS estimates of TFR in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar at 0.83 and 0.97 times that reported by the SRS.
The sex ratios reported by NFHS and SRS are not comparable.
SRS only estimates the sex ratio at birth (SRB) and is based on data for the past three years.
NFHS report both overall sex ratio and sex ratio at birth.
The sex ratio at birth in NFHS was 929 female children per 1000 male children.
The number is just 904 in the SRS.

87.    Consider the following statements about the Sarna Religion:
1. The followers of the faith believe in idol worship and revere the forces of nature, be it forests, hills, rivers, or land.
2. Tribals in Assam are Sarna followers.
3. They do not consider themselves Hindus.
Which of the above statement is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The followers of the faith do not believe in idol worship and instead revere the forces of nature, be it forests, hills, rivers, or land.
Tribals in Jharkhand are Sarna followers.
They do not consider themselves Hindus.

88.    Consider the following statements:
1. Sawfish is also known as carpenter sharks.
2. They are usually found in temperate regions of the world.
3. Large tooth sawfish is designated as critically endangered in IUCN red data list.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution: They are usually found in tropical and subtropical regions of the world.
Enrich your learning:
Sawfish
It is also known as carpenter sharks.
They are characterized by a long, narrow, flattened rostrum, or nose extension, lined with sharp transverse teeth, arranged in a way that resembles a saw.
They are among the largest fish with some species reaching lengths of about 7–7.6 m (23–25 ft).
They are found worldwide in tropical and subtropical regions in coastal marine and brackish estuarine waters, as well as freshwater rivers and lakes.
Conservation status
[Ref-IUCN]

89.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Shanghai Co-operation Organization (SCO)’
1. The SCO is governed by the Heads of State Council (HSC) which meets twice a year
2. The Headquarters of SCO is in Shanghai and that of RATS (Regional Anti-terrorist structure) executive committee in Tashkent
Select the correct statement/s:
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
The SCO is governed by the Heads of State Council (HSC), its supreme decision-making body, which meets once a year. Military exercises are also regularly conducted among members to promote cooperation and coordination against terrorism and other external threats, and to maintain regional peace and stability.
Statement 2  Incorrect
The Headquarters of SCO is in Beijing(china)  and the RATS(Regional Anti-terrorist structure) executive committee is based in Tashkent(Uzbekistan).
SCO-RATS is a permanent body of the SCO and is intended to facilitate coordination and interaction between the SCO member states in the fight against terrorism, extremism and separatism.
 Context: Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) conference in Tashkent in the last week of July may see a meeting between India’s External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and his Pakistani counterpart Bilawal Bhutto Zardari.

90.    In which one of the following States is Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary located?
 (a) Goa                             (b) Karnataka
 (c) Andhra Pradesh           (d) Kerala
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Saving Chenkurinji from climate change
The Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary derives its name from Gluta travancorica, a species endemic to the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve known as ‘Chenkurinji’ in local parlance.
Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area in the Western Ghats, India, located in Kollam district of Kerala and comes under the control of Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve.

91.    Consider the following statements regarding Ban on single-use plastic (SUP).
1. The Government has prohibited the manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of identified SUP commodities, including polystyrene and expanded polystyrene.
2. The violation of the ban will invite punitive action under Environment Protection Act (EPA) and under the bylaws of the respective municipal corporations.
3. Plastic used for packaging in the FMCG (fast moving consumer goods) sector is also banned.
4. The Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) guidelines states that, it is the producer’s responsibility to ensure environmentally-sound management of a product until the end of its life.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2                   b) 1, 2, 3
 c) 1, 2, 4               d) 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
 On August 12, 2021 the Ministry had issued a notification prohibiting the manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of identified SUP commodities, including polystyrene and expanded polystyrene from July 1, 2022.
The violation of the ban will invite punitive action, including a fine or a jail term or both, detailed under Section 15 of the Environment Protection Act (EPA) and under the bylaws of the respective municipal corporations.
Plastic used for packaging in the FMCG (fast moving consumer goods) sector is not banned but will be covered under the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) guidelines. The EPR is a producer’s responsibility to ensure environmentally-sound management of the product until the end of its life.

92.    Consider the following statements regarding small savings schemes in India.
1. Public Provident Fund (PPF), Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana and the National Savings Certificate (NSC) are categorised as small savings schemes.
2. Generally the Small savings schemes rates are linked to yields on benchmark government bonds.
3. As a social responsibility, the RBI always keeps the interest rates of small savings schemes higher than the CPI inflation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 2 only               b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3                   d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
The government’s move to keep interest rates on small savings instruments unchanged comes as a setback for small investors. At a time inflation is ruling over 7% and bond yields have risen over 7.4%, not only will the decision result in negative real rate of return – after adjusting for inflation — for savers and pensioners, but the status quo is also likely to prompt banks to go slow in hiking deposit rates.
Schemes like Public Provident Fund (PPF) and the National Savings Certificate (NSC) will continue to carry an annual interest rate of 7.1% and 6.8%, respectively, in the first quarter of the next fiscal.
 Barring PPF and Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, all other small saving instruments are currently fetching negative real returns amid high inflation.
 Small savings rates are linked to yields on benchmark government bonds, but despite the upward movement in G-Sec (government securities) yields, the government has not increased interest rates.

93.    Snake Island, recently seen in news is located in
 a) Baltic Sea         b) Black Sea
 c) Caspian Sea      d) Mediterranean Sea
Solution: b)

94.    Consider the following statements regarding Space Station.
1. A space station is a large spacecraft that remains in low-earth orbit for extended periods of time.
2. International Space Station is the first fully functional Space Station.
3. The ownership and use of International space station is established by intergovernmental treaties and agreements.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 2 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: c)
A space station is essentially a large spacecraft that remains in low-earth orbit for extended periods of time. It is like a large laboratory in space, and allows astronauts to come aboard and stay for weeks or months to carry out experiments in microgravity.
The Mir space station of the former Soviet Union, and later operated by Russia, was functional from 1986 to 2001. The ISS has been in space since 1998, and has been known for the exemplary cooperation between the five participating space agencies that have been running it: NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe), and CSA (Canada).
The ownership and use of the space station is established by intergovernmental treaties and agreements.

95.    What could be the possible impacts caused by the Space Tourism Industry?
1. The current growth trend of the space tourism indicates a potential for the depletion of the ozone layer above the Arctic.
2. The black carbon (BC) soot that is emitted by the rockets retains more heat in the atmosphere.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.   1 only
b.   2 only
c.   Both 1 and 2
d.   Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Impacts of space tourism
Unlike other sources of pollution, environmental damage caused by rockets is far greater, as they emit gaseous and solid chemicals directly into the upper atmosphere.
The space tourism’s current growth trends also indicate a potential for the depletion of the ozone layer above the Arctic.
This is because the pollutants from rocket fuel and heating caused by spacecraft returning to Earth, along with the debris caused by the flights are especially harmful to the ozone layer.
Black carbon (BC) soot that is emitted by rockets directly into the atmosphere have a far larger impact on the climate, as BC particles are almost 500 times more efficient at retaining heat.
The recovery of the ozone layer caused by the Montreal Protocol could be undermined.

96.    Consider the following statements:
1. Speaker of the legislative assembly shall vacate his/her office of he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly
2. Whenever the legislative assembly is dissolved the speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 not 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Usually, the speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following cases:
If he ceases to be a member of the assembly
If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and;
If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018

97.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Ranking of States on Support to Startup Ecosystems’
1. DPIIT has been conducting the States’ Start-up Ranking Exercise since 2014
2. Gujarat and Karnataka emerged as the Top Performers
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has been conducting the States’ Start-up Ranking Exercise since 2018 to facilitate the ease of building a start-up and doing business across the country.
Statement 2 Incorrect
Gujarat and Karnataka emerged as the Best Performers in a category of States which included NCT of Delhi. Meghalaya won the top honour among UTs and North-eastern (NE) States. While Kerala, Maharashtra, Orissa and Telangana got the Top Performers award among states, Jammu & Kashmir emerged as the Top Performer among UTs and NE states.
 Context – Results of Ranking of States’ Exercise 2021 on support to Start-up Ecosystems declared

98.    The Strait of Gibraltar connects
A.  Atlantic ocean and Mediterranean sea
B.  Aegean sea and Sea of marmara
C.  Black Sea and Azov sea
D.  Mediterranean sea and Red sea
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ]
The Strait of Gibraltar is a channel connecting the Mediterranean Sea with the Atlantic Ocean.
•  It lies between southernmost Spain and northwesternmost Africa.
•  The strait is an important gap, averaging 1,200 feet (365 metres) in depth in the arc formed by the Atlas Mountains of North Africa and the high plateau of Spain.

99.    Consider the following statements:
1. Stunting is defined as low weight-for-age.
2. Wasting is defined as low weight-for-height.
3. Underweight is defined as low weight-for-height.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Stunting is defined as low height-for-age.
Wasting is defined as low weight-for-height.
Underweight is defined as low weight-for-age.

100. With reference to the ancient history of India, the terms “Kurinji, Mullai, Marutham, Neithal and Paalai” refers to
 (a) places of exquisite stone art and architecture
 (b) landscapes of Sangam Age
 (c) ports handling foreign trade
 (d) important Buddhist pilgrimage centres
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
T.N. sends soil samples for a project relating to the new Parliament building
They pertain to the 5 ecological regions mentioned in ancient Tamil Sangam literature
Soil samples from five ecological regions mentioned in ancient Tamil Sangam literature — Kurinji, Mullai, Marutham, Neithal and Paalai — have been collected and sent to the capital recently.
The soil samples for Kurinji Tinai (mountains and slope) were collected from the Nilgiris, Kodaikanal and Palani Hills in Dindigul district, Kolli hills in Namakkal district, Yercaud in Salem district, Courtrallam in Tenkasi district and Jawadhu Hills in Tiruvannamalai district.
Soil samples from the foothills of the Eastern and Western Ghats in Coimbatore, Salem, Tirunelveli, Krishnagiri, Theni and Kanniyakumari districts have been collected for Mullai Tinai (forests and grasslands). Samples from Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Coimbatore, Tiruchi, Salem, Tirunelveli and Krishnagiri were collected for Marudham Tinai (plains, valleys and agricultural lands).
The soil samples for Neithal Tinai (coastal or seashore) were collected from Cuddalore, Nagapattinam, Thoothukudi and Kanniyakumari districts and those for Paalai Tinai (parched wasteland or desert) were collected from Ramanathapuram, Thoothukudi, Sivaganga and Virudhunagar districts. Some of the samples collected were also from some historical sites.

 

Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)