Daily Current Affairs Questions
August 2022 Part 7
Why in News
1.
AI for Agriculture Innovation
program
2. Balance of Payments (BOP)
3.
Bharatmala and Sagarmala
4.
biochar
5.
Bio-medical Waste Rules 2016
6.
Border with Myanmar
7. Caribbean
Community and Common Market (CARICOM)
8. Central Advisory Board on Archaeology (CABA)
9.
Central
Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
10. Cervical
cancer
11. Chief Justice of India
12. Chile.
13.
Citizenship
14.
Cloud seeding
15.
CoalBed
Methane
16. Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
17. Commission
for Air Quality Management (CAQM),
18. Compact
Total Irradiance Monitor (CTIM):
19.
Companies Auditors Report
Order
20.
Conservation
Agriculture
21. Copper
22.
Cotton
23. Crown Representative Police
24.
Currency
swap arrangements
25. Dam Safety Act 2021
26.
Deendayal
Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)
27.
Devaluation
28.
Diclofenac
29. Digi Yatra
30. Digital Bank
31. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
32. Dr
Rajendra Prasad Memorial Award
33. Drip Irrigation
34. Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs)
35. Election Commission
36. Environmental Impact Assessment
37.
e-Utthaan project
38.
Extended fund facility
39.
FAME
India Scheme
40.
Farm loan waiver schemes
41. Financial Services Institutions Bureau
(FSIB)
42. Floating Storage Regasification Unit
(FSRU):
43. Focusing Resources on Effective School Health (FRESH)
44. Forest fire incidents in India
45. Gene-editing
technique
46. Genome sequencing
47.
Global Gender Gap Index
48. GOAL Programme
49.
Golden Crescent
50. Goods and Services Tax (GST)
51.
Government Accounting
Standards Advisory Board (GASAB)
52.
Green Open Access Rules 2022
53. Handcuffing
54. Health of Refugee and Migrants
55. Heat Waves
56. High Court in India
57. Historical Sites Location
58. Human Development Index
59.
I2U2
grouping
60. iDEX
61.
Incheon Strategy
62. India and Maldives
63. India and Vietnam
64. India- Chile
65. India Innovation Index
66. Indian Foreign exchange reserves
67.
Indian Penal Code
68.
Information Technology Act,
2000
69.
INS Sindhudhvaj
70.
Insider trading
71. Intensified Mission Indradhanush
72. Intensified Mission Indradhanush
73.
International
Labour Organization's Conventions
74. Jagriti Mascot
75.
Jal Jeevan Mission
76. Jamdani
77.
Kala Azar
78.
Karakoram Anomaly
79. Kerguelen Plateau
80. Kharchi
festival
81. Kill Switch
82.
Kuno-Palpur National park
83.
Kutiyattam
84.
Lake Urmia
85.
Landlord port
86. Left Wing Extremism
87. Left Wing Extremism (LWE)
88.
Legal Metrology (Packaged
Commodities), Rules
89.
Legislative
councils
90. Mangarh
massacre
91.
Marburg virus
92. Maternal Mortality
93. Meiyu front
94.
Metaverse
95.
Migration
96. Minimum Support Price (MSP)
97.
Minority
98.
Minority status
99. Minority status
100.
Mission
Karmayogi
1.
Which one of the following
organisation launched the AI4AI (AI for Agriculture
Innovation) program?
a) The Asian Development Bank
b) The Food and Agriculture Organization
c) The World Economic Forum
d) The World Bank
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The World Economic Forum has launched the AI4AI (AI
for Agriculture Innovation) initiative and Food Innovation Hubs in
collaboration with the Agriculture Ministry and multiple State governments with
the intent of enabling and scaling PPPs for driving innovation across the
agriculture ecosystem, establishing toolkits and frameworks through evidence
based learning from pilots on ground.
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Current Account measures the flow of goods, services,
and investments into and out of the country.
2. It is a component of a country’s Balance of Payments (BOP).
3. As per the Economic Survey 2021-22, India reported a current account
deficit.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A 1 only
B 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Current Account:
Current Account shows export and import of visibles (also
called merchandise or goods - represent trade balance) and invisibles (also
called non-merchandise). Invisibles include services, transfers and income. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
Capital Account gives a summary of the net flow of both private and public
investment into an economy.
It represents a country’s foreign transactions and, like the capital account,
is a component of a country’s Balance of Payments (BOP). Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
According to the Economic Survey 2021-22, India’s net exports have
turned negative in the first half of 2021-22, compared to a surplus in the
corresponding period of 2020-21 which results in a current account deficit.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
3. Bharatmala and Sagarmala are related to which of the
following area
a) Education
b) Health
c) Infrastructure Creation
d) Skilling
Answer: (C)
Bharatmala
is an “umbrella” programme of the ministry to enhance road connectivity across
country while Sagarmala is the government’s flagship programme to develop and
modernise ports along the coast line.
Ministry
of Ports Shipping and Waterways has formulated a plan under the Sagarmala Programme
for carrying out “Holistic Development of Coastal Districts”
The successful completion of 7 years of National Flagship Sagarmala Programme
has contributed significantly to the comprehensive development of country’s
maritime trade and boost in economic growth.
4.
What
is the use of biochar in farming?
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of
nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium
to retain water for a longer time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.
Key Points
• Biochar, a substance resembling charcoal made by heating biomass without
oxygen.
○ The use of biochar in vertical farming can greatly boost productivity. As a
result, Statement 1 is true.
• Biochar may enhance the ability of legumes to naturally fix nitrogen in the
soil.
○ Biochar can reduce soil nitrogen emissions while sustaining the existence of
nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
○ And also improve soil nitrogen retention and nitrogen usage efficiency. As a
result, Statement 2 is true.
• Biochar can help your soil retain more water because it is permeable.
○ As a result, plants will have access to more water for a longer period of
time. As a result, Statement 3 is accurate.
5.
Consider the following
statements with respect to Bio-medical Waste Rules 2016:
1. These rules are notified under the Environment Protection Act 1986.
2. Bio-medical waste has been classified into 5 categories instead of 10 to
improve the segregation of waste at the source;
3. Include emissions limits for Dioxin and furans.
4. No occupier shall establish onsite treatment and disposal facility if the
service of a common bio-medical waste treatment facility is available at a
distance of a hundred km.
Which of the statement/s above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The rules are notified under the Environment Protection Act 1986.
Bio-medical waste has been classified into 4 categories instead of 10 to
improve the segregation of waste at source;
Inclusion of emissions limits for Dioxin and furans;
No occupier shall establish onsite treatment and disposal facility if a service
of a common bio-medical waste treatment facility is available at a distance of
seventy-five kilometers.
6.
Which of the following State
of India share border with Myanmar?
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Tripura
3. Manipur
4. Assam
Choose the correct option:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Myanmar shares a long land border of over 1600 Km with India as
well as a maritime boundary in the Bay of Bengal. Four North-Eastern
States viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram share
international boundary with Myanmar.
7. Consider
the following statements regarding the Caribbean Community and
Common Market (CARICOM)
1. It is a collective of 31 developing countries in the Caribbean.
2. It is an official United Nations Observer beneficiary.
3. It has 20 full-time members and 10 associate members.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 2 and 3
(d) Both 1 and 3
16.67%
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution
CARICOM is
a group of 20 developing countries in the Caribbean.
It has 15 full-time members and 5
associate members.
Enrich Your Learning
About CARICOM
[ref: TelesureEnglish
The
Caribbean Community and Common Market (CARICOM) is a grouping of twenty
countries - fifteen Member States and five Associate Members.
Members include Antigua and Barbuda, The Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Dominica,
Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Saint
Lucia, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, Suriname, and Trinidad and Tobago.
CARICOM rests on four main pillars -
economic integration
foreign policy coordination
human and social development
security
Why is it in the news?
The 43rd Caribbean Community and Common Market (CARICOM) Conference was held at
Paramaribo recently.
8. Recently, the Government of India has re-constituted the Central Advisory Board on Archaeology (CABA). Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding the re-constituted CABA?
1. It will include former Director-Generals of ASI.
2. The provision for the Archaeological Survey of India collaborating with
related Indian Universities for Archaeological Research has been removed.
3. The board will be meeting only once a year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Recently, the Government has re-constituted the Central
Advisory Board on Archaeology (CABA).
The CABA has been constituted to strengthen contacts between the Archaeological
Survey of India (ASI) and those in the field of archaeological research.
The board will include “five persons nominated in their personal
capacities by the Government of India” and former Director-Generals of ASI.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The board will meet once a year and its functions would include
advising the Centre on “matters relating to archaeology” referred to by its members.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
It will promote closer contacts of the Archaeological Survey of India
with Indian Universities conducting Archaeological Research. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
It will promote the studies related to application of archaeological
principles, training future Archaeologists, and closer association of learned
societies in India and of the State Governments with the activities of the ASI.
9.
Consider
the following statements about the Central Drugs
Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO).
1. It functions under the Ministry of
Chemicals and Fertilizers as the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India.
2. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act,
1940, CDSCO is responsible for approval of Drugs and Conduct of Clinical
Trials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Central
Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) under the Directorate General of
Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare is the National
Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. Its headquarter is located in New Delhi
and also has six zonal offices spread across the country.
• The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940
and rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state
regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics. It envisages uniform
implementation of the provisions of the Act & Rules made there under for
ensuring the safety, rights and well being of the patients by regulating the
drugs and cosmetics.
• CDSCO is constantly striving to bring
out transparency, accountability and uniformity in its services in order to
ensure safety, efficacy and quality of the medical product manufactured,
imported and distributed in the country.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under the
Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for approval of Drugs, Conduct of
Clinical Trials, laying down the standards for Drugs, control over the quality
of imported Drugs in the country and coordination of the activities of State
Drug Control Organizations by providing expert advice with a view of bring
about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
10. Consider
the following statements regarding cervical cancer:
1. It affects soft tissues, such as muscle, fat or blood vessels.
2. Pelvic Pain and bleeding in post-menopausal women are the symptoms
of Cervical Cancer.
3. Long-lasting infection with certain types of Human Papillomavirus
vaccine (HPV) is the main cause of cervical cancer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution:
Sarcoma
cancer affects soft or connective tissues, such as muscle, fat, bone, cartilage
or blood vessels.
Enrich your Learning
Cervical cancer
It is a common sexually transmitted infection.
The main cause of cervical cancer is the long-lasting
infection with certain types of HPV (Human Papillomavirus
vaccine).
It is preventable, but kills one woman every
eight minutes in the country.
It is preventable as long as it is detected early and managed effectively.
It is the second most common cancer type and
the second most common cause of cancer death in women of
reproductive age (15–44).
It is a type of cancer that occurs in the cells of the cervix i.e.,
the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina.
Symptoms
In the early stages of cervical cancer, a person may experience no
symptoms at all.
The most common symptoms of cervical cancer are:
bleeding between periods
bleeding after sexual intercourse
bleeding in post-menopausal women
discomfort during sexual intercourse
vaginal discharge with a strong odour
vaginal discharge tinged with blood
pelvic pain
Types of Cervical cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma:
This type of cervical cancer begins in the thin, flat cells (squamous
cells) lining the outer part of the cervix, which projects into the vagina.
Most cervical cancers are squamous cell carcinomas.
Adenocarcinoma
This type of cervical cancer begins in the column-shaped glandular cells
that line the cervical canal.
Status of India
India accounts for about a fifth of the global burden,
with 1.23 lakh cases and around 67,000 deaths per year.
Less than 10% of Indian women get screened.
Why in News?
Recently, Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) granted market
authorisation to Serum Institute to produce India's first Quadrivalent Human
Papillomavirus vaccine (qHPV) against cervical cancer.
11. The provision for the appointment of the Chief Justice of India by the President is provided under which of the following
constitutional provisions?
A Article 78
B Article 112
C Article 118
D Article 124
Explanation
The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the
Supreme Court (SC) are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article
124 of the Constitution.
As far as the CJI is concerned, the outgoing CJI recommends his successor.
The Union Law Minister forwards the recommendation to the Prime Minister who,
in turn, advises the President.
It is common to refer to the office of CJI as primus inter pares – first
amongst equals.
Besides his adjudicatory role, the CJI also plays the role of the
administrative head of the Court.
In his administrative capacity, the Chief Justice exercises the prerogative of
allocating cases to particular benches.
The Chief Justice also decides the number of judges that will hear a case.
Thus, he can influence the result by simply choosing judges that he thinks may
favour a particular outcome.
Hence, option D is correct.
12. Which of the following countries has recently re-written
its constitution?
A Burkina Faso
B Chile
C South Sudan
D Eritrea
Explanation
In 2019, a wave of protests triggered by social
inequality, the cost of living, and probity in governance engulfed the country
of Chile.
At the heart of the protests was the fact that Chile’s Constitution was no
longer fit for purpose.
Drafted in 1980, under the military regime of General Augusto Pinochet, the
Chilean Constitution embodied what is popularly known as Chicago School
economics.
Consequently, one of the demands of the Chilean protesters was to replace
Pinochet’s Constitution with a democratic Constitution, written by the
People of Chile, for themselves.
The Chilean government eventually conceded to this demand.
This led to the formation of a directly elected Constituent Assembly, which was
strikingly representative: 51% of the Constituent Assembly members were women,
and there were 17 reserved seats for indigenous peoples.
Constituent Assembly members also included people from across the
socio-economic and geographical spectrum of Chile, sexual minorities too.
Hence, option B is correct.
13.
Consider the following
statements
1. The Constitution mentions all the ways for acquiring citizenship in India.
2. India allows its citizens to remit 1 Mn $ per year per person.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D)
Explanation: There is no explicit mention of ways of acquiring
citizenship in the Constitution. These ways are mentioned in Citizenship Act
1955. India allows its citizens to remit 250,000$ per year per person.
14.
With reference to cloud seeding, consider the following
statements:
1. Hygroscopic cloud seeding slows down the droplet coalescence in the gaseous
clouds, leading to production of small droplets that start to condense.
2. Glaciogenic cloud seeding trigger ice production in super cooled clouds,
leading to precipitation.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : b
Cloud seeding
Hygroscopic cloud seeding aims at speeding up droplet coalescence in liquid
clouds, leading to production of large droplets that start to precipitate.
Cloud seeding material consists usually of large salt particles dispersed by
some means to the cloud base.
The idea of the other technique, glaciogenic cloud seeding, is to trigger ice
production in super cooled clouds, leading to precipitation.
Glaciogenic cloud seeding is usually done by dispersing efficient ice nuclei,
such as silver iodide particles or dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) into the
cloud, causing heterogeneous ice nucleation.
Glaciogenic cloud seeding is usually applied to convective clouds, or winter
orographic clouds.
The largest body of scientific research on cloud seeding has been done on AgI
seeding on these two cloud types.
15.
Consider
the following statements about CoalBed Methane.
1. It is an unconventional form of
natural gas found in coal deposits.
2. It is called ‘sweet gas’ as it
generally does not contain hydrogen sulphide.
3. CoalBed Methane is considered to be
more environmentally friendly than coal and oil energy sources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Sol:
• Statement 1 is correct: Coalbed
methane (CBM) is an unconventional form of natural gas found in coal deposits
or coal seams and now considered an alternative source for augmenting India’s
energy resource.
• CBM is formed during the process of
coalification – the transformation of plant material into coal.
• It is considered a valuable energy
resource with reserves and production having grown nearly every year since
1989.
• Coalbed methane is distinct from
typical sandstone or other conventional gas reservoirs, as the methane is
stored within the coal by a process called adsorption.
• The methane is present as lining the
inside of pores within the coal.
• The open fractures in the coal can
also contain free gas or can be saturated with water.
• Further, unlike natural gas from
conventional reservoirs, coalbed methane contains very little heavier
hydrocarbons such as propane or butane, and no natural-gas condensate.
• Statements 2 & 3 are correct: It
is called ‘sweet gas’ as it generally does not contain hydrogen sulphide and is
considered to be more environmentally friendly than oil, coal or even
conventional natural gas. The gas often contains up to a few percent of carbon
dioxide.
India's CBM potential:
• India has the fifth-largest coal
reserves in the world, and CBM has been looked at as a clean alternative fuel
with significant prospects.
• India’s CBM resources are estimated at
around 92 trillion cubic feet (TCF), or 2,600 billion cubic metres (BCM).
• The country’s coal and CBM reserves
are found in 12 states of India, with the Gondwana sediments of eastern India
holding the bulk.
• The Damodar Koel valley and Son valley
are prospective areas for CBM development.
16. Consider the following statements:
1. The word Bail is not defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) in India.
2. The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a
matter of right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
India’s Law on Bail:
The CrPC does not define the word bail but only
categories offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and
‘non-bailable’. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as
a matter of right. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Section 436 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, lays down that a
person accused of a bailable offence under I.P.C. can be granted bail. On
the other hand, Section 437 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 lays down
that the accused does not have the right to bail in non-bailable offences. It
is the discretion of the court to grant bail in case of non-bailable offences.
This would involve release on furnishing a bail bond, without or without
security.
In case of non-bailable offences, a magistrate would determine if the accused
is fit to be released on bail.
Non-bailable offences are cognisable, which enables the police officer to
arrest without a warrant.
17. In context
of Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), consider
the following statements:
1. It was set up for Air Quality Management in National Capital
Region and adjoining areas.
2. It is an advisory body established under Air (Prevention and
Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
3. The Commission took the place of organisations state and federal
pollution control boards in which it has power to issue orders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution:
It is a statutory body established under Air Quality Management in
National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance in October 2020.
Enrich your Learning
Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)
It was
established under Air Quality Management in National Capital
Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance in October 2020.
It is a statutory authority.
Mandate:
The Commission has been set up for Air Quality Management in
National Capital Region and adjoining areas for better
co-ordination, research, identification and resolution of problems surrounding
the air quality index.
Headquarters:
The headquarters of the Commission is at Delhi.
The Act also provides for establishment of offices at other places in
National Capital Region or Adjoining Areas.
Composition:
Chairperson: Government official of the rank of Secretary or
Chief Secretary.
It will be a permanent body and will have over 20 members.
Jurisdiction:
The commission will have exclusive jurisdiction over the
NCR, including areas in Haryana, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan,
in matters of air pollution.
It will also work along with Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB) and Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), apart from
the respective state governments.
Powers
The Commission will supersede bodies such as
the central and state pollution control boards of
Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, UP and Rajasthan.
It will have the powers to issue directions to these
state governments on issues pertaining to air pollution.
Functions
Co-ordination of actions with five State/UT
Governments, officers and authorities.
Planning and execution of programme for the region.
Laying down parameters for the quality
of air.
Laying down parameters for emission and discharge of
environmental pollutants.
Restriction of areas in which any Industries, operations
or processes or class of industries, operations or processes, that have
implications on air quality in the region.
Investigation and Research.
Inspection of any premises, plant, equipment, machinery,
manufacturing or other processes materials or substances.
Giving directions to authorities or persons to take steps
for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.
Collection and dissemination for information in respect
of matters relating to air pollution.
Preparation of manuals, codes, guides relating to prevention,
control and abatement of air pollution.
Why in News?
As per the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), all
industries in the National Capital Region using polluting fuels like coal and
diesel must completely switch to piped natural gas or biofuels.
18. Consider
the following statements with reference to the Compact Total Irradiance
Monitor (CTIM):
1. It is a miniature version of the Total Irradiance Monitor (TIM) instrument.
2. It has Vertically Aligned Carbon Nanotube (VACNT) which reduces its weight
significantly.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution
Both the
statements are correct.
Enrich Your Learning
About CTIM
It is a CubeSat instrument meant to measure the “total
solar irradiance” (TSI) or all the Earth-directed energy coming
from the Sun.
CTIM features several improvements to the original TIM design.
The Total Irradiance Monitor (TIM) was launched in 2003 on the NASA Earth
Observing System (EOS) SOlar Radiation and Climate Experiment (SORCE).
The TIM, which measures TSI, is used to determine the sensitivity of the
Earth’s climate to the natural effects of solar forcing.
CTIM’s novel Vertically Aligned Carbon Nanotube (VACNT) bolometers
mark a significant milestone.
These silicon-based bolometers will dramatically reduce the weight of
the CTIM.
They are nearly ideal optical absorbers, exhibiting good
thermal conductivity along their length and resistance to robust UV exposure.
Why is TSI Significant?
TSI is a major component of the Earth’s radiation budget,
which is the overall balance between incoming and outgoing solar energy.
Increasing amounts of greenhouse gases trap increasing amounts of solar energy
within the atmosphere.
That increase is what causes climate change and
subsequently rising sea levels and severe weather.
Why is it in the news?
NASA will dispatch the CTIM to measure the total solar irradiance or the solar
power per unit area incident on Earth's upper atmosphere.
19.
With reference to the revised Companies Auditors Report Order, consider the following
statements:
1. The new order focuses on property, plants, equipment and intangible assets.
Reporting of proceedings under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988
is also included in the order.
2. Auditors are required to report on compliance with RBI directives and the
provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, to deemed deposits.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer : d
Companies Auditors Report Order (CARO)
Unlike CARO 2016, which required reporting on all fixed assets, the new
requirements focus on property, plants, equipment and intangible assets.
Reporting of proceedings under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988
was also included.
In addition, the auditor must report on compliance if the company was
sanctioned working capital limits above Rs 5 crore or more from banks or
financial institutions.
Auditors are also required to report on compliance with RBI directives and the
provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, to deemed deposits.
There is also a comprehensive reporting requirement for default in the
repayment of loans/other borrowings or interest payment.
Auditors also had to report on the treatment of whistle-blower complaints
received by the company.
20.
With
reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes
significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1, 3 and 4
- 2, 3, 4 and 5
- 2, 4 and 5
- 1, 2, 3 and 5
Explanation
The Correct Answer is 2, 4 and 5.
Key Points
• Conservation agriculture (CA) is described as "a concept for
resource-saving agricultural crop production that strives to achieve acceptable
profits along with high and sustained production levels while concurrently
conserving the environment" by the Food and Agricultural Organization of
the United Nations.
• Conservation agriculture methods use soils for crop production with the goal
of limiting excessive soil mixing and keeping crop leftovers on the soil
surface to reduce environmental harm.
• The three CA principles are:
○ minimal soil disturbance and tillage
○ a continuous layer of living mulches and crop wastes covering the soil
○ Intercropping and crop rotation
21. Consider the following statements:
1. China is the world’s largest producer and consumer of
refined copper.
2. In the last four years (2016-17 to 2020-21), India has performed quite well
in terms of producing refined copper and has shifted from its net importer to
net exporter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Copper, a key industrial metal, is the metal for electrification.
Whether it is photovoltaics or electric vehicles, grid and recharging
infrastructure, copper is nearly indispensable.
Studies have shown that copper demand is set to nearly double by 2035 and will
continue to grow beyond that till maybe 2050.
Even currently, there is a small mismatch between supply and demand. While
world production of refined copper is at 23-24 million tonnes (mt), consumption
demand is at 24-25 mt as per World Bank data.
China is the world’s largest producer (10 mt) and consumer (13-14 mt) of
refined copper. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
As a mover and shaker of the world metals market, developments in China can
potentially impact the global copper market. Even a small increase in Chinese
demand can send the price soaring higher and vice versa.
But the looming supply gap in this important metal can adversely impact
electrification plans through renewables.
Broadly, from the current levels, world copper prices can potentially double to
reach say $15,000/t. It can make the cost of non-fossil fuel electrification
somewhat unviable.
In India, refined copper production has been gradually declining. From a high
of 799,000 tonnes in 2016-17, output has gradually fallen to 364,000 tonnes in
2020-21, as per government data.
Worse, from being the net exporter (333,000 tonnes) in 2017-18, India has
slipped to become a net importer of copper (-31,000 tonnes) in 2020-21. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
One critical reason for this serious slippage is that the Sterlite copper
smelting plant in Tuticorin (Tamil Nadu) with production capacity of 400,000
tonnes a year has remained closed for the last four years.
22.
“The
crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at
least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth.
A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for
the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is the crop?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The correct answer is Cotton.
Key Points
• Around the world, cotton is grown on a range of soil types.
• Cotton is best grown in deep, fertile soil that has a sufficient amount of
humus, a high water holding capacity, and good internal drainage.
• Cotton can be cultivated everywhere there are 180 to 200 frost-free days per
year.
• Germination is best at temperatures between 20 and 30 degrees Celsius.
• If the temperature is lower than 18 C, germination will be delayed.
• Therefore, Cotton is the right Answer.
23. Which of the Central Armed
police Force is called “Crown Representative Police”?
A Central Reserve Police Force
B Indo-Tibetan Border Police
C Border Security Force
D Central Industrial Security Force
Explanation
The Central Reserve Police Force
(CRPF) is the premier central police
force of the Union of India for internal security. Originally
constituted as the Crown Representative Police on 27th July 1939.
It became the Central Reserve Police Force on enactment of the
CRPF Act on 28th December 1949.
The Force has grown into a big organization with 246 battalions (Bns),
(including 6 Mahila Bns, 15 RAF Bns, 10 CoBRA Bns, 5 Signal Bns and 1
Special Duty Group, 1 Parliament Duty Group).
The Parliament Duty Group is an elite CRPF unit tasked with providing armed
protection to Parliament House.
The Special Duty Group is an elite battalion of the CRPF tasked with providing
security for the outer cordon of the Prime Minister's official residence.
Hence option A is correct.
24.
Consider
the following statements about currency swap
arrangements.
1. It is a type of credit line from one
country to another at a fixed exchange rate.
2. India has never extended currency
swap operations with any country so far.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
What are currency swap arrangements?
• Statement 1 is correct: In the swap
arrangement, generally a country provides dollars to a foreign central bank,
which, at the same time, provides the equivalent funds in its currency to the
former, based on the market exchange rate at the time of the transaction.
• The parties agree to swap back these
quantities of their two currencies at a specified date in the future, which
could be the next day or even two years later, using the same exchange rate as
in the first transaction.
Similar arrangements
• The RBI offers similar swap lines to
central banks in the SAARC region within a total corpus of $2 billion.
• This facility originally came into
operation in 2012 to provide a backstop line of funding for short-term foreign
exchange liquidity requirements or balance of payment crises until longer term
arrangements were made.
• Under the facility, RBI offers swaps
of varying sizes in US Dollars, Euro or Indian Rupee to each SAARC member
country depending on their two months import requirement.
• India also has a $75 billion bilateral
currency swap line with Japan, which has the second highest dollar reserves
after China. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Advantages of such arrangements
• These swap operations usually carry no
exchange rate risk, as transaction terms are set in advance. The absence of an
exchange rate risk is one of the major benefits of such a facility. Hence
• This facility provides the country,
which is getting the dollars, with the flexibility to use these reserves at any
time in order to maintain an appropriate level of balance of payments or
short-term liquidity.
25. Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding the Dam Safety Act 2021?
1. Under this act, both the Committee on Dam Safety and
Dam Safety Authority will be established at both Central and State Levels.
2. The National Committee on Dam Safety to be constituted under this act, will
be chaired by the Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Rajya Sabha in December 2021 passed the landmark Dam
Safety Bill (2019), paving the way for enactment of the Dam Safety Act in the
country.
The Dam Safety Act provides for adequate surveillance, inspection, operation
and maintenance of all the large dams in the country so as to prevent dam failure
related disasters.
It provides for an institutional mechanism at both Central and State levels to
address structural and non-structural measures required for ensuring the safe
functioning of dams.
Features of the Act:
As per the provision of the Act, a National Committee on Dam Safety
(NCDS) will be constituted to help evolve uniform dam safety policies,
protocols, and procedures.
The committee will be chaired by the chairperson of the Central Water
Commission. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
It also provides for the establishment of a National Dam Safety
Authority (NDSA) as a regulatory body for ensuring the nationwide
implementation of dam safety policies and standards.
At the State level, the Bill prescribes for the constitution of State
Committees on Dam Safety (SCDS) and the establishment of the State Dam
Safety Organizations (SDSO). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Dam Safety Act also addresses in a comprehensive manner, critical
concerns related to dam safety on account of emerging climate change related
challenges.
Through this Act, the Dam owners are required to provide resources for timely
repair and maintenance of the dam structure, along with related machinery.
The Act has penal provisions, involving offences and penalties, for ensuring
compliance of the provisions.
26.
Which
one of the following statements is not correct about the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission
(DAY-NRLM)?
A. It was launched by the Ministry of
Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
B. NRLM rests on three major pillars –
universal social mobilization, financial inclusion and livelihood enhancement.
C. It works towards bringing at least
one member from all poor families into the Self Help Group (SHG) network.
D. In case of extremely vulnerable
persons like Persons with Disabilities (PwDs), elders etc., NRLM mobilizes both
men and women.
Which of the above statement is correct?
Sol:
• Statement 1 is incorrect:
Aajeevika-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) was launched by the
Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) in 2011.
• Aided in part through investment
support by the World Bank, the scheme aimed at helping the rural poor by
enabling them to increase household income through sustainable livelihood
enhancements and improved access to financial services.
• NRLM has the mandate of reaching out
to 100 million rural poor in 6 lakh villages across the country.
• In 2015, the program was renamed
Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).
• Statement 2 is correct: NRLM rests on
three major pillars – universal social mobilization, financial inclusion and
livelihood enhancement.
Implementation
• Statement 3 is correct: It works
towards bringing at least one member (preferably a woman) from all poor
families into the Self Help Group (SHG) network.
• The SHGs and their federations offer
their members microfinance services such as – savings, credit, bank linkages,
insurance, remittances, equity etc. They also offer collectivization and group
activities. The SHGs offer social security and social action in various fronts
including health, nutrition, food, gender, convergence etc., directly or
through their federations.
• NRLM’s priority is to reach out to the
poorest, most vulnerable and marginalized. It begins with targeting women and
they are considered as representatives of their households.
• Statement 4 is correct: In case of
extremely vulnerable persons like Persons with Disabilities (PwDs), elders
etc., NRLM mobilizes both men and women.
• The NRLM Target Households (NTH) are
identified through the Participatory Identification of Poor (PIP). The PIP is a
community-driven process where the Community Based Organisations (CBOs)
themselves identify the poor in the village using participatory tools. The list
of poor identified by the CBO is vetted by the Gram Sabha.
27.
What are the likely impacts of
the devaluation of a Currency?
1. Improvement in the competitiveness of the domestic exports.
2. Imports become expensive.
3. Improvement in the trade balance
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The impact of currency devaluation includes:
Exports become cheaper to foreign customers.
Imports become expensive.
A devaluation tends to cause inflation.
The competitiveness of domestic exports improves in the foreign markets.
28.
The
drug ‘Diclofenac’, sometimes seen in the
news, is related to?
- A. First line drugs to treat visceral leishmaniasis
- B. Artificial preservatives in processed foods
- C. Anti-inflammatory drug administered to livestock
- D. Common chemical used in the soap industry
Answer: C
Sol:
• Diclofenac is a common
anti-inflammatory drug administered to livestock and is used to treat the
symptoms of inflammation, fevers and/or pain associated with disease or wounds.
It was widely used in India beginning in the 1990s.
• But vultures which eat dead cattle are
vulnerable to Diclofenac. This drug causes kidney failure in the vultures.
• Though the drug was banned in India in
2006, it is reportedly still available for use.
29. Consider the following statements with respect to Digi Yatra:
1. It is a project of the Ministry of Civil Aviation for
digital processing of passengers at airports.
2. It is built on 4 key pillars - Connected Passengers, Connected Airports,
Connected Flying and Connected Systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
DIGI YATRA
The 'Digi Yatra' is an initiative coordinated by the
Ministry of Civil Aviation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Digi Yatra - Digital processing of passengers at the airports. Passengers
will be automatically processed based on facial recognition system at check
points like, Entry point check, Entry in to Security Check, Aircraft
Boarding, additionally this will also facilitate self-Bag Drop and Check-in,
using facial recognition to identify pax and data recall. Digi Yatra will
facilitate paperless travel and avoid identity checks at multiple points.
Digi Yatra platform will be built on 4 key pillars, like Connected
Passengers, Connected Airports, Connected Flying and Connected Systems
which can make it possible over a period of time for passengers to:
Plan their trips efficiently by identifying price trends and estimate future
airfares at the time of ticket booking,
Optionally link their Aadhaar to airlines and other ecosystem players at
the time of booking for faster airport entry and automated check-ins without
requiring any paper-based interventions,
Walk-through security scanners swiftly owing to advanced biometric
security solutions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It provides a decentralised mobile wallet-based identity management
platform which is cost effective and addresses privacy/data protection
issues in implementation of Digi Yatra.
Digi Yatra Foundation:
It has been set up as a joint venture (JV) company in 2019 under
Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013.
The Foundation was formed, with the objective of creating the Digi Yatra
Central Ecosystem (DYCE).
Digi Yatra Foundation will be a pan-India entity and the custodian
of the Passenger ID validation process.
Airports Authority of India (AAI) will identify their airports where
Digi Yatra would be implemented in a phased manner.
30. With reference to the Digital Bank, consider the following
statements:
1. It will be defined in the Banking Regulation Act,
1949.
2. It shall have its own balance sheet and legal existence.
3. It will not be subject to prudential and liquidity norms on a par with
existing commercial banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Digital Bank:
It will be defined in the Banking Regulation Act, 1949,
and shall have its own balance sheet and legal existence. Hence, statement 1
and 2 are correct.
It will be different from the 75 Digital Banking Units (DBUs) -- announced
by Finance Minister in Union Budget 2022-23 -- which are being set up to push
digital payments, banking and fintech innovations in underserved areas.
A DBU is a specialised fixed point business unit or hub housing certain minimum
digital infrastructure for delivering digital banking products and services as
well as servicing existing financial products and services digitally in
self-service mode at any time.
Digital banks will be subject to prudential and liquidity norms on a par
with existing commercial banks. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
31. Which of the following schemes launched by the Government
of India involve the transfer of funds through the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Scheme?
1. PM KISAN
2. Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin
3. National AYUSH Mission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 and 3 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme:
It has been visioned as an aid for simpler/faster flow of
information and funds to the beneficiaries and to reduce fraud in the delivery
system.
It is a mission or an initiative by the government of India started on 1st
January 2013 as a way to reform the government delivery system.
Components of DBT: Primary components in the implementation of DBT
schemes include Beneficiary Account Validation System, a robust payment and
reconciliation platform integrated with RBI, NPCI, Public & Private Sector
Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Cooperative Banks (core banking solutions of
banks, settlement systems of RBI, Aadhaar Payment Bridge of NPCI) etc.
Other Schemes involving DBT:
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, National Food Security Mission, Pradhan
Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana, PM KISAN, Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin, Atal
Pension Yojana, National AYUSH Mission.
Hence, option D is correct.
32. In which
field is the newly set up Dr Rajendra Prasad Memorial Award being awarded?
(a)
Outstanding public administration in the field of academic excellence
(b) Outstanding leadership in the field of higher education
(c) Excellence in the field of economics research
(d) Outstanding mentorship in the field of primary education
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution
Dr Rajendra
Prasad Memorial Award in public administration in the field of academic
excellence was announced in memory of the first President of India.
Enrich Your Learning
About Dr Rajendra Prasad
Dr Rajendra Prasad was the first president of independent
India.
He won a scholarship to study at the University of Calcutta and joined the
Presidency College in Calcutta, where is did his master's in
Economics.
He was an active social activist in his college days
and joined the Dawn Society and the Servants of India Society.
He later won his doctorate in law from the University of Patna and
started his legal career in the Patna High Court.
He joined the Indian National Congress in 1911 and
later quit his law career to join the freedom struggle full-time.
He was chosen to be the Congress president in the 1934 Congress
Session in Bombay, and again in 1939.
He became in charge of the Food and Agriculture Department in the
1946 Nehru-led interim government.
In December 1946, he was elected as the Constituent Assembly’s
President.
After the ratification of the Constitution, Dr Rajendra Prasad was chosen to be
India’s first President.
He remained president till 1962 for a period of 12 years and
is the longest-serving president to date.
He passed away in 1963 in Patna.
Why is it in the news?
Recently, the Science and Technology Minister announced the setting up of the
Dr Rajendra Prasad Memorial Award in public administration in the field of academic
excellence in memory of the first President of India.
33. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Drip Irrigation?
1. It can be practiced for a large variety of crops;
vegetables, orchard crops, flowers and plantation crops.
2. Field leveling is not necessary for drip irrigation.
3. Soil erosion and weed growth is lessened in this type of irrigation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 and 3 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Drip Irrigation:
In drip irrigation, water is applied near the plant root
through emitters or drippers, on or below the soil surface, at a low rate
varying from 2-20 liters per hour. The soil moisture is kept at an optimum
level with frequent irrigation.
Among all irrigation methods, drip irrigation is the most efficient and can
be practiced for a large variety of crops, especially in vegetables,
orchard crops, flowers and plantation crops. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Merits: Fertilizer and nutrient loss is minimized due to localized
application and reduced leaching. Field leveling is not necessary.
Recycled non-potable water can be used. Water application efficiency increases.
Soil erosion and weed growth is lessened. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3
are correct.
Demerits: Initial cost can be more, can result in clogging, wastage of
water, time and harvest, if not installed properly.
34. In context of Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs), consider the following statements:
1. The word “Eco-Sensitive Zone” is mentioned in the
Environment (Protection) Act 1986.
2. ESZs are uniform shock absorber areas all around Protected Areas, National
Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs):
The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) of
the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
stipulated that state governments should declare land falling within 10 km
of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco fragile
zones or Eco Sensitive Zones (ESZs) under the Environmental
(Protection) Act, 1986.
However, the Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not mention the word
“Eco-sensitive Zones". Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Section 3(2)(v) of the Act, says that the Central Government can
restrict areas in which any industries, operations or processes shall not be
carried out or shall be carried out subject to certain safeguards.
Besides the section 5 (1) of this act says that central government can
prohibit or restrict the location of industries and carrying on certain
operations or processes on the basis of considerations like the biological
diversity of an area, maximum allowable limits of concentration of pollutants
for an area, environmentally compatible land use, and proximity to protected
areas.
The above two clauses have been effectively used by the government to declare
Eco-Sensitive Zones or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFA).
The same criteria have been used by the government to declare No
Development Zones also.
While the 10-km rule is implemented as a general principle, the
extent of its application can vary.
Areas beyond 10-km can also be notified by the Union government as ESZs,
if they hold larger ecologically important “sensitive corridors.”
Eco-sensitive zones may not be uniform all around and it could be variable
width and extent. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
35. Under which article of Indian Constitution, Election Commission is vested with the Power to supervise and conduct free and fair
elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures?
A Article 323
B Article 324
C Article 325
D Article 326
Explanation
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a
constitutional body. It was established by the Constitution of India to
conduct and regulate elections in the country.
Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with elections and establishes a
commission for these matters.
Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of
superintendence, direction, and control of elections to parliament, state
legislatures, the office of the president of India, and the office of
vice-president of India shall be vested in the Election commission.
36. With reference to the Environmental Impact Assessment Notification 2006, consider the following statements:
1. It classified the developmental projects into Category
A and Category B.
2. Category A projects are appraised by the State Level Environment Impact
Assessment Authority (SEIAA) and State Level Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC).
3. Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutorily backed by the
Environment Protection Act, 1986.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Environmental Impact Assessment
Notification 2006
Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutorily
backed by the Environment Protection Act, 1986 which contains various
provisions on EIA methodology and process. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Decentralization of Project Clearances: It classified the developmental
projects in two categories:
Category A (national level appraisal): projects are appraised by Impact
Assessment Agency (IAA) and the Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC). Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
Category B (state level appraisal): State Level Environment Impact
Assessment Authority (SEIAA) and State Level Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC)
provide clearance to the Category B projects. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Introduction of Different Stages: The Amendment introduced four stages into
EIA Cycle, Screening, Scoping, Public hearing and Appraisal.
Category A projects require mandatory environmental clearance and thus they do
not have to undergo the screening process.
Category B projects undergo a screening process and are further classified into
B1 (Mandatorily requiring EIA) and B2 (Not requiring EIA).
Projects with Mandatory Clearance: Projects such as mining, thermal power
plants, river valley, infrastructure (road, highway, ports, harbours and
airports) and industries including very small electroplating or foundry units
are mandated to get environment clearance.
37.
The e-Utthaan project, recently seen in news, tells
about:
a. Capturing online data based on funds allocated under Scheduled
Caste Sub Plan (SCSP)
b. Spending of funds related to Tribal sub plan
c. Database about the usage of Nirbhaya Fund
d. Centralized database about usage of funds in Compensatory
Afforestation programme
Answer : a
e-Utthaan project
e-UTTHAAN is not a project but is a portal which has been devised by NIC cell
of this Department based on a framework provided by NITI Aayog.
As part of the socioeconomic and financial inclusion strategy of the Government
to ensure that all segments of the society, particularly the Scheduled castes,
are benefited.
The Government allocates funds across Ministries/Departments for different
schemes where targeted financial and physical benefits can accrue to the
Scheduled Castes.
The allocation under the scheme of welfare of Scheduled Castes deals with this
matter across Ministries through earmarking of a certain percentage of funds
exclusively for welfare of Scheduled Castes.
It captures online data based on the allocation of funds that has been
allocated under Scheduled Caste Sub Plan (SCSP).
38.
With reference to extended fund facility, consider the following
statements:
1. The EFF was established to provide assistance to countries experiencing
serious payment imbalances.
2. The EEF can be availed when there is structural impediments or slow growth
and an inherently weak balance-of-payments position.
3. EFFs generally are formulated on a precautionary basis in anticipation of a
future balance of payments problem.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer : c
Extended fund facility
The EFF was established to provide assistance to countries experiencing serious
payment imbalances because of structural impediments or slow growth and an
inherently weak balance-of-payments position.
An EFF provides support for comprehensive programs including the policies
needed to correct structural imbalances over an extended period.
As structural reforms to correct deep-rooted weaknesses often take time to
implement and bear fruit, EFF engagement and repayment cover longer periods
than most Fund arrangements.
Extended arrangements are typically approved for periods of three years, but
may be approved for periods as long as 4 years to implement deep and sustained
structural reforms.
Amounts drawn under an EFF are to be repaid over 4½–10 years in 12 equal
semiannual installments.
By contrast, credits under a Stand-By Arrangement (SBA) are repaid over 3¼–5
years.
EFFs generally are not formulated on a precautionary basis in anticipation of a
future balance of payments problem.
39.
Consider
the following statements about the FAME India Scheme.
1. The main objective of the scheme is
to promote manufacturing of electric and hybrid vehicle technology.
2. The scheme was discontinued in 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
• Statement 1 is correct: In 2015, the
government formulated the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &)
Electric Vehicles in India (FAME India) Scheme to promote manufacturing of
electric and hybrid vehicle technology and to ensure sustainable growth of the
same.
• It is an initiative of the Department
of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises under the Ministry of Heavy
Industries.
FAME - Phase I
• The Phase-I of this Scheme was
initially launched for a period of 2 years, commencing from 1st April 2015,
which was subsequently extended up to 31st March 2019.
• The 1st Phase of FAME India Scheme was
implemented through four focus areas namely (i) Demand Creation, (ii)
Technology Platform, (iii) Pilot Project and (iv) Charging Infrastructure.
• Market creation through demand incentives
was aimed at incentivizing all vehicle segments i.e. 2-Wheelers, 3-Wheelers
Auto, Passenger 4-Wheeler vehicles, Light Commercial Vehicles and Buses.
FAME - Phase II
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Phase-II of
FAME India Scheme is being implemented w.e.f. 01st April, 2019.
• This phase focuses on supporting
electrification of public & shared transportation and aims to support,
through subsidies, approximately 7000 e-Buses, 5 lakh e-3 Wheelers, 55000 e- 4
Wheeler Passenger Cars and 10 lakh e-2 Wheelers.
• In addition, creation of charging
infrastructure is also supported for electric vehicles.
40.
Which of the following is/are
the likely consequences of farm loan waiver schemes:
1. It may increase fiscal deficits for States.
2. Cost of borrowing for States may increase.
3. It may limit the ability to undertake productive capital expenditure in the
agriculture sector.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
It increases the fiscal deficit of the state as the gross expenditure of state
government exceeds the gross revenue which in turn causes low credit ranking
for the state and so the cost of borrowing increases for the state.
Loan waivers increase the interest burden of the states andlimit their ability
to undertake productive capital expenditure in the agriculture sector. It
affects the long-term growth in the sector.
41. With reference to Financial Services Institutions Bureau
(FSIB), consider the
following statements:
1. It will be independent body with the authority to recommend directors
for public sector banks (PSBs), public sector insurers (PSIs), and financial
institutions (FIs).
2. It will support the development of business strategies and capital raising
plans by state-run banks and insurance companies.
3. The members of FSIB consists of a chairman, a deputy governor of State Bank
of India and secretaries of the departments of financial services and public
enterprises.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3 only
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution:
The members of Financial Services
Institutions Bureau (FSIB) consist of a chairman, a deputy governor of Reserve
Bank of India and secretaries of the departments of financial services and
public enterprises.
Enrich your Learning
Financial Services
Institutions Bureau (FSIB)
It has been established as a single
autonomous professional body for making recommendations for appointments of Directors in public sector banks (PSBs),
public sector insurers (PSIs) and financial institutions (FIs).
It would be a professional body with autonomy in its affairs and shall have
its own secretariat.
Aim- to search and recommend high calibre persons
for appointment as whole-time directors (WTDs) and non-executive chairpersons
(NEC).
Functions
The FSIB will also advise the government on a suitable performance appraisal system for whole-time directors and non-executive
chairmen of the state-run financial services institutions.
It will build a data bank relating to the performance of public-sector
banks (PSBs), FIs and insurance companies.
It will advise the
government on formulation
and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics for whole-time directors.
It will help the state-run
banks, financial institutions
and insurers in developing business strategies and capital raising plans.
Composition
The FSIB will consists of-
A chairperson nominated
by the central government;
The secretaries of the
departments of financial
services and public enterprises;
The chairman of the
insurance regulatory and
development authority of India;
A deputy governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Three members with knowledge
of Bank and other financial
institutions,
Three members with the knowledge
of insurance.
Why in News?
Recently, the
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) headed by the Prime Minister has
approved the establishment of Financial Services Institutions Bureau
(FSIB) to replace the Banks Board Bureau (BBB).
42. Consider the following statements with
reference to Floating
Storage Regasification Unit (FSRU):
1. It is used for transiting and transferring of Liquefied
petroleum gas through oceanic channels.
2. It can be used as floating vessel that can be deployed to a specific
location as an offshore installation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution:
Both the statements are correct.
Enrich your Learning
Floating storage and
regasification units
It is a vital component required while transiting and transferring Liquefied
Natural Gas (LNG) through
the oceanic channels.
It can be termed as a special
type of ship used for LNG
transfer.
It can be equipped in two ways:
either they can be installed as
a separate unit aboard
the LNG carrier itself or,
an old gas carrier can be converted into an independent unit and
placed in a particular destination as an offshore installation.
It is installed in the ship itself.
The construction of the vessel is similar
to other LNG ships undergoing
LNG trading operation with regular dry docking and complying to all the
required international marine safety standards.
Benefit:
The heating and liquefaction process can be carried out within the vessel itself
without having to unload the fuel in its semi-frozen slushy state.
Why in News?
The floating terminal at Jafrabad in Gujarat is likely to begin soon under
floating storage and regasification units.
43. FRESH, an acronym for Focusing Resources on Effective School Health, is a collaborative initiative of which of the following
organisations?
1. UNICEF
2. World Health Organisation
3. International Monetary Fund
4. UNESCO
5. World Bank
6. United Nations Development Programme
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1, 2, 4 and 5
B 3, 4, 5 and 6
C 1, 2, 4 and 6
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Explanation
One of the reasons school health services receive
inadequate policy attention is because health-care needs are often equated with
medical care needs.
Though school age children have a relatively low sickness rate (and thus
limited medical care needs), they do have a wide range and age-specific health
needs that are linked to unhealthy dietary habits, irregular sleep, lack of
physical activity, mental, dental and eye problems, sexual behaviour, and the
use of tobacco and other substances, addiction, etc.
One of the reasons for wrongly designed, and often very rudimentary, school health
services — not only in India but also in most low- and middle-income countries
— is, arguably, limited understanding and clarity on what constitutes
well-functioning and effective school health services.
This situation co-exists in spite of much evidence guided by international
literature.
UNESCO, UNICEF, the World Health Organization (WHO) and the World Bank have
published an inter-agency framework called FRESH — an acronym for Focusing
Resources on Effective School Health.
The FRESH framework and tools propose four core areas and three supporting
strategies.
The core areas suggest that school health services need to focus on school
health policies, i.e., water, sanitation and the environment; skills-based
health education and school-based health and nutrition services. The supporting
strategies include effective partnerships between the education and health
sectors, community partnership and student participation.
Hence, option A is correct.
44. Consider the following statements with reference to the forest fire incidents in India:
1. There has been a ten-fold increase in forest fires in
the past two decades.
2. Mizoram has had the highest number of forest fire incidences in the last two
decades.
3. Andhra Pradesh, Assam, and Maharashtra are the most prone to high-intensity
forest fire events caused by rapid change in climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Forest Fire Incidents in India
There has been a ten-fold increase in forest fires in
the past two decades, and more than 62% of Indian states are prone to
high-intensity forest fires. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra are the
most prone to high-intensity forest fire events caused by rapid change in
climate. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Mizoram has had the highest number of forest fire incidences in the
last two decades, with more than 95% of its districts being forest fire
hotspots. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Districts that were earlier flood prone have now become drought prone due
to a “swapping trend” as a result of climatic changes.
More than 75 % of Indian districts are extreme climate event hotspots, and more
than 30 % of districts are extreme forest fire hotspots.
Initiatives Taken:
The National Action Plan for Forest Fires (NAPFF), was started in 2018 with the
goal of reducing forest fires by informing, enabling, and empowering forest
fringe communities and incentivizing them to collaborate with state forest
departments.
The Forest Fire Prevention and Management Scheme (FPM) is the only
government-sponsored programme dedicated to assisting states in dealing with
forest fires.
45.
Which of the following is a gene-editing technique widely
used in improving the growth and resilience of crops?
(a) DETECTR
(b) CRISPR
(c) SHERLOCK
(d) CAMERA
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution:
Enrich Your Learning
About CRISPR
Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short
Palindromic Repeats (CRISPR)
or CRISPR-Cas9 (CRISPR-associated protein 9) is a gene-editing
system.
It was pioneered by scientists namely Emmanuelle Charpentier (France)
& Jennifer A. Doudna (Germany).
It won them the Nobel prize in Chemistry in 2020.
CRISPR Application
It finds wide use in agriculture to increase plant yield,
increase its resistance to pests, etc.
The system can be used for disease research, drug screening, rapid
diagnostics, etc.
Techniques such as SHERLOCK and DETECTR, which utilize
the CRISPR-Cas9 system, have been modified and adapted to diagnose
the infectious disease, most recently COVID-19.
It is seen as a promising way to improve immune systems and fight
immunodeficiency diseases such as HIV.
[ref: TimesofIndia
[ref: Timesofindia
Criticism
There are
concerns over CRISPR-Cas9 modified agricultural produce triggering
cancer cells.
One of the most widely discussed ethical concerns is genetically
designed babies - deliberately and artificially changing genes
passed on to children.
Why is it in the news?
June 2022 marked 10 years since CRISPR-Cas9 was repurposed as a gene-editing
system.
46. Consider the following statements:
1. Each genome contains all the information needed to
build and maintain that organism.
2. Through genome sequencing, researchers and clinicians can easily detect diseases
related to a genetic disorder.
3. CRISPR/Cas9 has also been seen to create potential genome editing treatments for diseases such as
HIV, cancer etc.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A 1 only
B 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
A genome is all the genetic matter in an organism.
It is defined as an organism’s complete set of Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid
(DNA), including all its genes.
Every organism’s genetic code is contained in its DNA, the building
blocks of life.
Each genome contains all the information needed to build and maintain
that organism. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Genome sequencing is figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases,
in a genome—the order of Adenine, Cytosine, Guanines, and Thymine that
make up an organism's DNA.
Application:
Genome sequencing can play a crucial role for new advancements in
medical science (like predictive diagnosis and precision medicine, genomic
information) and in disease management.
Through genome sequencing methodology, researchers and clinicians can
easily detect diseases related to genetic disorders. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
CRISPR/Cas9 has also been seen as a promising way to create potential
genome editing treatments for diseases such as HIV, cancer or sickle cell
disease. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Such therapeutics could inactivate a disease-causing gene, or
correct a genetic mutation.
47.
Which of the following dimensions
is/are used to benchmark countries under Global
Gender Gap Index?
1. Economic participation and opportunity
2. Educational attainment
3. Health and survival
4. Political empowerment
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1 ,2 and 3 only
c) 1,2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Global Gender Gap Index is released by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
The Global Gender Gap index “benchmarks the current state and evolution of
gender parity across four key dimensions-
Economic Participation and Opportunity,
Educational Attainment,
Health and Survival, and
Political Empowerment.
48. Consider the following statements regarding GOAL Programme:
1. GOAL stands for “Going Online as Leaders”.
2. It aims at digital empowerment of tribal youth and women through the concept
of mentor and mentee.
3. The programme is fully funded by Government of India.
4. Phase 2 of this program will be open to all people from tribal communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 3 and 4
C 1, 2 and 4
D 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
GOAL (Going Online as Leaders) was launched as a pilot project in May 2020 and it was
completed by December 2021. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It aims at digital empowerment of tribal youth and women through the
concept of mentor and mentee. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The programme is fully funded by Meta (Facebook India). Hence, statement
3 is not correct.
Goal 2.0 programme has been launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and
Meta (formerly Facebook).
Goal 2 program will be open to all people from tribal communities. Hence,
statement 4 is correct.
49.
The Golden Crescent, the name given to one of
Asia's two illegal drug trafficking regions, consists of which of the following
countries?
1. Pakistan
2. Afghanistan
3. Iran
4. Laos
5. Thailand
6. Myanmar
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 4, 5 and 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
d) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Golden Crescent is located in Southwest Asia and consists of three
contiguous countries of Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Iran from East to West.
The Golden Triangle is located in Southeast Asia comprising three contiguous
countries of Laos, Thailand, and Myanmar from East to West.
50. Regarding Goods and
Services Tax (GST), consider the following
statements:
1. It is essentially a consumption tax and is levied at
the final consumption point.
2. It is one of the biggest indirect tax reforms in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Goods and Services Tax (GST):
GST was introduced through the 101st
Constitution Amendment Act, 2016.
It is one of the biggest indirect tax reforms in the country. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
It was introduced with the slogan of ‘One Nation One Tax’.
The GST has subsumed indirect taxes like excise duty, Value Added Tax
(VAT), service tax, luxury tax etc.
It is essentially a consumption tax and is levied at the final
consumption point. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Tax Structure under GST:
Central GST to cover Excise duty, Service tax etc,
State GST to cover VAT, luxury tax etc.
Integrated GST (IGST) to cover inter-state trade.
IGST per se is not a tax but a system to coordinate state and union taxes.
It has a 4-tier tax structure for all goods and services under the
slabs- 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%.
51.
Consider the following
statements:
1. Government Accounting Standards Advisory Board was constituted by the NITI Aayog.
2. Natural Resource Accounting is a process of estimating the value of natural
resource depletion and environment degradation due to economic activities.
Which of following statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither of these
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Natural resource accounting is an accounting system that deals with stocks and
stock changes of natural assets, comprising biota (produced or wild), subsoil
assets (proved reserves), water and land with their aquatic and terrestrial
ecosystems.
It is a process of estimating the value of natural resource depletion and
environment degradation due to economic activities.
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C&AG) constituted Government
Accounting Standards Advisory Board (GASAB) under Article 150 of the
Constitution of India with the support of Government of India through a
notification dated 12th August, 2002.
52.
With reference to Green Open Access Rules 2022, consider the following
statements:
1. Industrial and corporate customers with a demand of less than 100 kilowatts
can set up their own solar plants and wheel power to their establishment.
2. Cross subsidy surcharge and additional surcharge shall not be applicable, if
green energy is utilized for production of green hydrogen and green ammonia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : b
Green Open Access Rules, 2022
As per the rules, the green open access is allowed to any consumer.
The limit of open access transaction has been reduced from 1 MW (megawatt) to
100 kW for green energy in order to enable small consumers also to purchase
renewable power through open access.
Industrial and corporate customers with a demand of over 100 kilowatts can now
set up their own solar plants and wheel power to their establishment.
Consumers will be given certificates if they consume green power.
Cross subsidy surcharge and additional surcharge shall not be applicable, if
green energy is utilized for production of green hydrogen and green ammonia.
53. Consider
the following statements with reference to legally permissible occasions for handcuffing:
1. An accused on his arrest and before he is produced before the
magistrate
2. An under-trial prisoner during transit from jail to the court
3. A transportation of convict from jail to court and back
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution
A person can be legally handcuff during all of the above 3 mentioned scenarios.
Enrich Your Learning
Principles of Handcuffing
The law
with regard to handcuffing was settled in 1980 when the Supreme
Court of India, in Prem Shankar Shukla vs Delhi Administration.
An accused, in normal circumstances, need not be handcuffed upon arrest.
It is only under exceptional circumstances such as
the possibility of escape
the possibility of causing harm to himself or others
that handcuffing an accused can be resorted to.
The arresting officer must record the reasons, which
then would have to stand judicial/court scrutiny.
There can be three occasions when a person can be (legally)
handcuffed
An accused on his arrest and before he is produced before the magistrate.
An under-trial prisoner during transit from jail to the court and back.
A convict is transported from jail to court and back.
Why is it in the news?
Recently, the Karnataka High Court passed a verdict on handcuffing, while
awarding two lakh rupees as compensation for handcuffing an accused, without
recording the reasons in the police case diary, it gave liberty to the state to
recover the amount from the delinquent police officer.
54. World Report on Health of Refugee and Migrants is released by which of the following organisation?
A World Economic Forum
B United Nations Human Rights
Commission
C World Bank
D World Health Organisation
Explanation
The World Report on the Health of Refugee and Migrants is
released by World Health Organisation, according to its global review of
health and migration calls for urgent and concerted action to support
refugees and migrants across the world to access health care services
that are sensitive to their needs.
Key Findings of the Report:
It states that ‘Globally, about one in eight people are migrants.”
(Total 1 billion are Migrants)
From 1990 to 2020:
The total number of international migrants increased from 153 million
to 281 million.
About 48% of international migrants are women and some 36 million
are children.
Further India remains the top receiver of Remittances with USD 83
billions in 2020.
Hence, option D is correct.
55. Which of the following is not correct regarding Heat Waves?
A It occurs during the summer
season in the North-Western and South-Central parts of India.
B An increase of at least 10°C or more from the normal temperature
is considered a severe heat wave condition.
C Heatwaves are linked to an
increase in diseases like diabetes.
D A heat wave is declared when the
actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more, irrespective of normal maximum
temperature.
Explanation
A heatwave is a period of abnormally high temperatures,
more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer
season in the North-Western and South-Central parts of India.
Heatwaves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases
even extend till July.
India Meteorological Department (IMD) classifies heatwaves according to regions
and their temperature ranges.
Criteria for Heatwaves:
The heatwave is considered when the maximum temperature of a station
reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.
If the normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40°C,
then an increase of 5°C to 6°C from the normal temperature is considered to be
heat wave condition.
Further, an increase of 7°C or more from the normal temperature is
considered a severe heat wave condition.
If the normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40°C, then an
increase of 4°C to 5°C from the normal temperature is considered to be heat
wave condition.
Further, an increase of 6°C or more is considered a severe heat wave
condition.
Additionally, if the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more
irrespective of normal maximum temperature, a heat wave is declared.
Impact of Heat Waves:
Mortality and Morbidity: The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(IPCC) in the Second Part of AR6 Report flagged that heat extremes are causing
human deaths and morbidity.
The increased heat will lead to an increase in diseases like diabetes,
circulatory and respiratory conditions, as well as mental health challenges.
Crop Damage: The fallout of these heat waves is far more complex - the
concurrence of heat and drought events are causing crop production losses and
tree mortality.
Less Food Production and High Prices: The risks to health and food
production will be made more severe from the sudden food production losses
exacerbated by heat-induced labour productivity losses.
These interacting impacts will increase food prices, reduce household incomes,
and lead to malnutrition and climate-related deaths, especially in tropical
regions.
Statement 2 is not correct; therefore, option B is the correct answer.
56. With reference to High Court in India, consider
the following statements:
1. The number of judges in a High Court is decided by the
Supreme Court of India.
2. The writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme
Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
In the Indian scheme of judicial system, High Court work
below the Supreme Court.
The institution of High Court originated in India in 1862 when the high courts
were setup at Bombay, Calcutta and Madras.
According to Article 216 of the Constitution the High Courts
shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other Judges as the President may
from time to time deem it necessary to appoint.
The number of judges in a High Court is decided by the President of
India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The Supreme Court can issue writs only in case there is a violation of
Fundamental Rights.
The High Court has a wider scope to exercise this power. They can issue writs
not only when there is a violation of Fundamental Rights but also in other
cases. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
57. Consider the following pairs:
Historical Sites Location
1. Rock-cut sanctuaries Barabar, Bihar
2. Pattadakal’s temples Andhra Pradesh
3. Viramgam’s Munsar Talav Tamil Nadu
4. Bara Imambara Lucknow
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A Only one pair
B Only two pairs
C Only three pairs
D All the four pairs
Explanation
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) protects around
3,700 archaeological sites and ancient monuments.
Taken together, they mark milestones in India’s history: the emergence of
well-planned cities, the rise of empires inspired by egalitarian ideals, the
development and dispersion of Buddhism along trade routes, the flourishing of
temple cultures, the establishment of Sultanate polities, creative and
competitive encounters among and between the Mughals and the Rajputs, the
ascendancy of the British Raj, and a largely non-violent movement that
overthrew colonial rule.
Historically, each monument is integrally connected to the landscape around it.
Here are a few examples.
Rock-cut sanctuaries from Barabar (Bihar) to Ajanta (Maharashtra) and
from Masrur (Himachal Pradesh) to Guntupalli (Andhra Pradesh) were physically
connected to outcrops and canyons.
Pattadakal’s temples (Karnataka) were symbolically linked to the
Malaprabha river that flowed past them.
Viramgam’s Munsar Talav (Gujarat) was the centrepiece of a landscape
consisting of interlocking ponds, sluice gates, decanting wells, irrigation
canals, and farmlands.
Lucknow’s Bara Imambara is tied to markets, palaces, processional roads,
and gardens.
However, in time, some of these connections weakened. After 1857, colonial
authorities reorganised cities by widening streets and demolishing dwellings
around certain majestic older buildings so that they could properly survey the
populace.
Pair 1 and Pair 4 are correctly matched, but Pair 2 and Pair 3 are not
correctly matched. Hence, option B is correct.
58. Which of the following is not the correct basic dimension of
the Human Development Index?
A A long and healthy life.
B Access to knowledge.
C A decent standard of living.
D Access to Public Transport
Explanation
The Human Development Index report is published by
the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP).
India ranked 131 among 189 countries in 2020.
It is a single index measure that aims to record the three key dimensions
of human development:
A decent standard of living,
Access to knowledge
A long and healthy life.
In other words, the Human Development Index is practised to measure how
development has improved human life.
Access to Public Transport is not a basic dimension of the Human Development
Index.
Hence, option D is correct.
59.
Which
of the following countries is not a member of the I2U2
grouping?
- A. India
- B. Israel
- C. United Kingdom
- D. USA
Answer: C
Sol:
• I2U2 stands for India, Israel, the
UAE, and the US, and is also sometimes referred to as the ‘West Asian Quad’.
• Back in October 2021, a meeting of the
foreign ministers of the four countries had taken place when External Affairs
Minister S Jaishankar was visiting Israel. At that time, the grouping was
called the ‘International Forum for Economic Cooperation’.
• Its stated aim is to discuss common
areas of mutual interest, to strengthen the economic partnership in trade and
investment in our respective regions and beyond.
• Six areas of cooperation have been
identified by the countries mutually, and the aim is to encourage joint
investments in water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security.
• With the help of private sector
capital and expertise, the countries will look to modernise infrastructure,
explore low carbon development avenues for industries, improve public health,
and promote the development of critical emerging and green technologies.
60. Which of the following statements is/are correct with
respect to iDEX?
1. It aims to achieve self-reliance and foster innovation
and technology development in Defence and Aerospace by engaging industries.
2. Under this initiative, industries are provided with funding support.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
iDEX is an initiative taken by the government to
contribute towards modernization of the Defence Industry.
It was launched by the Government in April 2018.
iDEX aims to promote innovation and technology development in Defence
and Aerospace by engaging Industries (which includes MSMEs, start-ups,
individual innovators, R&D institutes & academia). Hence, statement
1 is correct.
It will provide the engaging industries with funding and other support
to carry out Research & Development. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
61.
Incheon Strategy, sometimes seen in the news, is related to:
a) Disaster risk reduction
b) Persons with Disabilities
c) Road Safety
d) Cyber security
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Incheon Strategy to “Make the Right Real” for
Persons with Disabilities in Asia and the Pacific provides the Asian and
Pacific region, and the world, with the first set of regionally agreed
disability-inclusive development goals.
62. India and Maldives, both are members of which of the following groupings?
1. SAARC
2. SCO
3. Colombo Security Conclave
4. SASEC
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only
Explanation
South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(SAARC) comprises of eight member States: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan,
India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) currently comprises eight
Member States: China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan,
Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.
The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC), was formed in 2011 as a trilateral
maritime security grouping of India, Sri Lanka and the Maldives. It
welcomed Mauritius as a fourth member.
The South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) Program, set up
in 2001, brings together Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal,
and Sri Lanka in a project-based partnership to promote regional prosperity by
improving cross-border connectivity, boosting trade among member countries, and
strengthening regional economic cooperation.
Hence, option C is correct.
63. Consider the following statements regarding the relations
between India and Vietnam:
1. Defence cooperation has been one of the most
significant pillars of the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership initiated by the
two countries in 2016.
2. Trade and economic relations have significantly improved over the years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
India-Vietnam Relations:
While defence cooperation has
been one of the most significant pillars of the Comprehensive Strategic
Partnership initiated by the two countries
in 2016, the relationship between the two countries was established much
earlier. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India had established the Consul General’s office in Hanoi as early as
1956.
Vietnam established its diplomatic mission in 1972.
Areas of Cooperation:
Strategic Partnership:
India and Vietnam agreed to strengthen their strategic partnership “in line
with India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) and the ASEAN’s Outlook on
Indo-Pacific to achieve shared security, prosperity and growth for all in the
region.”
Economic Cooperation:
Trade and economic relations for mutual benefit, which have
significantly improved over the years particularly after the ASEAN- India Free
Trade Agreement was signed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
India realises that Vietnam is a potential regional power in Southeast Asia
with great political stability and substantial economic growth.
India is investing in development and capacity assistance for Vietnam through
quick impact projects (QIP), proposals in the area of water resource management
in Vietnam’s Mekong Delta region, Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), and
digital connectivity.
64. Consider the following statements:
1. Chile is India's largest trading partner in the Latin
American region.
2. India and Chile have signed a Preferential Trade Agreement.
3. India and Chile are partners in the International Solar Alliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A 1 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 3 only
D 1 and 3 only
Explanation
India- Chile Relations
Chile is India’s window to Latin America and to the
Pacific Alliance.
Chile is the fifth largest trading partner of India in the Latin
American region. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
India- Chile signed the Preferential Trade Agreement in 2017 to enhance
trade. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The bilateral trade is growing and stood at USD 2.8 billion in 2017-18.
India and Chile are partners in the International Solar Alliance. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
Both countries cooperate extensively in multilateral fora and share similar
views on climate change/renewable energy issues and on expansion and reforms of
the UNSC (United Nations Security Council).
India- Chile has signed three Memorandum of Understandings (MoUs) in the fields
of -mining, culture, disability.
65. Which of the following statements regarding India Innovation Index report is/are correct?
1. It was released by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. Manipur is the leading state among North East and Hilly states.
3. Karnataka topped the index.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
It's released by NITI Aayog, not by the Ministry
of Finance, hence statement 1 is not correct.
It ranks the states and the union territories on their innovation
performance to build healthy competition amongst them.
Among Hill and North East states, Manipur is the leading category state.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Karnataka topped the index, as its success is attributed to its peak
performance in attracting FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) and a large number of
venture capital deals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
66. Which of the following are the components of Indian Foreign exchange reserves?
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. Gold Reserves
3. Special Drawing Rights
4. Reserve Position in the International Monetary Fund
5. External Commercial Borrowings
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
A 1, 2 and 3 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Explanation
Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a
central bank in foreign currencies, which can include bonds, treasury bills and
other government securities. Most foreign exchange reserves are held in US
dollars.
Components:
Foreign Currency Assets: FCAs are assets that are valued based on a
currency other than the country's own currency. FCA is the largest component of
the forex reserve. It is expressed in dollar terms. The FCAs include the effect
of appreciation or depreciation of non-US units like the euro, pound and yen
held in the foreign exchange reserves.
Gold Reserves: Gold reserve is a fund of gold bullion or coin held by a
government or bank.
Special Drawing Rights: The SDR is an international reserve asset,
created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official
reserves. The SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a
potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be
exchanged for these currencies.
Reserve Position in the International Monetary Fund: A reserve tranche
position implies a portion of the required quota of currency each member
country must provide to the IMF that can be utilized for its own purposes. The
reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access
at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee.
Hence option C is correct.
67.
Consider the following
statements:
1. The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categories offenses under
the Indian Penal Code as
‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’.
2. The CrPC empowers Magistrates to grant bail for bailable and nonbailable
offenses as a matter of right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categories offenses under the
Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’.
The CrPC empowers Magistrates to grant bail for bailable offenses as a matter
of right.
Non-bailable offenses are very serious offenses. These are offenses under which
bail is not granted usually except in certain exceptional circumstances. In
non-bailable offenses, bail is not considered the right of the accused.
68.
Which of the following have
been defined as an ‘intermediary’ under Information
Technology Act, 2000?
1. Network service providers
2. Telecom service providers
3. Online payment sites
4. Online marketplaces
5. Cybercafes
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 only
c) 1, 2, 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The term ‘Intermediary’ is defined in broad terms in the Information Technology
Act, 2000. Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act 2000 defines an
intermediary as a person who receives, stores or transmits any electronic
record and provides any service relating to such record on the behalf of
another person.
Intermediary includes network service providers, telecom service providers,
internet service providers, search engines, web-hosting service providers,
online auction sites, online payment sites, online marketplaces, and cyber
cafes.
69.
INS Sindhudhvaj was recently in news. It is a
a) Aircraft carriers
b) Amphibious warfare ships
c) Destroyers
d) Submarine
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Navy’s Kilo-class submarine, INS Sindhudhvaj, was
decommissioned from service on Saturday at Visakhapatnam after 35 years in
service. With this, the Navy now has 15 conventional submarines in service.
70.
Consider the following
statements:
1. Insider trading involves trading in a public
company's stock by someone who has non-public, material information about that
stock.
2. Material non-public information is any information that could substantially
impact an investor's decision to buy or sell the security.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Insider Trading
Insider trading is the buying or selling of a publicly traded company's stock
by someone who has non-public, material information about that stock
Material non-public information is any information that could substantially
impact an investor's decision to buy or sell the security that has not been
made available to the public.
This form of insider trading is illegal and comes with stern penalties
including both potential fines and jail time.
Insider trading can be legal as long as it conforms to the rules set forth by
the SEBI.
Insider trading becomes a market crime when company employees or others with
privileged access to confidential information about a company, exploit their
special knowledge (asymmetric information) to make profits at the expense of
public investors who aren’t privy to the information.
71. Consider the following statements in context of
Immunisation programme of India:
1. Mission Indradhanush (MI) is an Immunisation programme
started by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. MI provides vaccines against like Measles, Rubella and Hepatitis B diseases.
3. Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) 4.0 started in February 2022 to immunise every
pregnant woman and child who had missed their vaccination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Immunisation Programme in India was
introduced in 1978 as ‘Expanded Programme of Immunisation’ (EPI) by
the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. In 1985,
the programme was modified as ‘Universal Immunisation Programme’ (UIP).
Through UIP, Government of India is providing vaccination free of
cost against vaccine preventable diseases include diphtheria, pertussis,
tetanus, polio, measles, severe form of childhood tuberculosis, hepatitis B,
meningitis and pneumonia (Hemophilus influenzae type B infections), Japanese
encephalitis (JE) in JE endemic districts with introduction of newer vaccines
such as rotavirus vaccine, IPV, adult JE vaccine, pneumococcal conjugate
vaccine (PCV) and measles-rubella (MR) vaccine in UIP/national
immunisation programme. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Immunisation program was launched as “Mission Indradhanush” in December
2014. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI)
To further intensify the immunisation programme, the
Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) was launched on October 8, 2017 to reach each and every child up to two years of age and all those pregnant women who have
been left uncovered under the routine immunisation programme/UIP.
Intensified Mission Indradhanush
2.0, India has the opportunity to
achieve further reductions in deaths among children under five years of age,
and achieve the Sustainable Development Goal of ending preventable child deaths
by 2030.
India prevented further backslide by introducing catchup programs like
Intensified Mission Indradhanush 3.0, which helped in reducing the
number of children who had left the first dose from 3 million to 2.7 million in
2021, as compared to 2019 when 1.4 million children didn't receive the
first dose.
India effectively avoided a drop in coverage by the early restoration of
routine immunisation services, along with evidence-based catch-up programmes,
which enabled it to avoid a drop in routine immunisation coverage.
India also launched the Intensified Mission Indradhanush 4.0 in February
2022 with the aim to immunise every pregnant woman and child who had missed
their vaccination. Hence statement 3 is correct.
72.
Which of the following statements
about Intensified Mission Indradhanush 4.0 is/are correct?
It was launched by NITI Aayog.
1. It is the largest immunisation programme globally.
2. It provides vaccination against 12 Vaccine-Preventable Diseases (VPD)
including Covid-19 virus.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 2 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
It's an initiative of the Union Ministry of Health
and is not launched by NITI Aayog. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Intensified Mission Indradhanush is the largest immunisation programme
globally where it annually covers more than three crore pregnant women and 2.6
crore children through the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP). Hence
statement 2 is correct.
As a part of Universal Immunization Programme (UIP), it prevents mortality
and morbidity in children and pregnant women by providing vaccination
against 12 preventable diseases but doesn't include Covid-19 vaccine yet Hence
statement 3 is not correct.
73.
International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related
to
- A. Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
- B. Regulation of food prices and food security
- C. Gender parity at the workplace
- D. Child labour
Answer: D
Sol:
• India ratified International Labour
Organization Conventions No. 138 and 182 in 2017.
Convention No. 138
• The aim of ILO Convention No.138
(Minimum Age Convention, 1973) is the effective abolition of child labour by
requiring countries to:
o establish a minimum age for entry into
work or employment; and
o establish national policies for the
elimination of child labour.
Convention No. 182
• Convention No. 182 (Worst Forms of
Child Labour Convention, 1999) calls for the prohibition and elimination of the
worst forms of child labour, including slavery, forced labour and trafficking.
It prohibits the use of children in armed conflict, prostitution, pornography
and illicit activities such as drug trafficking, and in hazardous work.
74. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Jagriti Mascot’:
1. The main goal of this program is to raise people's
awareness of their health.
2. It is an initiative of the Ministry of health and family welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2 D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
It would be portrayed as a customer who is aware of their
rights as consumers and seeking answers to the issues they are having.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
It would help to generate consumer awareness about the various government
initiatives like:
Provisions of Consumer Protection Act 2019
Hallmarking
National Consumer Helpline toll free number 1915
Provisions of weights & measures Act
Decisions of the Central Consumer Protection Authority
Testimonials by consumers on grievance redressal
The Department of Consumer Affairs Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food &
Public Distribution has introduced Jagriti Mascot. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
In numerous media campaigns, it would be displayed with the slogan
"Jago Grahak Jago."
75.
Consider the following
statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission:
1. It envisages a supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every
rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2025.
2. Jal Jeevan mission aims to strengthen the existing water sources to set up
various treatment plants and desalination plants in the coastal regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Launched in 2019, the Jal Jeevan Mission envisages the supply of 55 litres of
water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household
Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
India's Jal Jeevan mission aims to strengthen the existing water sources to set
up various treatment plants and desalination plants in the coastal regions. The
mission also aims that the existing water supply and connections are
functional, water quality is maintained, and sustainable agriculture is
achieved. It ensures the conjunctive use of conserved water, drinking water
source augmentation, drinking water supply system, greywater treatment, and reuse.
76.
Consider the following:
1. Pati
2. Kainchi
3. Charkona
4. Ashrafi
5. Tesra
The above motif styles are associated with which of the following textile?
(a) Baluchari (b) Jamdani
(c) Begampuri (d) Dhaniakhali
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution:
Common motifs on jamdani include pati (petal), bagher paa (tiger’s
paw), sandesh (sweets), ashrafi (gold
coin), kainchi (scissors), panna hajar (thousand
emeralds), kalaka (paisley), tesra (diagonal
patterns), duria (polka
dots), charkona (rectangular
motifs) and other fruits, flowers and animals.
Enrich Your Learning
About Jamdani
Jamdani is
a fine muslin textile (figured with different
patterns) produced for centuries in the South Rupshi of
Narayanganj district in Bangladesh on the bank of the Shitalakhwa
river.
Jamdani is a hand loom woven fabric made of cotton, which
was historically referred to as muslin.
The Jamdani weaving tradition is of Bengali origin.
It is one of the most time and labour-intensive forms of handloom
weaving and is considered one of the finest
varieties of muslin.
In 2013, the traditional art of weaving jamdani was declared a UNESCO
Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
In 2016, Bangladesh received geographical indication (GI) status for
Jamdani Sari.
Common motifs on jamdani include pati (petal), bagher paa (tiger’s
paw), sandesh (sweets), ashrafi (gold
coin), kainchi (scissors), panna hajar (thousand
emeralds), kalaka (paisley), tesra (diagonal
patterns), duria (polka dots), charkona (rectangular
motifs) and other fruits, flowers and animals.
History of the Weave
Jamdani weaving is believed to have emerged from the Dhaka
muslin industry.
Jamdani was originally known as Dhakai named
after the city of Dhaka.
The plain and decorative motifs both emerged during the reign of
Muhammad bin Tughlaq (1324–51), with the arrival of Persian craftsmen to India.
Under the Mughal Empire, the Persian term Jamdani (jama,
meaning robe or garment, and dan, meaning container) came to be in popular use,
since it was the court language of the Mughals.
However, the fabric can be dated to the writings of Megasthenes,
the Greek ambassador at Chandragupta Maurya’s court, as well as the Arthashastra
by Kautilya, in 300 BCE.
After Partition, weavers from Bangladesh, particularly Tangail,
migrated to West Bengal and settled in Kalna and Nadia, where
they developed the khadi-muslin industry, which recreated super fine thread for
a 500-count yarn.
By the twentieth century, Sonargaon, Bangladesh had emerged as an
important centre of jamdani weaving.
Evolution of Jamdani
The migration of weavers and craftspeople resulted in the adoption of
jamdani weaving techniques in other parts of the subcontinent.
This resulted in varieties such as the Uppada jamdani and Tangail
jamdani.
77.
With reference to Kala Azar, consider the following
statements:
1. Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoan parasites which are transmitted by the
bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.
2. Leishmaniasis is also linked to environmental changes such as deforestation,
building of dams, irrigation schemes and urbanization.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2
only
c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither
1 nor 2
Answer : c
Kala Azar
Visceral leishmaniasis (VL), also known as kala-azar is fatal if left
untreated in over 95% of cases.
It is characterized by irregular bouts of fever, weight loss, enlargement of
the spleen and liver, and anemia. Most cases occur in Brazil, East Africa and
in India.
Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoan parasites which are transmitted by the
bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.
The disease affects some of the poorest people and is associated with
malnutrition, population displacement, poor housing, a weak immune system and
lack of financial resources.
Leishmaniasis is also linked to environmental changes such as deforestation,
building of dams, irrigation schemes and urbanization.
An estimated 700 000 to 1 million new cases occur annually.
78.
The term Karakoram Anomaly often heard in news, refers
to:
a. Growth of Karakoram Ranges
b. Decline in relative altitude of Himalayan ranges
c. Resistance to glacial melting in Karakoram ranges
d. Absence of volcanoes in Karakoram ranges
Answer : c
Karakoram Anomaly
Karakoram Range is resisting glacial melt due to global warming, defying the
trend of glaciers losing mass across the globe, with the Himalayas being no
exception.
They have attributed this phenomenon called ‘Karakoram Anomaly’ to the recent
revival of western disturbances (WDs).
A recent study conducted under his supervision has postulated a new theory to
explain this defiance of the impacts of global warming in certain pockets as
opposed to other glaciers of the region.
It is for the first time that a study brought forth the importance that
enhanced WD-precipitation input during the accumulation period plays in
modulating regional climatic anomalies.
While previous studies have highlighted the role of temperature in establishing
and sustaining the anomaly over the years, it is for the first time that the
impact of precipitation in feeding the anomaly has been highlighted.
79. Consider the following statements:
1. It is a volcanic hotspot situated in the Southern Indian Ocean.
2. It has been producing basaltic lava for approximately 130 million years.
3. It is made up of the Naturaliste Plateau, Heard Island, the McDonald
Islands, the Ninety East Ridge, and Rajmahal Traps.
Which of the following Hotspot is described in above facts?
a) Yellowstone Hotspot
b) Hawaii Hotspot
c) Reunion Hotspot
d) Kerguelen Hotspot
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution
Enrich your Learning:
Kerguelen hotspot
It
is a volcanic hotspot at the Kerguelen Plateau in the Southern Indian Ocean.
It has produced basaltic lava for about 130 million years.
It consists of the Kerguelen
Islands, Naturaliste Plateau, Heard Island, the McDonald
Islands, the Ninety East Ridge and Rajmahal Traps.
Why in News?
As per a recent study, the basaltic samples of Ninety East Ridge
are highly alkaline and had very similar compositions to those released by the
Kerguelen hotspot in the Southern Indian Ocean.
80. Which of
the following states celebrates the Kharchi festival or the
festival of cleaning sins in honour of 14 Hindu gods?
(a) Assam (b) Himachal
Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Tripura
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution
A celebration of 14 deity heads, the Kharchi Festival is a week-long
celebration in the state of Tripura.
Enrich You Learning
What is the Kharchi Festival?
‘Khar’
means sin and ‘çhi’ means cleaning. Therefore, together the name translates
to – cleaning of sins.
The Chaturdash Devata Mandir which is about 8 km
from Agartala is the abode of the 14 gods and goddesses this festival is
dedicated to.
The temple of the 14 gods was built during the reign of Maharaja
Krishna Manikya of the Manikya Dynasty.
This is an age-old tradition being celebrated from around 1760 AD.
While this festival is integral to the indigenous community, the rituals are
influenced by Brahmanical Hindus.
[ref: TripuraMygov
Why is this in the news?
The Kharchi festival will return after two years, and the Tripura state tourism
department is bracing for an influx of tourists and worshippers from across
India.
81. Recently, the Kill Switch was in the news, it is related
to which of the following?
A It is a mechanism used to shut down or disable a device or
program.
B It is a mechanism suggested to
counter Antibiotic resistance.
C It is a battlefield strategy used
by the Taliban to capture Kabul.
D It is an anti-collision device
used to prevent car accidents.
Explanation
Kill Switch:
The recent ‘Uber Files’ reveal that the company
had deployed kill switches, purportedly to destroy sensitive data that
could have been legitimately accessed by police and officials.
A kill switch is a mechanism used to shut down or disable a device or
program.
In the manufacturing sector, they are deployed to terminate operations
to arrest damage in assembly lines or save a worker’s life.
They serve a similar purpose in the digital world but instead of
hardware, they are mostly software-based.
The purpose of a kill switch is usually to prevent theft of a
machine or data or shut down machinery in an emergency.
Hence, option A is correct.
82.
What are the major possible
conditions that make Kuno-Palpur National park, a suitable site for reintroduction of Cheetahs?
a. The action plan for cheetah translocations in KNP has been
developed in compliance with International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) guidelines.
b. Kuno-Palpur National park has an adequate prey base along with
suitable carrying capacity.
c. It is devoid of human settlements, forms a part of the
Sheopur-Shivpuri deciduous open forest landscape and is estimated to have a
capacity to sustain 21 cheetahs.
d. All of the above.
Answer : d
Reintroduction of Cheetahs
Kuno National Park (KNP) is spread over 748 square kilometres and has an
adequate prey base.
It is devoid of human settlements, forms a part of the Sheopur-Shivpuri
deciduous open forest landscape and is estimated to have a capacity to sustain
21 cheetahs.
Once restored, the larger landscape can hold about 36 cheetahs. The carrying
capacity can be further enhanced by including the remaining part of the Kuno
Wildlife Division (1,280 sq km) through prey restoration.
The action plan for cheetah translocations in KNP has been developed in
compliance with International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
guidelines.
It considers site assessment and prey density, current cheetah carrying
capacity of the national park.
Financial and administrative support to the cheetah reintroduction programme in
India would be provided by the Ministry through the National Tiger Conservation
Authority.
83.
The
ancient Sanskrit theatrical art form ‘Kutiyattam’
is performed in the state of?
- A. Tamil Nadu - B. Kerala
- C. Gujarat - D. Andhra
Pradesh
Answer: B
Sol:
• The ancient Sanskrit theatrical art
form of the state, Kutiyattam is Kerala’s distinctive stage interpretation of
the very early Sanskrit drama as dance drama.
• Kutiyattam (Koodiyattam), which is
around 2000 years old, has been accepted as one of the Intangible Heritage of
Humanity by UNESCO.
• It is usually performed only in temple
theatres known as Koothambalam by members of the Chakyar and Nambiar castes
till the first half of the 20th century, but the plays have progressively
opened up to larger audiences.
• Only through rigorous training lasting
many years can one aspire to master the craft of Kutiyattam.
• A typical Koodiyattam performance
involves elaborate and lengthy acting sequences using hand gestures and
distinctive modes of acting like Ilakiyaattom, Pakarnnaatttom and Irunnaattom.
84.
With reference to the Lake Urmia, consider the following
statements:
1. It is located in between Azerbaijan and Armenia and acts as the boundary
between the two countries.
2. It is the world’s largest hypersaline lake and is home to the humpback anger
fish, an endangered species.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2
only
c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither
1 nor 2
Answer : d
Lake Urmia
Lake Urmia is an endorheic Salt Lake in Iran.
The lake is located between the provinces of East Azerbaijan and West
Azerbaijan in Iran, and west of the southern portion of the Caspian Sea.
Lake Urmia, in the mountains of northwest Iran, began shrinking in 1995 due to
a combination of prolonged drought, and the extraction of water for farming and
dams, according to the UN Environment Program.
Urmia, one of the largest “hypersaline” or super salty lakes in the world, is
located between the cities of Tabriz and Urmia.
It has suffered chronic dry spells and heat waves for years, which are expected
to worsen with the impacts of climate change.
Lake Urmia is an important ecosystem, a key stopping point for migratory birds,
and home to an endemic shrimp as well as other underwater species.
85.
With reference to the Landlord port, consider the following
statements:
1. Deendayal Port has become first 100% Landlord Major Port of India having all
berths being operated on Public Private Partnership model.
2. The Landlord port will be handling premier container traffic and also the
RO-RO vessels to reduce logistics cost.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Landlord port
Jawaharlal Nehru port has become the first major port of the country to become
100% Landlord port having all berths being operated on Public Private
Partnership model model.
PPP is grounded on the principle of inclusion of the private enterprises as
able partners towards progress, this project will improve the utilization in
crane and berth productivity of the terminal.
Also, total handling of JNPCT will increase to 1.8 million twenty-foot
equivalent units (TEUs) from the present handling capacity of 1.5 million TEUs
in 2020-21.
This will reinforce JNPA’s position as the ‘Premier container port of India’.
JNP is one of the leading container ports of the country and is ranked 26th
among the top 100 global ports (as per Lloyds List Top 100 Ports 2021 Report).
It is worth mentioning that this terminal will also be handling Ro-Ro vessels
which will not only lower the logistics cost, reduce transit time but will
also contribute in reducing congestion on roads.
86. Consider the following statements:
1. Left Wing Extremism originated in India as a rebellion against local
landlords.
2. The movement of Naxalism is prevalent in eastern India, Odisha and Andhra
Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Left Wing Extremism in India
Left-wing extremists, popularly known as Maoists
worldwide and as Naxalites in India.
The term Naxalism derives its name from the village Naxalbari of West Bengal.
It originated as a rebellion against local landlords who bashed a
peasant over a land dispute. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The rebellion was initiated in 1967, with an objective of rightful
redistribution of the land to working peasants under the leadership of Kanu
Sanyal and Jagan Santhal.
The movement has spread across the Eastern India in less developed areas
of states such as Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
It is considered that Naxals support Maoist political sentiments and
ideology.
Maoism is a form of communism developed by Mao Tse Tung. It is a doctrine to
capture State power through a combination of armed insurgency, mass
mobilization and strategic alliances.
87. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Left Wing Extremism (LWE)’:
1. LWE basically intended to bring change through violent
revolution.
2. SAMADHAN doctrine is the one-stop solution for the LWE problem by the
Ministry of Defense.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
LWE organizations are against democratic institutions and use violence to
subvert the democratic processes at the ground level.
These organizations are the groups that are basically intended to bring
change through violent revolution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
SAMADHAN doctrine is the one-stop solution for the LWE problem.
It encompasses the entire strategy of government from short-term policy to
long-term policy formulated at different levels.
SAMADHAN stands for-
S- Smart Leadership,
A- Aggressive Strategy,
M- Motivation and Training,
A- Actionable Intelligence,
D- Dashboard Based KPIs (Key Performance Indicators) and KRAs (Key Result
Areas),
H- Harnessing Technology,
A- Action plan for each Theatre,
N- No access to Financing.
The SAMADHAN doctrine is the Ministry of Home Affairs' one-stop solution
for the LWE problem. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
88.
With reference to the
amendment made in Legal Metrology (Packaged
Commodities), Rules 2011, consider the following
statements:
1. It allows electronic products to declare certain mandatory declarations
through the QR Code for a period of one year.
2. It allows important declarations to be declared on the label in the package
and other descriptive information in the QR Code.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules 2011
Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities), Rules 2022 has allowed electronic
products to declare certain mandatory declarations through the QR Code for a
period of one year, if not declared in the package itself.
This amendment will allow the industry to declare the elaborated information in
digital form through the QR Code.
It will allow important declarations to be declared effective on the label in
the package while the other descriptive information can be conveyed to the
Consumer through the QR Code.
The Department to enable greater use of technology in this digital era to
declare the mandatory declaration through the QR Code which can be scanned to
view the declarations like the address of the manufacturer or packer or
importer, the common or generic name of the commodity, the size, and the
dimension of the commodity& customer care details except for the telephone
number & e-mail address.
Earlier, all the prepackaged commodities including the electronic products are
required to declare all the mandatory declarations as per the Legal Metrology
(Packaged Commodities), Rules 2011 on the package.
89.
Consider
the following statements about Legislative councils.
1. According to the constitution, the
total number of Members in the Legislative council of a State shall not exceed
one tenth of the total number of Members in the Legislative Assembly.
2. The Constitution allows Parliament to
either create or abolish a Council in a state by a special majority if the
Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Sol:
• Under Article 168 of the constitution,
states can have either one or two Houses of legislature.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per
Article 171, the total number of Members in the Legislative council of a State
shall not exceed one third of the total number of Members in the Legislative
Assembly, and not less than 40 members.
• Legislative Councils are permanent
Houses, and like Rajya Sabha, one-third of their members retire every two
years. The tenure of the members of the council is six years.
• The members of the Council are either
nominated by the Governor of the state or are indirectly elected.
o 1/3 of Members are elected by local
bodies like a municipality or other local authorities,
o 1/12 are elected by electorates
consisting of graduates residing in the State,
o 1/12 are elected by electorates
consisting of persons engaged in teaching,
o 1/3 are elected by the Members of
Legislative Assembly and
o The remaining 1/6 are nominated by the
Governor for distinguished services in various fields namely, literature,
science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
Powers of legislative councils
• The constitution gives Councils
limited legislative powers.
• Unlike Rajya Sabha which has
substantial powers to shape non-financial legislation, Legislative Councils
lack the constitutional mandate to do so. Legislative Assemblies have the power
to override suggestions/amendments made to a legislation by the Council.
• As for money bills, Article 198 allows
the legislative council to make its recommendations for amendments within 14
days of receiving the bill. However, the legislative assembly could accept or
reject these recommendations.
• The State Council of Ministers is
responsible to the Legislative Assembly alone and not to the Legislative
Council. The members of the Legislative Council exercise some control over the
State ministry by asking questions and supplementary questions to the
ministers.
Why are they important?
• A second House of legislature is
considered important for two reasons:
o To act as a check on hasty actions by
the popularly elected House (legislative Assembly) and,
o It can ensure individuals who might
not be cut out for the elections are able to contribute to the legislative process.
Constitution
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article
169(1) of the Constitution allows Parliament to either create or abolish a
Council in a state by a simple majority (majority of the members of each House
present and voting) if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a
resolution to that effect.
• The resolution must be passed by a
special majority (majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a
majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and
voting).
Criticisms on legislative councils
• The Legislative Councils have been
criticised for being unnecessary and unrepresentative of the people.
• They are considered a burden on the
state budget and cause delays in passing legislation.
90. Consider
the following statements with reference to the Mangarh massacre:
1. It was led by Guru Govind.
2. It is also known as the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of the Vagad region.
3. It occurred before the Wagon massacre or Bellary train tragedy.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1
and 2
(c) Only 3 (d) None of these
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution
Wagon
massacre occurred in 1921 while Mangarh massacre took place in 1923.
The Wagon massacre or Bellary train tragedy was the death of 70 prisoners on 10
November 1921 in the Malabar region of Kerala state of India.
Enrich Your Learning
About the Mangarh Massacre
On November 17, 1913, on the hillock at Mangarh, a
religious congregation (which was part of a social reform movement known as the
Bhagat movement) was called by Govind Guru, a Bhil social
reformer.
However, rumours were spread that they were planning to revolt against the
princely states of Banswara and Santramour and establish a Bhil State.
Thus, British forces surrounded the gathering from three sides and
fired indiscriminately and killed 1500 Bhil tribal freedom fighters.
This massacre is also known as the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of
the Vagad region.
Why is it in the news?
National Monuments Authority has submitted a report on declaring Mangarh
hillock as a monument of National Importance.
91.
With reference to Marburg virus, consider the following
statements:
1. Fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family, are considered to be natural hosts of
Marburg virus.
2. There is treatment to neutralize the virus, but a range of blood products
and immune therapies are currently under development.
3. The Marburg virus is transmitted to people from fruit bats and there is no
possibility for human-to-human transmission.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer : a
Marburg virus
Marburg virus disease (MVD), formerly known as Marburg hemorrhagic fever, is a
severe, often fatal illness in humans.
The virus causes severe viral hemorrhagic fever in humans.
The average MVD case fatality rate is around 50%. Case fatality rates have
varied from 24% to 88% in past outbreaks depending on virus strain and case
management.
Early supportive care with rehydration, and symptomatic treatment improves
survival.
There is as yet no licensed treatment proven to neutralize the virus, but a
range of blood products, immune therapies and drug therapies are currently
under development.
Rousettus aegyptiacus, fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family, are considered to
be natural hosts of Marburg virus.
The Marburg virus is transmitted to people from fruit bats and spreads among
humans through human-to-human transmission.
Community engagement is key to successfully controlling outbreaks.
92. Consider the following statements regarding Maternal Mortality:
1. Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is the number of
maternal deaths during a given time per one lakh live births during the same
time.
2. As per the Registrar General of India’s latest Sample Registration System
(SRS) (2017-19), India has been witnessing a progressive reduction in MMR.
3. Among the state specific findings, Kerala has the lowest MMR and is way
ahead of India’s average MMR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only
C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
In March 2022, the Registrar General of India’s Sample
Registration System (SRS) released the latest special bulletin on Maternal
Mortality in India (2017-19).
As per the World Health Organization (WHO), maternal death is the death of a
woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy, from any
cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management.
Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is defined as the number of maternal deaths
during a given time per 1,00,000 live births during the same time.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India’s Status on MMR:
The MMR of India has declined by 10 points. It has declined from 113 in
2016-18 to 103 in 2017-19 (8.8 % decline).
The country had been witnessing a progressive reduction in the MMR from 130
in 2014-2016, 122 in 2015-17, 113 in 2016-18, and to 103 in 2017-19.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
India was on the verge of achieving the National Health Policy (NHP) target
of 100/lakh live births by 2020 and certainly on track to achieve the United
Nations Sustainable Development Goals target of 70/ lakh live births by 2030.
The number of States that have achieved the SDG target has now risen from five
to seven -- Kerala (30), Maharashtra (38), Telangana (56), Tamil Nadu (58),
Andhra Pradesh (58), Jharkhand (61), and Gujarat (70).
Kerala has recorded the lowest MMR which puts Kerala way ahead of the
national MMR of 103. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Kerala’s Maternal MMR has dropped by 12 points. The last SRS bulletin
(2015-17) had put the State’s MMR at 42 (later adjusting it to 43).
There are now nine States that have achieved the MMR target set by the NHP,
which include the above seven and Karnataka (83) and Haryana (96).
93.
An active rainfall spell over western Pacific regions (eastern
China) often drives away moisture from the Indian region. What is this
phenomenon called?
(a)
El Niño
(b) Madden-Julian Oscillation
(c) La Niña
(d) Mei-yu Front
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution
The meiyu front is an active rainfall spell over western Pacific regions
(eastern China) that often drives away moisture from the Indian region.
Enrich Your Learning
About the Mei-Yu Front
It is
a quasi-persistent, nearly stationary, east–west-oriented weak
baroclinic zone in the lower troposphere.
It typically stretches from the east China
coast, across Taiwan, and eastward into the Pacific, south of Japan.
The mei-yu front generally occurs from mid to late spring through
early to mid-summer.
It causes heavy rain in the area.
There is an inverse relation i.e. if there is heavy rainfall over
northeast China, then there is less rainfall over India.
About the Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO)
It is a major fluctuation in tropical weather on weekly
to monthly timescales.
It can be characterised as an eastward moving 'pulse' of cloud and
rainfall near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days.
It is linked with enhanced and suppressed rainfall activity in
the tropics and is very important for the Indian monsoonal rainfall.
Why is it in the news?
India has an 8% deficit in monsoons in June 2022. The blame lies with the
Madden-Julian Oscillation and the Mei-yu Front.
94.
Consider the following
statements
1. Metaverse is touted to establish
Internet 1.0.
2. It involves the physical presence of users.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Metaverse is touted to establish Internet 2.0, It
involves the virtual presence of users and uses AR, VR and Blockchain
Technology.
95.
According to the Census of
India, migration is enumerated on which of the following basis?
1. place of birth
2. place of residence
3. place of origin
choose the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
In the Census of India migration is enumerated on two bases:
place of birth, if the place of birth is different from the place of
enumeration (known as lifetime migrant);
place of residence, if the place of the last residence is different from the
place of enumeration (known as migrant by place of last residence).
96. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. C2+50 formula for the calculation of Minimum Support Price (MSP) is given by the Rangarajan Committee.
2. C2 represents the total cost of the crop's economic value which includes
efforts of family members working on the farm, rent and other assets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
M S Swaminathan report had recommended that the MSP
should be calculated by including all actual farm costs as C2 along with an
additional 50% margin i.e C2+50 percent formula. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.
The C2+50 method performs MSP calculations involving a wider range of
inputs.
This includes, in addition to the factors used to calculate A2, the economic
value of the efforts of family members working on the farm, and the value of
other expenses, including rent and other assets (C2). Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
97.
Consider the following
statements:
1. The term "Minority" is not defined in the Indian Constitution.
2. The Constitution recognises religious and Linguistic minorities in India through
Article 29 and Article 30.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The term "Minority" is not defined in the Indian Constitution. The
Constitution recognises religious minorities in India and Linguistic minorities
in India through Article 29 and Article 30.
Article 29 protects the interests of the minorities by making a provision that
any citizen/section of citizens having a distinct language, script, or culture
have the right to conserve the same.
Article 30(1) says that all minorities, whether based on religion or language,
shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of
their choice.
98.
Consider the following
statements:
1. A religious or linguistic community that is a minority in a particular State
can inherently claim protection and the right to administer and run its own
educational institutions.
2. The minority status of religious and linguistic
communities is dependent upon the provisions of the items in the Union
list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Minority status
Minority status of religious and linguistic communities is “State-dependent”,
the Supreme Court.
The court was hearing a petition filed by a Mathura resident complaining that
followers of Judaism, Bahaism, and Hinduism, who are the real minorities in
Ladakh, Mizoram, Lakshadweep, Kashmir, and Nagaland, cannot establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice because of non-identification of
‘minority’ at State level.
Hindus residing in certain States were unable to exercise their rights under
Articles 29 and 30 in the absence of a specific notification declaring them a
minority.
The Supreme court indicated that a religious or linguistic community that is a
minority in a particular State can claim protection and the right to administer
and run its own educational institutions under Articles 29 and 30 of the
Constitution.
99. Consider the following statements:
1. Only those communities notified under section 2(c) of
the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 are regarded as a minority.
2. The Minority status of religious and linguistic communities is
State-dependent.
Article 350-B provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Minority Status in India
The Supreme Court has said that the Minority status of
religious and linguistic communities is “State-dependent”. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
Supreme Court Ruling
Every person in India can be a minority in one State or the other. A
Marathi can be a minority outside his home State e.g., Maharashtra. Similarly,
a Kannada-speaking person may be in a minority in States other than Karnataka.
The court indicated that a religious or linguistic community which is a
minority in a particular State, can inherently claim protection and the right
to administer and run its own educational institutions under Articles 29 and 30
of the Constitution.
Minorities notified by the
Government of India
Currently, only those communities notified under
section 2(c) of the NCM (National Commission for Minorities) Act, 1992, by the
central government are regarded as minority. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In 1992, with the enactment of the NCM Act, 1992, the MC became a statutory
body and was renamed as the NCM.
In 1993, the first Statutory National Commission was set up and five religious
communities viz. The Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians
(Parsis) were notified as minority communities. In 2014, Jains were also
notified as a minority community.
Constitutional Provisions for
Minority
Article 29: It provides that any section of the citizens
residing in any part of India having a distinct language, script or culture of
its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. It grants protection to
both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. However, the SC
held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities
only, as use of the word ‘section of citizens’ in the Article includes
minorities as well as the majority.
Article 30: All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice. The protection under Article 30 is
confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic) and does not extend to
any section of citizens (as under Article 29).
Article 350-B: The 7th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 1956 inserted this
article which provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
appointed by the President of India. It would be the duty of the Special
Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for
linguistic minorities under the Constitution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
100.
Mission Karmayogi was launched with the main objective of
A. To provide mentorship to tribal youth
through digital mode.
B. Assisting Indian MSMEs by solving
their grievances, encouraging, supporting, helping and handholding.
C. Nationwide programme to lay the
foundation for capacity building of civil servants.
D. Implementing Direct Benefit Transfer
for procurement of food grains by the Food Corporation of India.
Which of the above statement is correct?
Sol:
• Mission Karmayogi is a nationwide
programme to lay the foundation for capacity building of civil servants. It
will help the officers to learn about the best practices across the world.
• Officially called the "National
Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB)", the mission
plans to transform human resource management in the country.
• Mission Karmayogi aims to prepare the
Indian civil servant for the future by making him more creative, constructive,
imaginative, innovative, proactive, professional, progressive, energetic,
enabling, transparent and technology-enabled.
• The fundamental focus of the reform is
the creation of a ‘citizen centric civil service’ capable of creating and
delivering services conducive to economic growth and public welfare.
• It shifts the focus from “Rule based
training to Role based training”. Greater thrust has been laid on behavioural
change.
Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)
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