Daily Current Affairs Questions August 2022 Part 8

 

Daily Current Affairs Questions

August 2022 Part 8

Why in News

1.        Angel investor

2.        Aral Sea

3.        Asiatic black bear

4.        Bonalu Festival

5.        BRICS Payments Task Force (BPTF)

6.        Build Back Better World (B3W)

7.        Bureaucracy

8.        Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)

9.        Cheetah

10.     Citizenship

11.     Collective Investment Scheme

12.     Commission for air quality management (CAQM)

13.     Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR)

14.     Competition Commission of India (CCI)

15.     Countering America’s Adversaries through Sanctions Act (CAATSA)

16.     crypto-currencies

17.     Currency crisis

18.     Depsang Plains

19.     Directive Principles

20.     Drugs & Cosmetics Act

21.     Environment Impact Assessment

22.     Famous place and  River

23.     Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)

24.     Forest Rights Act (FRA)

25.     G20 group

26.     G7 countries

27.     Geneva Conventions

28.     Global Findex Database

29.     Important Bird Areas (IBAs)

30.     Imported Inflation

31.     India’s first World Heritage City

32.     Indian Penal Code

33.     IndiGen programme

34.     Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA)

35.     Interest rate growth rate differential (IRGD)

36.     Internal Debt

37.     International Criminal Court (ICC)

38.     International Labour Organisation, Conventions

39.     Jagriti mascot

40.     Jal Jeevan Mission

41.     jute

42.     Kanganahalli

43.     Kedar Nath vs State of Bihar

44.     Kuno-Palpur National Park

45.     landlord port model

46.     legal service

47.     legislation

48.     Minimum Support Prices (MSP)

49.     Mission Karmayogi

50.     Monkeypox Disease

51.     MSME sector

52.     Nadaprabhu Kempegowda

53.     Namsai Declaration

54.     National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem

55.     'National Agriculture Market' (NAM)

56.     National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)

57.     National Industrial Corridor Development Program (NICDP)

58.     National Investigation Agency (NIA)

59.     National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)

60.     National Statistical Office (NSO)

61.     National Statistical Office (NSO)

62.     NIPUN Bharat Mission

63.     North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)

64.     Nuclear science in Agriculture

65.     Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)

66.     Nuclear Triad

67.     Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’

68.     Off-budget borrowing

69.     opium

70.     Organic theatre

71.     Panchamrit

72.     Parliament

73.     Parliamentary System in India

74.     Participatory Notes (P-Notes)

75.     Photosynthesis

76.     Podu

77.     Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

78.     Poppy and opium

79.     Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana

80.     Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana

81.     Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana

82.     Prafulla Chandra Ray

83.     President of India

84.     Presidential Election

85.     Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies

86.     Randomized controlled trial

87.     Rashtriya Gokul Mission

88.     Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) UDAN scheme

89.     Registrar General of India

90.     Remittance source

91.     Reserve assets

92.     Reverse currency wars

93.     Rice

94.     Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act

95.     S-400

96.     S-400 missile system

97.     Samagra Shiksha program

98.     SAMARTH

99.     Sannati site

100.  Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act

 

1.        “Angel investor” means any person who proposes to invest in an angel fund and satisfies which of the following conditions?
1. Has early stage investment experience
2. Has experience as a serial entrepreneur
3. Is a senior management professional with at least ten years of experience
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
“Angel investor” means any person who proposes to invest in an angel fund and satisfies one of the following conditions, namely,
(a) an individual investor who has net tangible assets of at least two crore rupees excluding value of his principal residence, and who:
(i) has early stage investment experience, or
(ii) has experience as a serial entrepreneur, or
(iii) is a senior management professional with at least ten years of experience;
(‘Early stage investment experience’ shall mean prior experience in investing in start-up or emerging or early-stage ventures and ‘serial entrepreneur’ shall mean a person who has promoted or co-promoted more than one start-up venture.)

2.        Aral Sea is an endorheic lake that is part of the territories of
1. Kazakhstan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Uzbekistan
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 1, 2, 3
 d) 2, 3
Solution: b)

3.        Consider the following statements regarding Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus):
1. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
2. It is one of the largest carnivores of Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (e) 1 only
 (f) 2 only
 (g) Both 1 and 2
 (h) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus) is one of the largest carnivores of Senchal Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS), West Bengal.

4.        Consider the following statements about Bonalu Festival:
1. It is one of the biggest festivals of Telangana.
2. It is celebrated in the month of Ashada.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The festival is dedicated to Goddess Mahakali, thanking her for fulfilling the wishes of her devotees.
Bonalu is a popular festival celebrated in Hyderabad and Secunderabad.
Bonalu is celebrated in the month of Ashada which, according to the modern calendar, falls around July-August.

5.        Consider the following statements.
1. The Beijing Declaration led to the establishment of New Development Bank (NDB) by BRICS countries.
2. BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement aims to provide short-term liquidity support to the members.
3. BRICS Payments Task Force (BPTF) coordinates between the central banks of BRICS countries for an alternative to the SWIFT payment system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2, 3
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (Brazil) in 2014, the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB – Shanghai, China).
They also signed the BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement to provide short-term liquidity support to the members.
BRICS Payments Task Force (BPTF) for coordination between their central banks for an alternative to the SWIFT payment system.

6.        Build Back Better World (B3W) is the initiative undertaken by
 a) G7 Countries
 b) G20 Countries
 c) ASEAN
 d) OECD
Solution: a)
Build Back Better World (B3W) is an initiative undertaken by G7 countries. Launched in June 2021, the initiative is designed to counter China’s strategic influence of the BRI Project (Belt and Road Initiative) by providing an alternative to the Belt and Road Initiative for the infrastructure development of the low- and middle-income countries.

7.        In the context of India which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for Bureaucracy?
 (a) An agency for widening the scope for parliamentary democracy
 (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
 (c) An agency for facilitating the political stability and economic growth
 (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Bureaucracy refers to an administrative policy-implementation group, which is a body of non-elected government officials.

8.        Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC):
1. A Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is the legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form.
2. It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Context: RBI is in the process of implementing the CBDC in a phased manner for wholesale and retail segments.
A CBDC is the legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form. It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency. Only its form is different.

9.        Consider the following statements:
1. The cheetah is the world’s fastest land mammal.
2. It is listed as endangered in IUCN red listed species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The cheetah is also the world’s fastest land mammal.
It is listed as vulnerable in IUCN red listed species.
The country’s last spotted feline died in Chhattisgarh in 1947. Later, the cheetah — which is the fastest land animal — was declared extinct in India in 1952.
The Asiatic cheetah is classified as a “critically endangered” species by the IUCN Red List,and is believed to survive only in Iran.

10.     Consider the following statements:
1. The guidelines for renunciation of Indian citizenship is issued by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
2. Every minor child of the person who ceases to be a citizen of India shall also cease to be a citizen of India.
 (a) 1 Only
 (b) 2 Only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The citizenship act, of 1955 prescribes three ways of losing citizenship:
By renunciation: Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing Indian citizenship. Such declaration may not be accepted during the war. Even the minor children of the person who renounces citizenship stand to lose their Indian citizenship. However, when their children attain the age of eighteen, they may resume Indian citizenship
By termination: If a citizen of India voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, then he loses the citizenship of India
By deprivation: Compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government, if the person obtained the citizenship by fraud or shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India or imprisoned for a term of two years (in the last 5 years after naturalization) or citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for a period of 7 years
The guidelines said that when a person ceases to be a citizen of India under Section 8(1) of Citizenship Act, 1955, “every minor child of that person shall thereupon ceases to be a citizen of India”. The minor child may, however, within one year of attaining full age apply to resume Indian citizenship. The guidelines are not clear if minors would also lose citizenship if only one of the parents gives up her/his Indian citizenship.

11.     Consider the following statements regarding Collective Investment Scheme.
1. A Collective Investment Scheme is an investment scheme where various individuals come together and pool their money in order to invest their whole fund collection in a particular asset.
2. Mutual funds are an example for Collective Investment Scheme in India.
3. They are regulated by Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
A Collective Investment Scheme is an investment scheme where various individuals come together and pool their money in order to invest their whole fund collection in a particular asset. The returns and profits arising from this investment would be shared as per the agreement finalised amongst the investors prior to the act.
Collective Investment Schemes, on a global scale, has broader connotations which include mutual funds as well.
However, the Schemes, as prescribed in Section 11AA of the SEBI Act of 1992, excludes mutual funds and other schemes in India.
The Securities Exchange Board of Indiaregulates them under the SEBI (Collective Investment Scheme) Regulations of 1999.

12.     Consider the following statements about Commission for air quality management (CAQM):
1. It is a statutory body.
2. Its authority supersedes the central and state pollution control board of all states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
It released the policy to curb air pollution in the Delhi-NCR region
Background: The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established as a statutory bodyby the government in August 2021 as an overarching body to carry out air quality management in Delhi NCR.
Its authority supersedes the central and state pollution control boardof Delhi, Haryana, UP, Punjab and Rajasthan.

13.     Consider the following statements regarding Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR).
1. Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR) is the foundational principle of United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and address negative impacts to global environment.
3. It establishes that all states are responsible for addressing global environmental destruction yet not equally responsible.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR), principle of international environmental law establishing that all states are responsible for addressing global environmental destruction yet not equally responsible.
It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and the most comprehensive international attempt to address negative impacts to global environment.
The foundational principle of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which is common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR).

14.     Consider the following statements about the Competition Commission of India (CCI):
1. It acts as the competition regulator in India.
2. It is working under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory and quasi-judicial body working under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It was established under the Competition Act, 2002 for the administration, implementation and enforcement of the Act, and was duly constituted in March 2009.

15.     Consider the following statements regarding Countering America’s Adversaries through Sanctions Act (CAATSA).
1. Its core objective is to counter Iran, Russia and North Korea through punitive measures.
2. It empowers the US President to impose some sanctions on persons engaged in a “significant transaction” with Russian defence and intelligence sectors.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Countering America’s Adversaries through Sanctions Act (CAATSA) was passed unanimously by the US Congress and signed reluctantly by Donald Trump. Enacted on August 2, 2017, its core objective is to counter Iran, Russia and North Korea through punitive measures.
Title II of the Act primarily deals with sanctions on Russian interests such as its oil and gas industry, defence and security sector, and financial institutions, in the backdrop of its military intervention in Ukraine and its alleged meddling in the 2016 US Presidential elections.
Section 231 of the Act empowers the US President to impose at least five of the 12 listed sanctions — enumerated in Section 235 of the Act — on persons engaged in a “significant transaction” with Russian defence and intelligence sectors.

16.     Consider the following statements:
1. All crypto-currencies are based on Blockchain technology.
2. Altcoins refer to a class of alternative crypto-currencies that were launched after the success of Bitcoin.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Not all crypto-currencies are based on Blockchain technology. For instance, ‘IOTA’ is one such crypto-currency. Instead of a blockchain, IOTA uses a mathematical ‘tangle’. Altcoins are the alternative cryptocurrencies launched after the success of Bitcoin. Generally, they project themselves as better substitutes to Bitcoin.

17.     In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 1 and 3 only
 (c) 2 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
A currency crisis results in a sharp depreciation of domestic currency and may force the authorities to sell foreign exchange reserves and take measures (for e.g. raise domestic interest rates) to defend the downfall in currency.
S1: If a country has a strong export performance, a currency crisis is difficulty to occur. Since S1 leads to greater exports, it will reduce the risk.
S2: Increase in government expenditure may actually increase imports and adversely affect the currency crisis. Usually, austerity in public spending is one of the measures prescribed to contain a foreign exchange or currency crisis.
S3: Greater flow of remittances would help avert the currency crisis since greater inflow of foreign currency (which is converted into rupees by the recipient of the remittance in India) raises the demand for domestic currency.
Decline in the value of a country’s currency is known as Currency Crisis that negatively affects the economy by creating instabilities in currency exchange rates. The foreign currency earnings of India’s Information Technology (IT) sector and remittances from Indians abroad together can reduce the risk of a currency crisis in India.

18.     Consider the following statements regarding Depsang Plains.
1. For India Depsang Plains provides land access to Central Asia through the Karakoram Pass.
2. The entire portion of Depsang Plains is controlled by India.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 (a) 1 Only
 (b) 2 Only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Depsang is an enclave of flat terrain located in an area the Army classifies as Sub-Sector North (SSN), which provides land access to Central Asia through the Karakoram Pass.
The Depsang Plains represent a high-altitude gravelly plain at the northwest portion of the disputed Aksai Chin region of Kashmir.
India controls the western portion of the plains as part of Ladakh, whereas the eastern portion is controlled by China and claimed by India.

19.     Consider the following statements.
1. The Fundamental Duties are held obligatory for all citizens subject to the State enforcing the same by means of a valid law.
2. Any law that even though it deviates from the Fundamental Rights, but has been made to give effect to the Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c)would not be deemed invalid.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
The Relationship Between the Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties:
Directive Principles have been used to uphold the Constitutional validity of legislation in case of conflict with Fundamental Rights.
According to the amendment of 1971, any law that even though it deviates from the Fundamental Rights, but has been made to give effect to the Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and Article 39 (c)would not be deemed invalid.
The Fundamental Duties will be held obligatory for all citizens subject to the State enforcing the same by means of a valid law.

20.     Consider the following statements:
1. In India, Generic Drugs were defined under the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Rules, 1945.
2. Drugs manufactured in India, irrespective of whether they are generic or branded, are required to comply with the same standards as prescribed in the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Rules, 1945 made thereunder for their quality.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 Only
 (b) 2 Only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Stat1: There is no definition of generic or branded medicines under the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Rules, 1945 made thereunder. However, generic medicines are generally those which contain same amount of same active ingredient(s) in same dosage form and are intended to be administered by the same route of administration as that of branded medicine.
Stat2: Drugs manufactured in the country, irrespective of whether they are generic or branded, are required to comply with the same standards as prescribed in the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Rules, 1945 made thereunder for their quality.

21.     Consider the following statements
1. As per the Environment Impact Assessment Notification 2020,
2. It shortens the period of public consultation hearings to a maximum of 40 days.
3. It allows the declaration of some areas as “economically sensitive areas” without a public hearing.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
S1: It shortens the period of public consultation hearings to a maximum of 40 days.
It reduces from 30 to 20 days the time provided for the public to submit their responses during a public hearing for any application seeking environmental clearance.
S2: It also allows the declaration of some areas as “economically sensitive areas” without a public hearing or environmental clearance, and several “red” and “orange”-classified toxic industries could now operate as close as 0-5 km from a Protected Area in “callous disregard” for forests. • The increased validity of the environment clearances for mining projects (50 years versus 30 years currently) and river valley projects (15 years versus 10 years currently) raises the risk of irreversible environmental, social and health consequences on account of the project remaining unnoticed for long.

22.     Consider the following pairs
Famous place                River
Pandharpur              Chandrabhaga
Tiruchirappalli                   Cauvery
Hampi                               Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The Bhima River is a major river in Western India and South India. The river is also referred to as Chandrabhaga River, especially at Pandharpur, as it resembles the shape of the Moon.
Hampi is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the eastern part of central Karnataka.
The two major rivers draining Tiruchirappalli are the Kaveri and its tributary the Kollidam

23.     Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA).
1. The law was enacted after the Economic reforms of 1991.
2. The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic.
3. The law does not allow for transfer of funds received by an NGO to another NGO.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2 only
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The FCRA was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping money into the country through independent organisations.
The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic”.
An amended FCRA was enacted in 2010 to “consolidate the law” on utilisation of foreign funds, and “to prohibit” their use for “any activities detrimental to national interest”.
The law was amended again in 2020, giving the government tighter control and scrutiny over the receipt and utilisation of foreign funds by NGOs.
FCRA requires every person or NGO receiving foreign donations to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO.

24.     Consider the following statements:
1. Whenever forest land is diverted for non-forest purposes, it is mandatory under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 that an equivalent area of non-forest land has to be taken up for compensatory afforestation.
2. As per the rules, 90% of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund money is to be given to the states while 10% is to be retained by the Centre.
3. As per recent notification by GOI, states which have a forest land of more than 75% of their geographical area need not provide non-forest land for compensatory afforestation.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
S3: the Ministry of Environment notified that states which have a forest land of more than 75% of their geographical area need not provide non-forest land for compensatory afforestation. Instead, land can be taken up in states with lesser forest cover. Further, it was also notified that the minimum area of compensatory land should be five hectares if the land is not contiguous to a forest.
S1: According to the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, each time forest land is diverted, the project proponent has to pay the state to undertake plantation and for the ecosystem services lost due to diverting forest land, called Net Present Value (NPV). Whenever forest land is diverted for non-forest purposes, it is mandatory under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 that an equivalent area of non-forest land has to be taken up for compensatory afforestation.
S2: As per the rules, 90% of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund money is to be given to the states while 10% is to be retained by the Centre.

25.     Consider the following statements regarding G20 group.
1. IMF and World Bank are the permanent guest invitees for G20 summits.
2. The working of G20 is divided into two tracks, i.e, the finance track and the Sherpa track.
3. The Sherpa track focuses on broader issues such as political engagement, anti-corruption, development and energy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The working of G20 is divided into two tracks:
The finance track: It comprises all meetings with G20 finance ministers and central bank governors and their deputies. Meeting several times throughout the year they focus on monetary and fiscal issues, financial regulations, etc.
The Sherpa track: It focuses on broader issues such as political engagement, anti-corruption, development, energy, etc. Each G20 country is represented by its Sherpa; who plans, guides, implements, etc. on behalf of the leader of their respective country.
The work of G20 members is supported by several international organizations (Permanent guest invitees):
These organizations include:
The Financial Stability Board (FSB). The FSB, which was established by G20 leaders following the onset of the global financial crisis,
The International Labour Organization (ILO).
The International Monetary Fund (IMF).
The Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
United Nations (UN)
World Bank
The World Trade Organization (WTO)

26.     Consider the following statements.
1. All the G7 countries and India are part of G20 grouping.
2. None of the BRICS countries are members of G7.
3. The G7 does not have a formal constitution or a fixed headquarters.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The G7 countries are the UK, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and the US.
All the G7 countries and India are a part of G20.
The G7 does not have a formal constitution or a fixed headquarters.
The decisions taken by leaders during annual summits are non-binding.
BRICS is the group composed of the five major emerging countries –Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

27.     Consider the following statements regarding Geneva Conventions.
1. The Geneva Conventions is a Public International Law whose purpose is to provide minimum protections, standards of humane treatment to individuals who become victims of armed conflicts.
2. The Geneva Conventions protect non-combatants and civilians as well.
3. Not all UN member states have ratified the Convention.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Geneva Conventions is a body of Public International Law, also known as the Humanitarian Law of Armed Conflicts, whose purpose is to provide minimum protections, standards of humane treatment, and fundamental guarantees of respect to individuals who become victims of armed conflicts.
The Geneva Conventions that originally only addressed the treatment of combatants was later expanded to include non-combatants and civilians as well.
The Geneva Conventions have been ratified by 196 states, including all UN member states.

28.     “Global Findex Database” is released by which of the following?
 (a) IMF
 (b) WEF
 (c) WTO
 (d) WBG
Ans: (d)
Explanation: The Global Findex Database 2021 – World Bank Group
World Bank’s Global Findex database surveyed how people in 123 economies use formal and informal financial services e.g., cards, ATMs, mobile phones, and the internet.
India-specific findings:
Low access to formal banking in India and there is a lack of trust.
Aadhar contributed to account ownership in about 80% of adults (from 35% in 2011)
Drop-in fraud and leakage: Transitioning from cash to biometric smart cards has reduced leakage by 47% in pension payments.

29.     Consider the following statements regarding Important Bird Areas (IBAs).
1. Important Bird Areas are declared by Birdlife International.
2. It aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of the world’s birds and associated biodiversity.
3. More than one-third of India’s IBAs fall outside the Protected area network.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
What is Important Bird Areas (IBAs)
Birds are excellent indicators of ecosystem health. The IBA programme of Birdlife International aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for conservation of the world’s birds and associated biodiversity. The IBAs serve as conservation areas for protection of birds at the global, regional or sub-regional level.
The IBAs contain a range of habitats, such as wetlands, mudflats, microhabitats in biodiversity hotspots, grasslands and scrublands, making them excellent indicators of biodiversity richness.
The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and Birdlife International have identified 467 IBAs in India (Islam and Rahmani, 2004). Forty percent of these IBAs fall outside the PA network and thus form an important tool for landscape-level conservation planning.

30.     Consider the following statements regarding Imported Inflation.
1. When the general price level rises in a country because of the rise in prices of imported commodities, it is termed as imported Inflation.
2. The weakening of the domestic currency may lead to increase in the cost of imported items.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
When the general price level rises in a country due to the rise in prices of imported commodities, inflation is termed imported. Inflation may also rise due to depreciation of the domestic currency, which pushes up the landed rupee cost of imported items.

31.     India’s first World Heritage City Status was accorded to which of the following city by UNESCO?
 (a) Bodh Gaya
 (b) Jaipur
 (c) Ahmedabad
 (d) Varanasi
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Indian city Ahmedabad and the state of Keralahave been mentioned in TIME magazine’s list of the world’s greatest places of 2022.
The commercial capital of Gujarat, Ahmedabad, has been formally accorded the status of India’s first World Heritage City by UNESCO.

32.     Consider the following statements:
1. Constitution of India does not define the word bail but only categories offences as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’.
2. Constitution of India empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a matter of right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categories offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’.
The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a matter of right.
This would involve release on furnishing a bail bond, without or without security.
In the case of Non-bailable offences, a magistrate would determine if the accused is fit to be released on bail.
Non-bailable offences are cognisable, which enables the police officer to arrest without a warrant.

33.     Consider the following statements regarding IndiGen programme.
1. It aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of thousands of Indian individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.
2. The human genome data sets could be utilized for prioritizing Pharmacogenomics variants specific for Indian population for optimizing therapy and minimizing adverse events.
3. It is the initiative of Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 1 and 2 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Genomics for Public Health in India (IndiGen) programme:
The IndiGen initiative was undertaken by CSIR in April 2019, which was implemented by the CSIR-Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB), Delhi and CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Hyderabad.
It aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of thousands of individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.
The objective is to enable genetic epidemiology and develop public health technologies applications using population genome data.
The human genome data sets would also be utilized for prioritizing Pharmacogenomics variants specific for Indian population for optimizing therapy and minimizing adverse events.

34.     Consider the following statements regarding Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA).
1. It is a satellite-based maritime security system aiming for peace, stability, and prosperity in the Indo-Pacific region.
2. The initiative will allow tracking of dark shipping and other tactical activities in the Indo-Pacific region.
IPMDA initiative was launched under UNCLOS.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Major maritime initiative launched by QUAD leaders to check illegal fishing in the Indo-Pacific region and enhance the security apparatus of the region. ‘Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness’ (IPMDA) will offer an integrated and cost-effective maritime domain and transform the ability of partners in the Pacific Islands, Southeast Asia, and the Indian Ocean region to fully monitor the waters on their shores.
The IPMDA is said to be a satellite-based maritime security system aiming for a “fundamental requirement for peace, stability, and prosperity” in the Indo-Pacific region.
The initiative will integrate three critical regions of the Pacific Islands – Southeast Asia, and the Indian Ocean region – and allow tracking of “dark shipping” and other “tactical activities”.
“Dark ships” are vessels with their Automatic Identification System (AIS) – a transponder system – switched off so as not to be detectable.
The maritime system will also improve the partners’ ability to respond to climate and humanitarian events and protect their fisheries – a vital need for many Indo-Pacific economies.

35.     Consider the following statements.
1. Interest rate growth rate differential (IRGD) is a key indicator of an economy’s long-run debt sustainability.
2. When the cost of raising debt is higher than the gross domestic product (GDP) growth rate, then public debt comes with low fiscal costs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
A key indicator of an economy’s long-run debt sustainability is the differential between interest paid on government debt and the economy’s nominal growth rate. When the cost of raising debt is lower than the gross domestic product (GDP) growth rate, public debt comes with low fiscal costs. In such a situation, the debt-to-GDP ratio of the economy declines as debts are rolled over.

36.     In India, Internal Debt comprises
1. Loans raised in the open market
2. Treasury bills issued to State Governments and Commercial Banks.
3. Non-interest bearing rupee securities issued to International Financial Institutions.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Internal Debt comprises loans raised in the open market, compensation and other bonds, etc. It also includes borrowings through treasury bills including treasury bills issued to State Governments, Commercial Banks and other Investors, as well as non-negotiable, non-interest bearing rupee securities issued to International Financial Institutions

37.     Consider the following statements regarding International Criminal Court (ICC).
1. International Criminal Court is the first permanent, treaty based, international court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
2. International Criminal Court is principal organ of United Nations.
3. ICC’s expenses are entirely funded by States Parties.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 2, 3
Solution: a)
About ICC:
The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is the court of last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
It is the first permanent, treaty based, international court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
Its founding treaty, the Rome Statute, entered into force on July 1, 2002.
Funding: Although the Court’s expenses are funded primarily by States Parties, it also receives voluntary contributions from governments, international organisations, individuals, corporations and other entities.
The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the UN.

38.     International Labour Organisation, Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
 (a) Child labour
 (b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
 (c) Regulation of food prices and food security
 (d) Gender parity at the workplace
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
International commitment: India has ratified the International Labour Organizations Convention (ILO)no 138 (minimum age for employment) and Convention no 182(worst forms of child labour).

39.     Regarding “Jagriti mascot”, consider the following statements:
1. It is a mascot created by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. It aims to “empower consumers and generate awareness of their rights”.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
It is a mascot for empowering consumers and generating awareness of their rights. It will spread awareness about consumer rights, the consumer protection act 2019, Hallmarking, the provision of weights and measures act etc.
Other initiative: “Jago Grahak Jago” campaign, National Consumer Helpline (NCH), Consumer welfare fund
Launched by the Department of Consumer Affairs (DoCA)

40.     Consider the following statements about the Jal Jeevan Mission:
1. It envisages a supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2030.
2. It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
JJM envisages a supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
It was launched in 2019.
Funding is demand-driven.
The mission is very strongly focused on Jan bhagidari, or community engagement which is seen as a very important pillar of the project.

41.     “It needs plain alluvial soil and standing water. During the monsoon season, the monsoon climate offers a suitable environment for growing this crop (warm and wet). Temperatures from 20 to 40 °C and relative humidity of 70%–80% are favorable for successful cultivation. Jute requires 5–8 cm (2–3 in) of rainfall weekly and more during the sowing time.” Which one of the following is that crop?
 (a) Cotton
 (b) Jute
 (c) Sugarcane
 (d) Tea
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The jute plant needs plain alluvial soil and standing water. During the monsoon season, the monsoon climate offers a suitable environment for growing jute (warm and wet). Temperatures from 20 to 40 °C (68–104 °F) and relative humidity of 70%–80% are favorable for successful cultivation. Jute requires 5–8 cm (2–3 in) of rainfall weekly and more during the sowing time. Soft water is necessary for jute production.

42.     In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
 (a) Kanganahalli
 (b) Sanchi I
 (c) Shahbazgarhi
 (d) Sohgaura
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
During the excavations (2000 to 2002) at Kanganahalli, the most important finding of the excavation include a stone sculptured slab bearing the name Raya Ashoka. This was the first inscribed portrait of Ashoka (surrounded by female attendants and queens) that was unearthed from the ruined Buddhist stupa.

43.     The judgement “Kedar Nath vs State of Bihar (1962)”, sometimes seen in news is related to
 a) Balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs
 b) Basic structure of the Constitution
 c) Constitutionality of Sec. 124A of IPC
 d) None of the above
Solution: c)
The Kedar Nath ruling on sedition (Kedarnath Singh v State of Bihar)
A five-judge Constitution Bench overruled the earlier rulings of the high courts and upheld the constitutional validity of IPC Section 124A. However, the court attempted to restrict its scope for misuse. The court held that unless accompanied by an incitement or call for violence, criticism of the government cannot be labelled sedition. The ruling restricted sedition only insofar as seditious speech tended to incite “public disorder”- a phrase Section 124A itself does not contain but was read into it by the court.

44.     In which one of the following States is Kuno-Palpur National Park is located?
 (a) Gujarat
 (b) Rajasthan
 (c) Madhya Pradesh
 (d) Maharashtra
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Kuno is a national park in Madhya Pradesh, India.
It is part of the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion

45.     Consider the following statements regarding landlord port model.
1. In the landlord port model, the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body that carry out port operations—mainly cargo handling activities.
2. Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 Only
 (b) 2 Only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
In the landlord port model, the publicly governed port authority acts as a regulatory body and as landlord while private companies carry out port operations—mainly cargo-handling activities.
Here, the port authority maintains ownership of the port while the infrastructure is leased to private firms that provide and maintain their own superstructure and install own equipment to handle cargo.
In return, the landlord port gets a share of the revenue from the private entity.
The role of the landlord port authority would be to carry out all public sector services and operations such as the award of bids for cargo terminals and dredging

46.     In India, legal service authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs2,00,000
3. Member of other backward classes(OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
4. All senior citizens
Select the correct answer using the given code below-
 (a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 3 and 4 only
 (c) 2 and 3 only
 (d) 1 and 4 only
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
S1 and S3: The sections of the society as enlisted under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act are entitled for free legal services, they are :
A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe;
A victim of trafficking in human beings or begar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution;
A woman or a child;
A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person;
A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster; or
An industrial workman; or
In custody, including custody in a protective home within the meaning of clause (g) of Section 2 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956(104 of 1956); or in a juvenile home within the meaning of clause(j) of Section 2 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 1986 (53 of 1986); or in a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric nursing home within the meaning of clause (g) of Section 2 of the Mental Health Act, 1987(14 of 1987);or
a person in receipt of annual income less than the amount mentioned in the following schedule (or any other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government), if the case is before a Court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs 5 Lakh, if the case is before the Supreme Court.
The Income Ceiling Limit prescribed u/S 12(h) of the Act for availing free legal services in different States has been stated here
S2: Limit for Transgender – Rs. 2,00,000  
S4: Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard.
In Delhi for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to prescribed ceiling of annual income. Any individual above the age of 60 can apply for free legal aid/services.

47.     Consider the following statements.
1. A legislation can be implemented even without the rules being notified.
2. As per the Manual on Parliamentary Work, in case the Ministries are not able to frame the rules within the prescribed period of six months after a legislation is passed, “they should seek extension of time from the Committee on Subordinate Legislation stating reasons for such extension” which cannot be more than for three months at a time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The legislation cannot be implemented without the rules being notified.
As per the Manual on Parliamentary Work, in case the Ministries/Departments are not able to frame the rules within the prescribed period of six months after a legislation is passed, “they should seek extension of time from the Committee on Subordinate Legislation stating reasons for such extension” which cannot be more than for three months at a time.

48.     Consider the following statements:
1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Prices (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
S1: While procurement is open-ended, it is not unlimited since our buffer stock is limited.
S2: This is absurd. MSP is only an indicative price, and Market price can rise way above or way below MSP given the situation.

49.     Mission Karmayogi was in news recently, is related to which of the following?
 (a) Agriculture Reforms
 (b) Women empowerment
 (c) Socio-Economic empowerment of tribal people
 (d) Reform in Indian Bureaucracy
Ans: (d)
Explanation: About Mission Karmayogi:
The ‘National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building – Mission Karmayogi’ was launched to effect a transformational shift from rule based training to role-based capacity development of all civil services in the country so as to enhance citizen experience for government services and improve availability of competent workforce.

50.     Which of the following is not correct regarding Monkeypox Disease?
1. It is not a zoonotic disease.
2. Animals known to be sources of Monkeypox virus include rodents and rabbits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
It is a viral zoonotic disease (transmission from animals to humans).
It is identified as a pox-like disease among monkeys hence it is named Monkeypox. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Animals known to be sources of Monkeypox virus include monkeys and apes, a variety of rodents (including rats, mice, squirrels and prairie dogs) and rabbits. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

51.     Consider the following statements.
1.  At present, the contribution of the MSME sector is around 60% of India’s GDP.
2.  TReDS platform is an initiative by the RBI to facilitate MSME receivable payments from corporates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: The MSME sector is the backbone of India's economy, contributing around 30% of India’s GDP and 50% of exports.
•  The government's aim is to increase the sector's contribution to the GDP to 50 per cent from the existing 30 per cent.
•  Statement 2 is correct: TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platform is an online mechanism set up by the RBI for facilitating the financing of trade receivables of MSMEs through multiple financiers. These receivables can be due from corporates and other buyers, including Government Departments and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
How does it work?
•  The process is also commonly known as ‘bills discounting’, a financier (typically a bank) buying a bill (trade receivable) from a seller of goods before it’s due or before the buyer credits the value of the bill. In other words, a seller gets credit against a bill which is due to him at a later date. The discount is the interest paid to the financier.
•  It enables discounting of invoices of MSME sellers raised against large corporate, allowing them to reduce working capital needs.
•  In 2018, the government mandated that companies whose turnover exceeds Rs 500 crore will have to be registered on the TReDS platform.

52.     Bengaluru airport is named after Nadaprabhu Kempegowda. Which dynasty did this famed chieftain belong to?
(a) Kadamba Empire
(b) Chola Empire
(c) Nanda Empire
(d) Vijayanagara Empire
Solution :
Answer: D
Solution:
Nadaprabhu Kempegowda was a 16th-century chieftain of the Vijayanagara empire.
Enrich Your Learning
Who is Nadaprabhu Kempagowda?
Nadaprabhu Kempegowda is a 16th-century chieftain of the Vijayanagara empire.
He was from the dominant agricultural Vokkaliga community in south Karnataka.
He is credited as the founder of Bengaluru.
He conceived the idea of a new city while hunting with his minister.
He later marked its territory by erecting towers in four corners of the proposed city.
He had developed around 1,000 lakes in the city to cater to drinking and agricultural needs.
Why is in the news?
A bronze statue of Nadaprabhu Kempegowda is soon to be unveiled at the premises of the Kempegowda International Airport (KIA).

53.     ‘Namsai Declaration’ was in news recently, is related to
 (a) good governance
 (b) interlinking of rivers
 (c) disaster management
 (d) settling border dispute
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Namsai Declaration:
This declaration is signed between the states of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh on July 15, 2022, at Namsai, Arunachal Pradesh to minimize the border dispute between the two states in respect of 123 villages placed before the Local Commission by Arunachal Pradesh.
According to the declaration, all border issues between Assam and Arunachal Pradesh will be confined to those raised before the local commission in 2007.

54.     With reference to National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem, consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint venture of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. It aims to achieve zero fatalities in sanitation work in India, all Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers have access to alternative livelihoods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem
The scheme is a joint venture of Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
It aims to achieve outcomes like:
Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India
No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human faecal matter
All Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers have access to alternative livelihoods
The Ministry has shortlisted type of machineries and core equipments required for maintenance works, safety gear for Safai Mitras.

55.     What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' (NAM) scheme?
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 and 2
Explanation
The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
Key Points
National Agriculture Market:
• National Agriculture Market networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
• It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. So statement 1 is correct.
• It provides the farmer's access to a nationwide mark with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Basically it gives the platform to get at more reasonable prices. So Statement 2 is also correct.
• It was launched by the Centre in 2015.
• NAM also helps to promote scientific storage and movement of Agri goods

56.     Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
1. National Commission for Backward Classes is a non-constitutional body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. The commission have the same powers as a Civil Court.
3. The commission was the outcome of Indra Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2 only
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body (123rd constitutional amendment bill 2017 and 102nd amendment 2018 in constitution to make it constitutional body) (Article 338B of the Indian Constitution) under Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment established on 14 August 1993. It was constituted pursuant to the provisions of the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
The commission was the outcome of Indra Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of India.
The National Commission for Backward Classes, National Commission for Scheduled Castes as well as National Commission for Scheduled Tribes have the same powers as a Civil Court.

57.     With reference to National Industrial Corridor Development Program (NICDP), consider the following statements:
1.  National Industrial Corridor Development and Implementation Trust is the implementing agency of the NICDP.
2. It aims to develop new industrial cities as "Smart Cities" and converging next generation technologies across infrastructure sectors.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution :
Answer: C
Solution:
Both the statements are correct.
Enrich your Learning
National Industrial Corridor Development Program
It is India's most ambitious infrastructure programme.
Aim: To develop new industrial cities as "Smart Cities" and converging next generation technologies across infrastructure sectors. Ambition
Implementing agency- National Industrial Corridor Development and Implementation Trust (NICDIT)
Objective:
To provide plug and play infrastructural facilities for setting up large scale manufacturing units.
To develop futuristic industrial cities in India which can compete with best manufacturing and investment destinations in the world.
To develop India as a global manufacturing and investment destination using a high-capacity transportation network
To create employment opportunities and economic growth leading to overall socio-economic development.
Vision:
Creation of state-of-the-art world class infrastructure to promote local commerce, enhance investment, generate employment and attain sustainable development.
Industrial Corridor under NICP
11 Industrial Corridors with 32 Projects will developed in 4 phases as part part of the National Master Plan for providing multimodal connectivity to economic zones up to 2024-25.
Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC)
Amritsar-Kolkata Industrial Corridor (AKIC)
Chennai-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor (CBIC)
Vizag-Chennai Industrial Corridor (VCIC)
Bengaluru-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (BMIC)
Odisha Economic Corridor (OEC)
Hyderabad Nagpur Industrial Corridor (HNIC)
Hyderabad Warangal Industrial Corridor (HWIC)
Hyderabad Bengaluru Industrial Corridor (HBIC)
Extension of CBIC to Kochi via Coimbatore
Delhi Nagpur Industrial Corridor (DNIC)
Why in News?
Recently, the Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister chaired the first meeting of the Apex Monitoring Authority, which was formed to review the activities of the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme.

58.     Which of the following is not correct regarding the National Investigation Agency (NIA)?
A It is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without their special permission.
B The jurisdiction of NIA extends to any person who has committed a scheduled offence beyond India, affecting its interests.
C Under Section 6 of the NIA Act 2008, State governments can directly refer the cases pertaining to the scheduled offences for NIA investigation.
D For prosecuting an accused under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA), the NIA seeks the sanction of the Central Government.
Explanation
The National Investigation Agency (NIA)
The NIA is the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India mandated to investigate all the offences affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India.
It was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008.
It is headquartered in New Delhi.
The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states under written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Jurisdiction:
The law under which the agency operates extends to the whole of India and also applies to Indian citizens outside the country.
Persons in the service of the government wherever they are posted.
Persons on ships and aircraft registered in India wherever they may be.
Persons who commit a scheduled offence beyond India against the Indian citizen or affecting the interest of India.
NIA taking up a Probe:
State government: As provided under Section 6 of the Act, State governments can refer the cases pertaining to the scheduled offences registered at any police station to the Central government (Union Home Ministry) for NIA investigation.
After assessing the details made available, the Centre can then direct the agency to take over the case.
State governments are required to extend all assistance to the NIA.
Central government: In India: When the Central government is of the opinion that a scheduled offence has been committed which is required to be investigated under the Act, it may, suo motu, direct the agency to take up the probe.
Outside India: Where the Central government finds that a scheduled offence has been committed at any place outside India to which this Act extends, it can also direct the NIA to register the case and take up investigation.
Sanction: For prosecuting the accused under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA) and certain other scheduled offences, the Agency seeks the sanction of the Central Government.
The sanction is granted under the UAPA based on the report of the ‘Authority’ constituted under section 45 (2) of the UAPA.
Statement 3 is not correct, therefore, option C is the correct answer.

59.     Consider the following statements regarding National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
1. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society.
2. The President of India is the Patron-in-Chief of the Authority.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA while second senior most judge of Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman.
In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.

60.     Consider the following statements about National Statistical Office (NSO):
1. It is the statistical wing of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
2. It releases the quarter gross value added (GVA) and gross domestic product (GDP) numbers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
 (c) Both 1 and 2
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
It is an overarching body formed by merging the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), Computer Centre and Central Statistical Office (CSO).
NSO was first envisaged by Rangarajan Commission to implement and maintain statistical standards and coordinate statistical activities of Central and State agencies as laid down by the National Statistical Commission (NSC).
Ministry: It is the statistical wing of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
The National Statistical Office (NSO) releases the quarter gross value added (GVA) and gross domestic product (GDP) numbers.

61.     Consider the following statements about the National Statistical Office (NSO).
1.  The central government established NSO by merging the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) and National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO).
2.  NSO is responsible for compiling and releasing the Wholesale Price Index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: The National Statistical Office (NSO) is the Statistics Wing of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
•  In 2019, the central government merged the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) and National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) into the National Statistical Organisation.
•  NSO is mandated with the following responsibilities:-
o  acts as the nodal agency for planned development of the statistical system in the country
o  compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month and conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI);
o  organizes and conducts periodic all-India Economic Censuses
o  prepares national accounts as well as publishes annual estimates of national product, government and private consumption expenditure, capital formation, savings, etc. as also the state level gross capital formation of supra-regional sectors and prepares comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP) at current prices;
•  Statement 2 is incorrect: The Wholesale Price Index, or WPI is released by the Economic Advisor in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

62.     The NIPUN Bharat Mission has been launched with the main objective of
- A. Setup 1.5 lakh Health & Wellness centers across India by 2022
- B. Promote start-ups in the field of Biotechnology
- C. To achieve self reliance in palm oil
- D. Ensure universal acquisition of foundational literacy and numeracy by 2035
Answer: D
Sol:
•  The Ministry of Education has launched the National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy (NIPUN).
•  The objective of NIPUN Bharat Mission is to create an enabling environment to ensure universal acquisition of foundational literacy and numeracy, so that every child achieves the desired learning competencies in reading, writing and numeracy by the end of Grade 3, by 2026-27.
•  NIPUN Bharat envisages making the experience of learning at the foundational stage Holistic, Integrated, Inclusive, Enjoyable, and Engaging.
News in detail
•  NIPUN Bharat will be implemented by the Department of School Education and Literacy and a five-tier implementation mechanism will be set up at the National- State- District- Block- School level in all States and UTs, under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha.
•  Although the National Education Policy 2020 (had included a 2025 deadline to achieve the goal of foundational literacy and numeracy, the Centre has pushed back the target date to 2026-27, given that COVID-19 has already disrupted two academic years.
•  Statement 2 is correct: No additional funding is being allocated for the NIPUN Bharat Mission. Instead, money is being allocated from the Samagra Shiksha scheme.
•  NIPUN Bharat is set to emphasise goal setting and accountability for State governments, and provide guidelines for teacher training, assessment and the creation of printed resources.

63.     With respect to the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO), consider the following statements:
1. It is a military alliance established to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.
2. With an integrated military command structure, it has very few forces or assets that are exclusively its own.
3. NATO's protection does not extend to members' civil wars or internal coups.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)
It is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also called the Washington Treaty) of April, 1949, by the United States, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
There are currently 30 member states.
Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
Headquarters of Allied Command Operations: Mons, Belgium.
Functions:
NATO has an integrated military command structure but very few forces or assets are exclusively its own. Hence, statement 12 is correct.
Most forces remain under full national command and control until member countries agree to undertake NATO-related tasks.
All 30 allies have an equal say, the Alliance’s decisions must be unanimous and consensual, and its members must respect the basic values that underpin the Alliance, namely democracy, individual liberty, and the rule of law.
NATO's protection does not extend to members' civil wars or internal coups. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

64.     Nuclear science is being utilized in which of the following areas of agriculture in India?
1. Radiation processing of food items
2. Development of high yielding crop seeds
3. Fertilizer and pesticide related studies
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The nuclear agriculture programme of Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) covers development of high yielding crop seeds using nuclear techniques, fertilizer and pesticide related studies, radiation processing of food items and other areas.

65.     Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)’:
1. It was established in the wake of a nuclear test conducted by India in 1974.
2. This group is an organization of nuclear states that aims to proliferate the spread of nuclear weapons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) was created following the explosion in 1974 of a nuclear device by a non-nuclear-weapon State (India). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India is not a member of the NSG.
India is keen to become a member of NSG as it seeks to significantly expand its nuclear power generation and also wants to expand its export market.
NSG is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of Guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

66.     The term ‘Nuclear Triad’ denotes
A.  Countries having more than two nuclear reactors with Uranium enrichment facilities.
B.  Countries possessing the capability to launch intercontinental ballistic missiles.
C.  Three tier structure of the Nuclear Command Authority which is headed by the Prime Minister.
D.  Three-sided military-force structure consisting of land-launched nuclear missiles, nuclear-missile-armed submarines, and strategic aircraft with nuclear bombs and missiles.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
Sol:
•  In the last few years, India has operationalized its submarine-based nuclear launch capability, completing the nuclear triad.
•  Nuclear triad is a three-sided military-force structure consisting of land-launched nuclear missiles, nuclear-missile-armed submarines, and strategic aircraft with nuclear bombs and missiles.
•  This is especially important given India’s No-First-Use policy i.e. India will use the weapon only in retaliation to a nuclear attack on Indian territory or against Indian forces anywhere.

67.     With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with cluster approach.
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have larger stake in this scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro irrigation equipment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.
Key Points
• Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millet Promotion (INSIMP) was launched by the central government in 2011-12 to promote millets as “Nutri-cereals”.
• It aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies in an integrated manner with visible impact to catalyze increased production of millets in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Technology demonstration kits of critical inputs of nutrients and plant protection measures comprising of micro-nutrients (not micro-irrigation equipment), fungicides and bio-fertilizers, DAP, urea, potash, and pesticides including weedicides at a total cost of Rs. 3,000/- per ha for sorghum, pearl millet and finger millet and Rs. 2,000/- per ha for small millets would be supplied to all the farmers in the units. It does not include micro-irrigation equipment. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
○ These kits would be supplied free of cost to the beneficiary farmers subject to the maximum area of 2 hectares.
• Certain districts with large crop areas under millets but with productivity less than that of the National Average Yield could be taken up for the active promotion of production technologies through block demonstrations.
○ In case of small millets, which have low productivity in general and are taken by resource-poor tribal farmers in remote interior areas, production programmes would be organized in all the identified districts irrespective of their productivity levels. Hence statement 2 is correct.

68.     Consider the following statements regarding Off-budget borrowing.
1. Off-budget borrowing helps keep the country’s fiscal deficit within acceptable limits.
2. Off-budget borrowings is not part of the calculation of the fiscal indicators and does not have any fiscal implications.
3. Public sector banks are not authorised to fund off-budget expenses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 3 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Off-budget borrowings are loans that are taken not by the Centre directly, but by another public institution which borrows on the directions of the central government. Such borrowings are used to fulfil the government’s expenditure needs. But since the liability of the loan is not formally on the Centre, the loan is not included in the national fiscal deficit. This helps keep the country’s fiscal deficit within acceptable limits. Comptroller and Auditor General report of 2019 points out, this route of financing puts major sources of funds outside the control of Parliament. “Such off-budget financing is not part of the calculation of the fiscal indicators despite fiscal implications,” said the report.
The government can ask an implementing agency to raise the required funds from the market through loans or by issuing bonds. In the Budget presentation for 2020-21, the government paid only half the amount budgeted for the food subsidy bill to the Food Corporation of India. The shortfall was met through a loan from the National Small Savings Fund. Public sector banks are also used to fund off-budget expenses. For example, loans from PSU banks were used to make up for the shortfall in the release of fertiliser subsidy.

69.     Consider the following statements:
1. The extracts from opium poppy such as morphine are potent painkillers and are prescribed to cancer patients.
2. It is cultivated in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : a
Opium production
Due to the potential for illicit trade and risk of addiction, the cultivation of opium poppy is strictly regulated in the country, with the crops being allowed to be sown only in tracts of land notified by the central government.
It is cultivated in 22 districts in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
The government announces the licensing policy for opium cultivation every year, providing details on minimum qualifying yield, the maximum area that can be cultivated by a single cultivator, and the maximum benefit that is allowed to cultivators for damage to the crop due to natural causes.
Opium is a natural substance obtained from poppy seeds and its derivatives are mainly used for pain management.
The extracts from opium poppy such as morphine are potent painkillers and are mainly prescribed to cancer patients.
The opium product codeine is helpful in cough suppression.

70.     Consider the following statement with reference to organic theatre:
1. It is an infotainment medium that provides information about agrarian activities.
2. It is a form of political theatre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution:
It is a theatre form that blends art and agriculture.
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About Organic Theatre
It is a theatre form that blends art and agriculture, developed in Kerala, South India.
This theatre is an infotainment medium that provides information about agrarian activities and entertainment by employing folk and regional artefacts in an interactive theatre space.
Organic theatre responds to global issues concerning climate change and environmental crises.
As a political form of interactive art, it attempts to make an impact on the audience.
When Was It Launched?
Organic Theatre was a concept launched by WIWA (Wide Inspiration Wide Aspiration) as a pilot project for NABARD. WIWA is a cultural development organisation that aims at promoting a holistic lifestyle coupling environment-friendly life with local art forms.
Why is it in the news?
Pokkali farms in Koonammavu are about to witness a play taking shape in the next three months in the form of Organic Theatre.

71.     Panchamrit is related to which of the following sector?
A) Education
B) Health
C) Energy
D) National Security
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Panchamrit refers to 5 targets that India aims to attain in the coming years to ensure India’s bid for a more GHG emissions-neutral world. It requires India to tweak its energy generation parameters towards cleaner sources of energy.

72.     With reference to Sessions of Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. Speaker of Lok Sabha summons the session of Parliament.
2. Joint Session of Parliament is presided over by the Speaker, and in his/her absence, by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
A session of the Indian Parliament is the period during which a House meets almost every day uninterruptedly to manage the business. There are typically three sessions in a year. A session contains many meetings.
The process of calling all members of Parliament to meet is called Summoning of Parliament. It is the President who summons Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The Constitution of India provides for the joint sitting of the Parliament’s two Houses, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, in order to break any deadlock between the two.
The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the country’s President.
Such a session is presided over by the Speaker, and in his/her absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. In the absence of both, it is presided over by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

73.     With reference to the Parliamentary System in India, consider the following statements:
1. Cut motion is used to oppose any demand in the financial bill brought by the government.
2. Parliament can reject the budget proposal brought by the Cabinet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
A cut motion is a special power vested in members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand being discussed for specific allocation by the government in the Finance Bill as part of the Demand for Grant. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It is the Executive that holds collective responsibility toward Lok Sabha. When it comes to control, it is exercised by the legislature through several motions like non-confidence, adjournment.
By a vote of no-confidence, the Parliament can remove the Cabinet (executive) out of power. It can reject a budget proposal, or any other bill brought by the Cabinet. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

74.     Consider the following statements about Participatory Notes (P-Notes).
1.  They are part of capital market instruments.
2.  It makes possible for overseas investors to invest in India without registering themselves with SEBI directly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Statement 2 is correct: P-Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges without being registered. The instrument gained popularity as FIIs, to avoid the formalities of registering and to remain anonymous, started betting on stocks through this route.
•  Statement 1 is correct: P-Notes are part of capital market instruments.

75.     Due to some reasons, if photosynthesis in plants suddenly stopped happening, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
1. most plants would die within short order
2. green algal blooms would cover the entire face of the planet
3. global emissions of CO2 would be greatly reduced
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
 (a) 1 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
 (c) 1 and 2 only
 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
If photosynthesis came to an abrupt end, most plants would die within short order. Although they could hold out for a few days — or in some cases, a few weeks — how long they lived would largely be a factor of how much sugar they had stored within their cells.
The only organisms able to exist under such conditions would be the chemosynthetic bacteria, which can utilize the chemical energy of certain inorganic compounds and thus are not dependent on the conversion of light energy.
S2 and S3 are absurd statements.

76.     Podu is a form of shifting cultivation practiced mainly in
 a) Odisha
 b) Jharkhand
 c) Telangana
 d) West Bengal
Solution: c)
The Telangana government had decided in October 2021 to move landless, non-tribal farmers engaged in shifting cultivation inside forests to peripheral areas in an effort to combat deforestation.  Several political leaders have expressed concern over shifting agriculture — in which a portion of land is cleared to raise crops in a particular season before the cultivators move to another location the next season, and to a third area after that, thus progressively degrading large areas of the forest.

77.     Consider the following statements:
1. The Andromeda galaxy is composed of dust clouds which are mostly made up of large molecules called polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH).
2. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons are a big component in the smoke from cigarettes and only reflect specific wavelengths of light.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : b
Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH)
James Webb sent a new awfully impressive photo of a spiral galaxy, NGC 628.
NGC 628 gets its purple appearance in the image created by Brammer due to the composition of its dust clouds, which are mostly made up of large molecules called polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH).
Incidentally, PAH is a big component in the smoke from cigarettes.
These molecules only reflect specific wavelengths of light. When Brammer mapped the wavelength data to red, green, and blue, there was very little green.
The combination of a large amount of red and blue light gave the galaxy a purple color.

78.     Consider the following statements.
1. At present, the cultivation and processing of poppy and opium in India is controlled by the provisions of The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act and Rules.
2. Due to the potential for illicit trade and risk of addiction, In India the cultivation and processing of opium is done only by the Public Sector.
3. Opium is a natural substance obtained from poppy seeds that are potent painkillers and are mainly prescribed to cancer patients.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
India has opened up the highly regulated sector of producing and processing opium to private players.
India has been growing poppy at least since the 15th century, as per historical records. The British East India Company assumed monopoly on the cultivation of poppy when the Mughal Empire was on the decline, and the entire trade was brought under government control by 1873.
After India gained independence, the cultivation and trade of opium passed on to the Indian government, with the activity being controlled by The Opium Act, 1857, The Opium Act, 1878, and The Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930. At present, the cultivation and processing of poppy and opium is controlled by the provisions of The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act and Rules.
Due to the potential for illicit trade and risk of addiction, the cultivation of opium poppy is strictly regulated in the country, with the crops being allowed to be sown only in tracts of land notified by the central government in 22 districts in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
Opium is a natural substance obtained from poppy seeds and its derivatives are mainly used for pain management. “The extracts from opium poppy such as morphine are potent painkillers and are mainly prescribed to cancer patients”. The opium product codeine is helpful in cough suppression.

79.     Villages for the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana are selected based on which of the following criteria?
(a) Villages with a population of more than 500 and 50 percent Scheduled Caste population
(b) Villages with a population of more than 1000 and 50 percent Scheduled Caste population
(c) Villages with a population of more than 500 and 60 percent Scheduled Caste population
(d) Villages with a population of more than 5000 and 50 percent Scheduled Caste population
Solution :
Answer: A
Solution:
Villages with a population of more than 500 and 50 percent Scheduled Caste population are selected for the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana.
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About the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana
The 'Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana' is based on the 2011 census by the Government of India.
Villages with more than 50 percent Scheduled Caste population are selected, whose population is 500 or more.
The amount is released by the Government of India for the inter-flooring of infrastructure works in the Gram Vikas Yojana.
Through the convergence of other development works, there is a provision to declare the village as a model village by the concerned department for the overall development of the village.
About the Pradhan Mantri Aadi Adarsh Gram Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Aadi Adarsh Gram Yojana is being launched for faster development of tribal villages.
The scheme is on converging different programs of 41 ministries in the tribal villages to ensure their all-around development.
The aim of the program is to turn the focus on such remote and backward villages of the country which are lagging behind due to lack of attention.
Efforts are also being made to ensure the geo-tagging of and market linkages for the tribal products through TRIFED.
Why is it in the news?
Recently, the Union Minister of Tribal Affairs announced that the government has started a scheme Pradhan Mantri Aadi Adarsh Gram Yojana.

80.     Consider the following statements.
1.  India is the second largest fish producing country in the world.
2.  The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana is a flagship scheme for integrated, sustainable, inclusive development of marine and inland fisheries sector in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: India is the second largest fish producing country in the world and accounts for 7.58 per cent of the global production. The fish production in India has reached an all-time high of 14.16 million metric tons during 2019-20.
•  The fisheries sector contributes 1.24 per cent to the GVA and 7.28 per cent to the agricultural GVA.
•  The livelihood opportunities provided by this sector have been instrumental in sustaining incomes of over 28 million people in India, especially the marginalized and vulnerable communities, and has promoted meaningful socio-economic development.
•  Realizing the potential, scope and importance of the fisheries sector, the central government launched the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) in 2020 to bring about the Blue Revolution through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector in India.
•  Statement 2 is correct: It is a flagship scheme for integrated, sustainable, inclusive development of marine and inland fisheries sector in the country with an estimated investment of Rs. 20,000 crores for its implementation during a period of 5 years from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25 in all States/Union Territories.
•  It aims at enhancing fish production by an additional 70 lakh tonne by 2024-25, increasing fisheries export earnings to Rs.1,00,000 crore by 2024-25, doubling of incomes of fishers and fish farmers, reducing post-harvest losses from 20-25% to about 10%.
•  It is designed to address critical gaps in fish production and productivity, quality, technology, post-harvest infrastructure and management, modernization and strengthening of value chain, traceability and establishing a robust fisheries management framework and fishers’ welfare.
•  It primarily focuses on adopting ‘Cluster or Area based approaches’ and creation of Fisheries clusters through backward and forward linkages.

81.     Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana:
1. LPG connection under the scheme shall be in the name of the women belonging to the BPL family.
2. It is a scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.
3. An adult woman under Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) is not eligible under the scheme.
4. All PMUY beneficiaries will be provided with first LPG refill and Stove both free of cost along with their deposit free connection by the Oil Marketing Companies.
Which of the above statement/s is are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 4 only
c) 2,3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
LPG connection under Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana shall be in the name of the women belonging to the BPL family.
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is a scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.
An adult woman under Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) is eligible under the scheme.
All PMUY beneficiaries will be provided with first LPG refill and Stove both free of cost along with their deposit free connection by the Oil Marketing Companies.

82.     Consider the following statements with reference to Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray:
1. He is widely regarded as the "Father of Indian Biochemistry".
2. He founded Bengal Chemicals & Pharmaceuticals.
3. He was appointed as the President of the Indian Congress in 1920.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
Solution :
Answer: B
Solution
He is known as the "Father of Indian Chemistry".
Bires Chandra Guha is regarded as the Father of modern biochemistry in India.
He was appointed as the General President of the Indian Science Congress in 1920.
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About Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray
He is known as the "Father of Indian Chemistry".
He founded Bengal Chemicals & Pharmaceuticals, India’s first pharmaceutical company, in 1901.
Bengal Chemicals played an essential role in the industrialisation of the Indian chemical industry.
In 1896, he discovered mercurous nitrite, a stable compound, and proved that pure ammonium nitrite is indeed stable.
He was honoured with the imperial title of CIE (Companion of the Indian Empire) by the British government and later knighted in 1919.
He was appointed as the General President of the Indian Science Congress in 1920.
Ray has also helped those involved in violent methods to make bombs and supplied them with acid for the cause of independence.
The Royal Society of Chemistry dedicated its Chemical Landmark plaque to Ray, the first non-European to be conferred the honour, in 2011 on his 150th birth anniversary.
Why is it in the news?
Recently, the Ministry of Culture and Vijnana Bharti (VIBHA) organised a two days International Conference on Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray’s contributions as a Chemist and Freedom Fighter.

83.     Consider the following statements.
1. Part VI of the Constitution of India lists out the qualification, election and impeachment of the President of India.
2. The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is also the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
3. All the members of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha and all Members of the Legislative Assemblies of States vote for electing the President of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2 only
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 3
Solution: b)
Part V of the Constitution (The Union) under Chapter I (The Executive) lists out the qualification, election and impeachment of the President of India.
The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India.
The President is the formal head of the executive, legislature and judiciary of India and is also the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
Under Article 57, a person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall, subject to the other provisions of this Constitution be eligible for re-election to that office.
The new president is chosen by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of parliament (M.P.s), the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha) of all States and the elected members of the legislative assemblies (MLAs) of union territories with legislatures, i.e., National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir, and Puducherry.

84.     With regard to the Presidential Election in India, consider the following statements:
1. The electoral college for election is made up of all the elected and nominated members of the Parliament only.
2. Qualifications for election as President are enshrined in Article 55 of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Presidential Elections in India are conducted and overseen by the Election Commission (EC) of India.
The President of India is indirectly elected with Instant-runoff voting by means of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of the Parliament of India and the Legislative assemblies of the States of India and the Union territories (having an elected assembly). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Qualifications for Election as President are enshrined in Article 58 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

85.     Consider the following statements about the Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies:
1) PACS are the ground-level cooperative credit institutions that provide long-term, agricultural loans to the farmers for the various agricultural and farming activities.
2) The first Primary Agricultural Credit Society (PACS) was formed in the year 1904.
Which of the above statement(s) is/ are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
PACS are the ground-level cooperative credit institutions that provide short-term, and medium-term agricultural loans to the farmers for the various agricultural and farming activities.
The first Primary Agricultural Credit Society (PACS) was formed in the year 1904.

86.     Consider the following statements regarding Randomized controlled trial (RCT).
1. Randomized controlled trials (RCT) are prospective studies that measure the effectiveness of a new intervention or treatment.
2. Examples of RCTs are clinical trials that compare the effects of drugs and surgical techniques.
3. Randomized controlled trials are used to understand whether a free grains distribution scheme helped improve the nutrition levels among people living in a district.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Randomized controlled trials (RCT) are prospective studies that measure the effectiveness of a new intervention or treatment. It provides a rigorous tool to examine cause-effect relationships between an intervention and outcome.
Examples of RCTs are clinical trials that compare the effects of drugs, surgical techniques, medical devices, diagnostic procedures or other medical treatments.
RCTs involve dividing a population into smaller groups, in order to comparatively see the outcomes of an external stimulus. For example, if the aim of a study is to understand whether a free grains distribution scheme helped improve the nutrition levels among people living in a district, researchers will first create two groups within the population, and then put people into those groups randomly.
RCTs also cannot be used to study something after it has happened, they need to be planned beforehand. And, while RCTs show results for a particular population in an area, it may not be proof that the same results will be achieved elsewhere, especially if the sample size is not big or the trial deals with a very specific kind of population sub-group.

87.     With reference to the Rashtriya Gokul Mission, consider the following statements.
1.  It aims at development and conservation of indigenous cattle breeds in the country.
2.  Several studies suggest that the productivity of indigenous breeds will be impacted to a much lesser extent than exotic animals due to climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) was launched in 2014 for development and conservation of indigenous breeds through selective breeding in the breeding tract and genetic upgradation of nondescript bovine population.
Why conservation of Indigenous breeds is the need of the hour?
•  India has 299.6 million bovine population out of which 190.9 million are cattle and 108.7 million are buffaloes. Of this, 80% of cattle are indigenous and Non- descript breeds.
•  The bovine genetic resource of India is represented by 41 registered indigenous breeds of cattle and 13 registered buffalo breeds. Indigenous bovine are robust and resilient and are particularly suited to the climate and environment of their respective breeding tracts. The milk of indigenous animals is high in fat and solids-not-fat (SNF) content.
•  Statement 2 is correct: There are also studies to suggest that the productivity of indigenous breeds will be impacted to a much lesser extent than exotic animals due to climate change. However, the number of indigenous animals is declining and some breeds like Punganur have become threatened. For this purpose RGM has been initiated to promote conservation and development of indigenous breeds.
Objectives of RGM :
•  Development and conservation of indigenous breeds;
•  Breed improvement programme for indigenous breeds so as to improve the genetic makeup and increase the stock;
•  Enhancing milk production and productivity of bovine population by increasing disease free high genetic merit female population and check on spread of diseases ;
•  Upgrading nondescript cattle using elite indigenous breeds like Gir, Sahiwal, Rathi, Deoni, Tharparkar, Red Sindhi ;
•  Distribution of disease free high genetic merit bulls for natural service;
•  To bring all breedable females under organised breeding through AI or natural service using germ plasm of high genetic merits;
•  To arrange quality Artificial Insemination (AI) services at farmers’ doorstep;
•  To create e-market portal for bovine germplasm for connecting breeders and farmers;
•  To increase trade of livestock and livestock products by meeting out sanitary and phyto sanitary (SPS) issues;
•  To select breeding bulls of high genetic merit at a young age through application of genomics.

88.     Consider the following statements about the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) UDAN scheme.
1.  It aims at providing connectivity to un-served and under-served airports of the country through revival of existing air-strips and airports.
2.  The scheme offers viability gap funding to companies in addition to waiver of certain statutory charges and taxes on jet fuel.
3.  The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security is designated as the Implementing Agency under this Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Sol:
•  Statement 1 is correct: In 2017, the Ministry of Civil Aviation launched the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) “UDAN” (Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik) which aims at providing connectivity to un-served and under-served airports of the country through revival of existing air-strips and airports to make flying affordable to the common man who want to travel to and fro the Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities of the country.
•  UDAN has a unique market-based model. Airline routes are allocated to operators selected through a competitive bidding mechanism.
•  Statement 2 is correct: UDAN scheme offers viability gap funding to companies in addition to waiver of certain statutory charges and taxes on jet fuel in order to offer affordable connectivity.
•  Airlines have to set aside 50% of the total aircraft capacity for cheaper fares to be offered at the rate of Rs 2,500 per hour of flight, in return for which airlines are given a subsidy by the Centre and the State government concerned.
•  The airport that will be renovated under this scheme will be chosen after referring to the respective State government. Together with the State government the Central government will revive the dysfunctional and unserved airports of the country.
•  Statement 3 is incorrect: The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is designated as the Implementing Agency under this Scheme.
•  The scheme is now in its fourth phase with focus on bringing connectivity to priority areas like North East India, Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, hilly states in other parts of the country, and islands.

89.     With respect to the Registrar General of India, consider the following statements:
1. The RGI comes under the Ministry of Finance.
2. The position of Registrar is usually held by a civil servant holding the rank of Joint Secretary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Registrar General of India (RGI):
RGI was founded in 1961 by the Government of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
It arranges, conducts and analyses the results of the demographic surveys of India including the Census of India and Linguistic Survey of India.
The position of Registrar is usually held by a civil servant holding the rank of Joint Secretary. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Civil Registration System (CRS) in India is the unified process of continuous, permanent, compulsory and universal recording of vital events (births, deaths, stillbirths) and characteristics thereof. The data generated through a complete and up-to-date CRS is essential for socio-economic planning.

90.     As per RBI, which of the following has become the top remittance source after UAE (in 2020-21) for India?
 (a) Australia
 (b) Canada
 (c) The European Union
 (d) The United States of America
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
As per RBI, the US has become the top remittance source after UAE (in 2020-21) for India.
Reasons: Economic recovery in the US is one of the important drivers of India’s remittances growthas it accounts for 23% of total remittances received in India.
India received about $87bnin remittances in FY21 (the world’s highest).
Decline in remittances from GCC (Gulf):The share of remittances from the GCC region in India’s inward remittances is estimated to have declined from more than 50 per cent in 2016-17 (last surveyed period) to about 30 per cent in 2020- 21.
Remittances have exceeded foreign direct inflowsin several countries, including India.

91.     Consider the following statements regarding Reserve assets.
1. A reserve asset must be readily available, controlled by policymakers, and easily transferable.
2. Currencies like U.S. dollar and Gold bullion are classified as Reserve assets.
3. In India, the Reserve assets have always been less than 50 percent of India’s international financial assets.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 2 only
 b) 2, 3
 c) 1, 2
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Reserve assets are currencies or other assets, such as gold, that can be readily transferable and are used to balance international transactions and payments.
A reserve asset must be readily available, physical, controlled by policymakers, and easily transferable.
The U.S. dollar is a reserve currency, meaning it is widely held as a reserve asset around the world.
Reserve assets accounted for 68.5% of India’s international financial assets in September 2021.

92.     Which of the following are the consequences of reverse currency wars?
1. Exports are more competitive.
2. Imports are costlier.
3. Raising interest rates.
Appreciation of the currency against the currency of the other countries.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
A 1 and 2 only
B 1, 3 and 4 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Reverse Currency Wars
A reverse currency war is a situation in which countries work to make their currency stronger (appreciation of the currency).
Rather than boosting growth, the goal of any such move is to help tame inflation, since a stronger currency means that imports are relatively cheaper.
A flip side of the US Federal Reserve action of aggressively raising interest rates is that more and more investors are rushing to invest money in the US.
This, in turn, has made the dollar become stronger than all the other currencies as the dollar is more in demand than yen, euro, yuan etc.
A relative weakness of the local currency of other countries against the dollar makes their exports more competitive.
For instance, a Chinese or an Indian exporter gets a massive boost.
In the past, the US has accused other countries of manipulating their currency (and keeping its weaker against the dollar) just to enjoy a trade surplus against the US. This used to be called the currency war.
Hence, option B is correct.

93.     Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
 (a) China
 (b) India
 (c) Myanmar
 (d) Vietnam
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Data about Rice:
It is India’s largest agricultural crop (accounting for over 40% of the total foodgrain output)
India is the world’s biggest exporter (around 40% of the world’s export)
India is 2nd largest rice producer in the world after China.

94.     Consider the following statements regarding Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
1. The Act fulfils the obligations to the United National Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD), to which India is a signatory.
2. The Act provides not more than four per cent reservation in government jobs for persons with benchmark disabilities.
3. Both the Central Government and State Governments have the power to add more types of disabilities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1 only
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 replaces the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995. It fulfils the obligations to the United National Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD), to which India is a signatory.
Disability has been defined based on an evolving and dynamic concept.
The types of disabilities have been increased from existing 7 to 21 and the Central Government will have the power to add more types of disabilities.
Additional benefits such as reservation in higher education (not less than 5%), government jobs (not less than 4 %), reservation in allocation of land, poverty alleviation schemes (5% allotment) etc. have been provided for persons with benchmark disabilities and those with high support needs.

95.     S-400 air defence missile system, recently seen in news is developed by
 (a) United States
 (b) China
 (c) Israel
 (d) Russia
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
The S-400 Triumf, (NATO calls it SA-21 Growler), is a mobile, surface-to-air missile system (SAM) designed by Russia. It is the most dangerous operationally deployed modern long-range SAM (MLR SAM) in the world, considered much ahead of the US-developed Terminal High Altitude Area Defense system (THAAD).

96.     Consider the following statements:
1. The S-400 is a mobile long-range surface to surface missile system.
2. It can take down multiple targets like fighter jets, bombers, cruise and ballistic missiles or drones up to a range of 400 km.
3. It has beyond visual range capabilities with five different kinds of missiles
4. It can engage multiple targets, which includes tracking of 160 objects in a 600 km range and hit 72 targets up to 400 km.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (D)
Explanation: S-400 missile system
The S-400 is a mobile long range surface to air missile system which is considered one of the most lethal in the world.
It can take down multiple targets like fighter jets, bombers, cruise and ballistic missiles or drones up to a range of 400 km.
It has beyond visual range capabilities with four different kinds of missiles.
It can engage multiple targets, which includes tracking of 160 objects in a 600 km range and hit 72 targets up to 400 km.
The four different missiles have varied capabilities - short range 40 km, medium range 120 km, long range 180 km and very long range 400 km.

97.     Consider the following statements about the Samagra Shiksha program.
1.  The programme’s objective is restricted to achieve the Universalisation of Elementary Education.
2.  The scheme supports states for strengthening school infrastructure
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  The Government of India has launched Samagra Shiksha -- an integrated scheme for school education with effect from 2018-19.
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: It envisages the ‘school’ as a continuum from pre-school, primary, upper primary, secondary to senior secondary levels and subsumes the three erstwhile centrally sponsored schemes –Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education (TE).
•  Bridging gender and social category gaps at all levels of school education is one of the major objectives of the scheme. The scheme reaches out to girls and children belonging to SCs, STs, minority communities and transgender. The scheme also gives attention to urban deprived children, children affected by periodic migration and children living in remote and scattered habitations.
•  Statement 2 is correct: Acknowledging that issues such as lack of toilets in schools and unavailability of schools within a short distance play a big role in school dropouts, especially among girls, the scheme supports states for strengthening of school infrastructure including in rural areas.
•  Under Samagra Shiksha, various interventions have been targeted to promote education, which include opening of schools in the neighbourhood, provision of free text-books up to Class VIII, uniforms to all girls and SC, ST, BPL boys up to class VIII, provision of gender segregated toilets in all schools, teachers’ sensitisation programmes to promote girls’ participation, construction of residential quarters for teachers in remote/hilly areas/in areas with difficult terrain.
•  In addition, there is a provision for twinning of schools under which well-functioning private or government schools in urban or semi-urban areas are linked with schools located in rural areas for interaction and exchange of experience.
•  The Department of School Education and Literacy is also implementing the component of vocational skills training under the umbrella of Samagra Shiksha.
•  Further, for promoting the merit/capacity of students, including those in rural areas, meritorious students belonging to the economically weaker sections can avail the benefit of scholarship under National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Scheme.

98.     SAMARTH was launched by the
 (a) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
 (b) Ministry of Coal
 (c) Ministry of Power
 (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
SAMARTHwas launched by the Ministry of power (2021) and mandates all thermal power plants in India use 5-10% of biomass alongside coal to produce power. Consequently, it promotes research on modern boilers which can handle a greater amount of silica and alkalis in biomass pellets.
*Don’t get confused with the SAMARTH Scheme of the Ministry of textile(for capacity building in the textile sector)

99.     With reference to the Sannati site, consider the following statements:
1. The site contains Maha Stupa, which was referred to as Adholoka Maha Chaitya (the Great Stupa of the netherworlds) in the inscriptions.
2. The stone portrait is considered to be the only surviving image of the Mauryan Emperor which had the inscription ‘Raya Asoko’ in Brahmi on it. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.  1 only
b.  2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d.  Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : c
Sannati site
The ancient Buddhist site on the bank of Bhima river near Kanaganahalli (forming part of Sannati site) in Kalaburagi district.
An ‘abandoned well’ in the eyes of local villagers turned out to be the magnificent Maha Stupa, which was referred to as Adholoka Maha Chaitya (the Great Stupa of the netherworlds) in the inscriptions, and, the stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka, surrounded by his queens and female attendants.
While the Stupa is believed to be one of the largest of its time, the stone portrait is considered to be the only surviving image of the Mauryan Emperor which had the inscription ‘Raya Asoko’ in Brahmi on it.
The Maha Stupa is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases  Maurya, Early Satavahana, and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.

100.  With reference to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, consider the following statements.
1.  Only forest dwellers belonging to the Scheduled Tribe community are eligible for recognition of rights under the Act.
2.  The Act also provides forest management rights for communities to protect forests and wildlife.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Sol:
•  The Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 is a people-centric law for forests, which recognises the rights of forest- dwelling communities to use and manage forest resources.
•  With more than 150 million forest dwellers, the scope of FRA is immense to protect their livelihoods, and engage them in sustainable forest management.
Rights under FRA
•  Title rights – Ownership to land that is being farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to a maximum of 4 hectares; ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the concerned family, meaning that no new lands are granted.
•  Use rights – to minor forest produce (also including ownership), to grazing areas, to pastoralist routes, etc.
•  Relief and development rights – to rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced displacement; and basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection.
•  Forest management rights – to protect forests and wildlife; Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Eligibility
•  To qualify as a Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribe (FDST) and be eligible for recognition of rights under FRA, three conditions must be satisfied by the applicant/s, who could be “members or community”:
o  Must be a Scheduled Tribe in the area where the right is claimed; and
o  Primarily resided in forest or forests land prior to 13-12-2005; and
o  Depend on the forest or forests land for bonafide livelihood needs.
•  Statement 1 is incorrect: In addition to them, Other Traditional Forest Dweller (OTFD) are also eligible for recognition of rights under FRA. Two conditions need to be fulfilled:
o  Primarily resided in forest or forests land for three generations (75 years) prior to 13-12-2005, and
o  Depend on the forest or forests land for bonafide livelihood needs.
•  The FRA provides that a forest right conferred under the Act shall be heritable but not alienable or transferable, and shall be registered jointly in the name of both the spouses in case of married persons and in the name of the single head in the case of a household headed by a single person.
 Process of recognition of rights
•  The Act provides that the gram sabha, or village assembly, will initially pass a resolution recommending whose rights to which resources should be recognised.
•  This resolution is then screened and approved at the level of the sub-division (or taluka) and subsequently at the district level.
•  The screening committees consist of three government officials (Forest, Revenue and Tribal Welfare departments) and three elected members of the local body at that level. These committees also hear appeals.

Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)