Daily Current Affairs Questions July 2022 Part 18

 

Daily Current Affairs Questions

July 2022 Part 18

Why in News

1.       Alluri Sitarama Raju’

2.       Anti-defection law

3.       Anti-defection law

4.       Anti-dumping duty

5.       Ashadhi Bij

6.       Aurangabad

7.       Autonomous Flying Wing Technology Demonstrator’

8.       Banks Board Bureau (BBB)

9.       Berne convention

10.    CAPSTONE mission

11.    Coal

12.    coal based power generation

13.    Cooperative Banks

14.    Energy in India

15.    European Bank for Reconstruction & Development (EBRD)

16.    External debt of India’

17.    Financial Services Institution Bureau

18.    Financial Stability Report (FSR)

19.    Floor Test

20.    Foreign Contribution Regulation Act

21.    Forest (conservation) Rules 2022

22.    Global Competitiveness Report

23.    GOAL (Going Online As Leaders)

24.    green hydrogen

25.    Hepatitis B virus

26.    India’s largest Floating solar power plant

27.    International Monetary Fund

28.    iron ore

29.    Jamdani

30.    Konark Sun Temple’

31.    Landslides

32.    Leprosy

33.    Leprosy

34.    Lisbon Declaration’

35.    miR444

36.    National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)

37.    National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)

38.    National Investigation Agency (NIA)

39.    National Statistics Day

40.    RAMP scheme

41.    Right against double jeopardy

42.    Right to Internet

43.    Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC),

44.    Satellite Launch Vehicle

45.    Satellite Launch Vehicle

46.    satellite launch vehicle

47.    Snake Island

48.    Theory of Relativity

49.    Vice-President

50.    Vice-President

 

1.       Consider the following statements about ‘Alluri Sitarama Raju’
1. Rising discontent towards the British led to the Rampa Rebellion in 1945
2. He had adopted aspects from the Non-cooperation movement, such as promoting temperance to attract people’s support
3. Lord Reading was the viceroy during the Rampa Rebellion.
Select the correct statement/s:
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) All the above
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
Born in present-day Andhra Pradesh, he became involved in opposing the British in response to the 1882 Madras Forest Act, which effectively restricted the free movement of Adivasis (tribal communities) in their forest habitats and prevented them from practicing a traditional form of agriculture known as podu.
He led Rampa rebellion in 1924.
Statement 2  Correct
Alluri had adopted aspects from the Non-cooperation movement, such as promoting temperance, and the boycott of colonial courts in favour of local justice, administered by panchayat courts, to attract people’s support
Statement 3 Correct
Lord Reading(1921 to 1926) was the viceroy during Rampa Rebellion.
Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi to launch yearlong celebrations to remember contributions of Alluri Sitarama Raju.

2.       Consider the following statements regarding Anti-defection law.
1. The Anti-defection law was included in the Original Constitution of India.
2. The members disqualified under the law can stand for elections from any political party for a seat in the same House.
3. The law does not provide a timeframe within which the presiding officer of the House has to decide a defection case.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
 b) 2 only
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
Anti Defection Law:
The anti-defection law punishes individual Members of Parliament (MPs)/MLAs for leaving one party for another.
Parliament added it to the Constitution as theTenth Schedule in 1985.
Its purpose was to bring stability to governments by discouraging legislators from changing parties.
The Tenth Schedule –popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act – was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
As per the 1985 Act, a ‘defection’ by one-third of the elected members of a political party was considered a ‘merger’.
But the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003,changed this and now at least two-thirds of the members of a party must be in favour of a “merger” for it to have validity in the eyes of the law.
The members disqualified under the law can stand for elections from any political party for a seat in the same House.
The decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection are referred to the Chairman or the Speaker of such House, which is subject to ‘Judicial review’.
However, the law does not provide a timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

3.       The anti-defection law disqualifies individual Members of Parliament (MPs)/MLAs on which of the following grounds?
1. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
2. If an elected member votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by their political party.
3. If any nominated member joins any political party before the expiry of six months.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Grounds of Disqualification:
If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorized to do so, without obtaining prior permission.
As a pre-condition for his disqualification, his abstention from voting should not be condoned by his party or the authorized person within 15 daysof such incident.
If any independently elected memberjoins any political party.
If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.

4.       Consider the following statements regarding Anti-dumping duty.
1. Anti-dumping measures are taken to ensure fair trade for domestic industries.
2. Anti-dumping duty is meant for level playing field between domestic producers of a product and foreign producers of the same product who can afford to sell it at a lower price because of the subsidy they receive from their government.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Anti-dumping duty is different from countervailing duty. The countervailing duty is imposed in order to counter the negative impact of import subsidies to protect domestic producers.
Countervailing Duties (CVDs) are tariffs levied on imported goods to offset subsidies made to producers of these goods in the exporting country.
CVDs are meant to level the playing field between domestic producers of a product and foreign producers of the same product who can afford to sell it at a lower price because of the subsidy they receive from their government.
Anti-dumping duty is a customs duty on imports providing a protection against the dumping of goods at prices substantially lower than the normal value whereas Countervailing duty is a customs duty on goods that have received government subsidies in the originating or exporting country.
Anti-dumping measures are taken to ensure fair trade and provide a level playing field to the domestic industry.

5.       With reference to Ashadhi Bij, consider the following statements:
1. Kutchi community of Gujarat celebrates their new year on this day.
2. The festival is associated with the beginning of rains in the Kutch region of Gujarat.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Kutchi community of Gujarat celebrates their new year on this day.
Ashadhi Bij falls on the second day of Shukla paksha of Ashada month of the Hindu calendar.
The festival is associated with the beginning of rains in the Kutch region of Gujarat.
During Ashadhi Bij, the moisture in the atmosphere is checked to predict which crop would do best in the coming monsoon

6.       Consider the following statements:
1. Aurangabad was founded in 1610 by Aurangzeb.
2. Recently, Maharashtra government renamed Aurangabad as Shivaji Nagar.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Maharashtra government renamed Aurangabad as Sambhajinagar.
Aurangabad was founded in 1610 by Malik Ambar,  the Siddi general of the Nizamshahi dynasty of Ahmadnagar.
Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj, the son and successor of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, was tortured and killed in brutal fashion on Aurangzeb’s orders in 1689.

7.       With reference to ‘Autonomous Flying Wing Technology Demonstrator’, consider the following statements
1. It refers to a tailless fixed-wing aircraft that houses its payload and fuel in its main wings
2. The UCAV will be capable of launching missiles and precision-guided munitions
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
UCAV refers to a tailless fixed-wing aircraft that houses its payload and fuel in its main wings and does not have a defined fuselage-like structure found in conventional aircraft. The design has the potential to deliver high fuel efficiency and stability if executed with precision.
Statement 2 Correct
It refers to a tailless fixed-wing aircraft that houses its payload and fuel in its main wings and does not have a defined fuselage-like structure found in conventional aircraft. The design has the potential to deliver high fuel efficiency and stability if executed with precision. The UCAV will be capable of launching missiles and precision-guided munitions.
Context – Defence Research and Development Organisation(DRDO) carried out the maiden test flight of a new unmanned Aerial Vehicle, an Autonomous Flying Wing Technology Demonstrator.

8.       Consider the following statements about ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’:
1. It was part of the Indradhanush Plan.
2. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About BBB:
It was set up in February 2016as an autonomous body– based on the recommendations of the RBI-appointed Nayak Committee.
It was part of the Indradhanush Plan.
It will make recommendations for the appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and state-owned financial institutions.
The Ministry of Finance takes the final decision on the appointmentsin consultation with the Prime Minister’s Office.
S2: The Chairman is selected by the central government and the RBI governor does not head it.

9.       Berne convention, sometimes seen in news is intended to protect
 a) Human Rights
 b) Intellectual property rights
 c) Traditional Knowledge of plants
 d) Foreign Diplomatic officials
Solution: b)
The Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works, usually known as the Berne Convention, is an international agreement governing copyright, which was first accepted in Berne, Switzerland, in 1886.
The Berne Convention formally mandated several aspects of modern copyright law; it introduced the concept that a copyright exists the moment a work is “fixed”, rather than requiring registration. It also enforces a requirement that countries recognize copyrights held by the citizens of all other parties to the convention.

10.    Recently, which one of the following space agency has launchec CAPSTONE mission to the moon?
(a) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
(b) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(c) European Space Agency (ESA)
(d) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
NASA launched CAPSTONE, a microwave oven-sized CubeSat weighing just 55 pounds (25 kg). CAPSTONE – Cislunar Autonomous Positioning System Technology Operations and Navigation Experiment, is designed to test a unique, elliptical lunar orbit known as a near-rectilinear halo orbit (NRHO) which is significantly elongated, and is located at a precise balance point in the gravities of Earth and the Moon.This offers stability for long-term missions like Gateway.
CAPS (Cislunar Autonomous Positioning System) is CAPSTONE’s autonomous navigation software
If tested successfully, the software will allow future spacecraft to determine their location without having to rely exclusively on Earth-based tracking.

11.    Arrange the following Classification of Coal in the decreasing order of their carbon content.
1. Bituminous
2. Lignite
3. Anthracite
4. Peat
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1-3-2-4
 b) 1-4-3-2
 c) 3-1-2-4
 d) 3-2-1-4
Solution: c)
Classification of Coal (on the basis of carbon content and time period):
Anthracite:
It is the best quality of coal with highest calorific value and carries 80 to 95% carbon content.
It ignites slowly with a blue flame and is found in small quantities in Jammu and Kashmir.
Bituminous:
It has a low level of moisture content with 60 to 80% of carbon content and has a high calorific value.
Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh have deposits of Bituminous.
Lignite:
It carries 40 to 55% carbon content and is often brown in colour with high moisture content thus, gives smoke when burnt.
Rajasthan, Lakhimpur (Assam) and Tamil Nadu have deposits of Lignite.
Peat:
It is the first stage of transformation from wood to coal with low calorific value and less than 40% carbon content.
Top 5 States in terms of total coal reserves in India are: Jharkhand > Odisha > Chhattisgarh > West Bengal > Madhya Pradesh.

12.    Which of the following explains why we should move away from coal based power generation?
1. Coal emits nearly twice as much carbon dioxide as natural gas.
2. Combusting coal also leaves behind partially burnt carbon particles that feed pollution and trigger respiratory disorders.
3. Opencast mining and underground mining of coal affect the vegetation pattern.
4. There are several occupational hazards associated with coal mining like Pneumoconiosis and asthma.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Coal emits nearly twice as much carbon dioxide as natural gas and about 60% more than oil,on a kilogram kilogram comparison having a greater role in global warming.
Combusting coal also leaves behind partially burnt carbon particles that feed pollution and trigger respiratory disorders.
The power sector in India, which uses the majority of the coal, accounts for 49% of total carbon dioxide emissions, compared with the global average of 41%.
Environmental issues associated with Coal Mining that is air pollution, water pollution, soil pollution etc.
Opencast mining and underground mining of coal affect the vegetation pattern.
Several occupational hazards are associated with coal mining: Pneumoconiosis (by inhaling coal dust), allergies and asthma, noise hazard etc.

13.    Consider the following statements:
1. State Cooperative Banks (StCB)/District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCB) are registered under the provisions of State Cooperative Societies Act of the State concerned
2. StCBs/DCCBs are regulated by the Reserve Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
StCBs/DCCBs are registered under the provisions of State Cooperative Societies Act of the State concerned and are regulated by the Reserve Bank.

14.    Consider the following statements.
1. Coal based thermal power plants constitute the maximum share in India’s installed power generation capacity.
2. In India the total installed capacity of Nuclear power plants is higher than Natural gas-based power plants.
3. At present Wind power constitutes the maximum share in the total installed renewable energy in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 2, 3
Solution: a)

 The government has installed renewable energy projects of 152.90 gigawatt (GW) capacity as of February 2022. This includes 50.78 GW from solar, 40.13 GW from wind, 10.63 GW from bio-power, 4.84 GW from small hydropower and 46.52 GW from large hydropower.

15.    Consider the following statements regarding European Bank for Reconstruction & Development (EBRD)
1. It was established to help build a new, post-World War 2 era in Central and Eastern Europe.
2. US is the biggest shareholder of EBRD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation: European Bank for Reconstruction & Development (EBRD)
international financial institution
founded in 1991
headquarter — London
uses investment as a tool to build market economies
established to help build a new, post-Cold War era in Central and Eastern Europe
Objectives
furthering progress towards market-oriented economies
promotion of private and entrepreneurial initiative
EBRD’s unique mandate
Uniquely for a development bank, the EBRD has a political mandate in that it assists only those countries ‘committed to and applying the principles of multi-party democracy [and] pluralism
EBRD serves the interests of all its shareholders – 66 countries from five continents plus the European Union and the European Investment Bank
US is the biggest shareholder
Besides Europe, member countries of the EBRD are also from other continents – North America (Canada and US), Africa (Morocco), Asia (Japan, China, South Korea) and Australia.
The Union Cabinet has approved India’s membership for EBRD and shareholders of EBRD also voted for India‘s full membership.

16.    With reference to the ‘External debt of India’, consider the following statements
1. India’s short-term debt (with original maturity below one year) forms the major part of external debt
2. U.S. dollar-denominated debt remained the largest component of external debt
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
India’s long-term debt (with original maturity of above one year) rose to $499.1 billion, recording an increase of $26.5 billion over its level at end-March 2021, RBI data showed. India’s external debt stands at $620.7 billion at end-March 2022
Statement 2  Correct
U.S. dollar-denominated debt remained the largest component of external debt, with a share of 53.2%. Separately, the RBI said net claims of non-residents on India increased by $5.6 billion during the fourth quarter of 2021-22 to $359.8 billion in March 2022.
 Context – India’s external debt rose to $620.7 billion at end-March 2022, recording an increase of $47.1 billion over the year earlier period, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data showed.

17.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Financial Services Institution Bureau’
1. The Financial Services Institutions Bureau will select the chiefs of public sector banks and insurance companies
2. FSIB will be the single entity for making recommendations for appointments of WTD (Whole-time Director) and NEC (Non-executive Chairman) in Public Sector Banks
3. The chairman of FSIB will be appointed by the Ministry of Finance
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 1 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 3 only
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
The Financial Services Institutions Bureau will select the chiefs of public sector banks and insurance companies. The FSIB will have the clear mandate to issue guidelines and select general managers and directors of state-run non-life insurers, general insurers and Financial Institutions.
Statement 2 Correct
FSIB will be the single entity for making recommendations for appointments of WTD (Whole-time Director) and NEC (Non-executive Chairman) in Public Sector Banks, India Private Limited company and Financial Institutions.
Statement 3 Incorrect
The FSIB will comprise a chairperson nominated by the central government; the secretaries of the departments of financial services and public enterprises; the chairman of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India; and a deputy governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Apart from them, there will be three members with knowledge of banks and other financial institutions, and three more with knowledge of insurance, according to the order.
Context – The Cabinet Appointments Committee (ACC) has passed a government resolution to establish the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) in place of the Banks Board Bureau (BBB).

18.    Financial Stability Report (FSR) is released by
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(b) Bank for International Settlements (BIS)
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) World Bank Group
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released its bi-annual Financial Stability Report (FSR)

19.    Consider the following statements regarding the term Floor Test.
1. It is a term used for the test of the majority in the House of Parliament or State Legislature.
2. Some legislators may be absent or choose not to vote during the Floor Test.
3. Governor’s power to call for a floor test is not restricted only before the inception of a State government immediately after elections, but continues throughout its term.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 5
Solution: d)
Floor Test:
It is a term used for the test of the majority. If there are doubts against the Chief Minister (CM) of a State, he/she can be asked to prove the majority in the House.
In case of a coalition government, the CM may be asked to move a vote of confidence and win a majority.
In the absence of a clear majority, when there is more than one individual stake to form the government, the Governor may call for a special session to see who has the majority to form the government.
Some legislators may be absent or choose not to vote.
The numbers are then considered based only on those MLAs who were present to vote.
 Governor’s power to call for a floor test is not restricted only before the inception of a State government immediately after elections, but continues throughout its term.

20.    Consider the following statements about FCRA(Foreign Contribution Regulation Act)
1. It regulates the acceptance and utilization of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality by certain individuals or associations or companies
2. FCRA allows Indians to receive up to ₹1 lakh in a year from relatives staying abroad without informing the authorities
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (a)
Statement analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
The Foreign Contribution (regulation) Act, 2010 is an act of the Parliament of India. It is a consolidating act whose scope is to regulate the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions.
It prohibits acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality for any activities detrimental to the national interest
Statement 2 Incorrect
FCRA allows Indians to receive up to ₹10 lakh in a year from relatives staying abroad without informing the authorities.
FCRA functions under the supervision of Ministry of Home Affairs.
 Context: Government recently amended FCRA and increased the sum that relatives living abroad can send to 10 lakh

21.    Recently, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has notified Forest (conservation) Rules 2022, under the
(a) Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
(b) Environment (Protection) Act,1986
(c) Forest (conservation) Act, 1980
(d) Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
‘MoEFCC has notified Forest (conservation) Rules 2022, under the Forest (conservation) Act, 1980.
New Rules says:
On monitoring: Constitute an advisory committee, a regional empowered committee and a screening committee at the State/UT
Integrated Regional Office:It will examine all the linear projects (e.g. roads, highways, etc) involving land up to 40 hectares and the use of forest land up to 0.7 canopy density
Time frame: A fixed time for quicker review of each project
Responsibility to states:States are given the responsibility of settling forest rights of forest dwellers (Forest Rights Act, 2006) and allowing diversion of forest land.
Allows compensatory afforestation (CA) in other states:If the state already has over two-thirds area under green cover or over one-third area under forest cover, then CA could be taken in other states/UTs where the cover is less than 20%

22.    The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum. Since 2004, the Global Competitiveness Report ranks countries based on the Global Competitiveness Index, developed by Xavier Sala-i-Martin and Elsa V. Artadi.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019

23.    Consider the following statements:
1. GOAL (Going Online As Leaders) is a Joint initiative of Google India with Ministry of Tribal affairs.
2. It aims to provide mentorship to tribal youth through digital mode.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Ministry of Tribal Affairslaunched the 2nd Phase of the Going Oline as Leaders Programme (GOAL) programme. It is in partnership with Facebook India
Aim:
Identify, mobilise, and connect 2,500renowned leaders from the industry, who can personally mentor 5,000 youth (women) from tribal communities across the country.
Digitally upskill 10 lakh youth from tribal communities
Create a platform for Self-Help Group and those associated with TRIFED to take their products global.

24.    What is ‘green hydrogen’, sometimes mentioned in the news?
(a) Hydrogen generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy.
(b) Hydrogen generated through electrolysis with solar power.
(c) Hydrogen created from fossil sources, where the carbon emissions are captured and stored.
(d) Hydrogen produced by electrolysis using renewable energy.
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Hydrogen when produced by electrolysis using renewable energy is known as Green Hydrogen which has no carbon  footprint.
Significance of Green Hydrogen:
Green hydrogen energy is vital for India to meet its Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) Targets and ensure regional and national energy security, access and availability.
Green Hydrogen can act as an energy storage option, which would be essential to meet intermittencies (of renewable energy) in the future.
In terms of mobility, for long distance mobilisations for either urban freight movement within cities and states or for passengers, Green Hydrogen can be used in railways, large ships, buses or trucks, etc.

25.    Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Hepatitis B has a vaccine that is recommended for all infants at birth and for children up to 18 years. It is also recommended that adults in high-risk groups be vaccinated.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019

26.    India’s largest fully operational floating solar power plant is located in
 a) Rajasthan
 b) Gujarat
 c) Karnataka
 d) Telangana
Solution(d)
India’s largest floating solar plant is now fully operational at Ramagundam in Telangana’s Peddapalli district. The 100-megawatt (MW) floating solar power photovoltaic project was commissioned by the National Thermal Power Corporation, the country’s foremost public-sector power generator. As of July 1, following the commissioning of the plant, the total commercial operation of floating solar capacity in the southern region has risen to 217 MW, according to the NTPC. It is powered with advanced technology and environment-friendly features. The project spreads over 500 acres of its reservoir, with the presence of floating solar panels, the evaporation rate from water bodies is reduced, thus helping in water conservation.
Context – India’s largest floating solar power project was commissioned

27.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘IMF(International Monetary Fund)’
1. Membership in the UN(United Nations) is aprerequisite for membership in the IMF
2. Presently India is the eighth largest holder of SDR(special drawing rights) quota
3. IMF grants Extended Fund Facility for low-income countries with urgent balance of payments need
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
 a) 1 only
 b) 1 and 3 only
 c) 2 only
 d) 2 and 3 only
Solution(c)
Statement analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
Any country may apply to be a part of the IMF. Post-IMF formation, in the early postwar period, rules for IMF membership were left relatively loose. Members needed to make periodic membership payments towards their quota, to refrain from currency restrictions unless granted IMF permission, to abide by the Code of Conduct in the IMF Articles of Agreement, and to provide national economic information. However, stricter rules were imposed on governments that applied to the IMF for funding. Membership in the IMF is a prerequisite to membership in the IBRD.
Statement 2 Correct
The present share of India is 2.75. India is the 8th largest in the IMF quota.
Statement 3  Incorrect
Extended Fund Facility(EFF), is one such instrument, through which the IMF extends loans to various countries to come out of Economic crises.
Context: IMF has proposed to extend EFF to Sri Lanka to handle economic crises

28.    Consider the following statements.
1. Iron ore occurs most abundantly in the form of carbonates.
2. Hematite is the most abundant iron ore mineral and is the main constituent of the iron ore industry in India.
3. The major Hematite type iron deposits are located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Iron ore occurs most abundantly in the form of oxides. Other forms are carbonates, hydroxides, sulphides and silicates. It is also found in association with titanium dioxide.
Hematite is the most abundant iron ore mineral and is the main constituent of the iron ore industry in India.
The major Hematite type iron deposits are located in well-defined belts in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka.

29.    Consider the following statements:
1. Jamdani is a type of very fine woven muslin fabric.
2. The art of Jamdani weaving has been practised in the Deccan region of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Weaving Jamdani
It is a cottonbrocade characterised by floral patterns, jamdani is a light and translucent fabric.
In 2013, UNESCO added jamdani weaving to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. The fabric also received the Geographical Indications (GI) tag in Bangladesh in 2016.
Jamdani weaving is believed to have emerged from the Dhaka muslin industry, with both plain and decorative motifs emerging during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq (1324–51),with the arrival of Persian craftsmen to India.

30.    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Konark Sun Temple’
1. The temple is attributed to king Narasimhadeva II of the Western Ganga dynasty built in the 13^th century
2. It is the only sun temple in India to be declared as a UNESCO world heritage site
3. It is also popularly called as Black Pagoda
Choose the correct answer using the options given below
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 3 only
 d) All the above
Solution (b)
Statement analysis:
Statement 1  Incorrect
The temple is attributed to king Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
The 13^th Century temple is dedicated to Hindu Sun God Surya.
Statement 2 Correct
Out of the total 40 Indian sites listed in UNESCO’s world heritage sites, Sun temple in Konark is the only sun temple to be listed.
Statement 3  Correct
This temple was called the “Black Pagoda” in European sailor accounts as early as 1676 because it looked like a great tiered tower which appeared black.
Context: Works of a pilot project to restore the Sun temple‘s carvings are on the verge of completion.

31.    Consider the following statements about ‘Landslides’
1. It is a form of mass wasting which is not affected by exogenic factors
2. The most vulnerable region for landslides in India are Himalayas and Eastern Ghats
Select the correct statement(s)
  a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (d)
Statement analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
Landslides are mass movements, which result in the movement of geomaterials(rock, mud, boulders etc) down the slope under the influence of gravity. Gravity is the primary driving force for a landslide to occur, but there are other factors affecting slope stability that produce specific conditions that make a slope prone to failure. In many cases, the landslide is triggered by a specific event (such as a heavy rainfall, an earthquake, a slope cut to build a road, and many others), although this is not always identifiable.
Statement 2 Incorrect
According to the 3rd edition of the Vulnerability Atlas of India, the most vulnerable regions are the Himalayas and the Western Ghats.
Context : There was a landslide in Manipur which resulted in the loss of lives

32.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Leprosy’
1. It is a chronic bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium Leprae
2. It mainly affects peripheral nerves, upper respiratory tract and lining of the nose
3. Clofazimine is one of the essential drugs in the MultiDrug Treatment of Multibacillary Leprosy (MBMDT)
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
 a) 3 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) All the above
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
Leprosy is also known as Hansen’s Disease. Leprosy is a chronic, progressive bacterial infection caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium Leprae, which is an acid-fast rod-shaped bacillus.
Statement 2 Correct
Common symptoms present in the different types of leprosy include a runny nose; dry scalp; eye problems; skin lesions; muscle weakness; reddish skin; smooth, shiny, diffuse thickening of facial skin, ear, and hand; loss of sensation in fingers and toes; thickening of peripheral nerves; a flat nose from destruction of nasal cartilage; and changes in phonation and other aspects of speech production
Statement 3 Correct
Clofazimine is one of the three essential drugs in the MultiDrug Treatment of Multibacillary Leprosy (MBMDT) cases, along with Rifampicin and Dapsone. It is needed not just for the therapy/cure of leprosy, but also for controlling acute exacerbations of this disease.
Context – Concern over acute shortage of key leprosy drug in private sector

33.    Which of the following statements about Leprosy is/are correct?
1. The exact mechanism of transmission is not known
2. In most parts of the world males are affected more frequently than females
Select the correct answer using the code given bellow:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
S1: The disease can be transmitted from person to person by prolonged close contact, but even today scientists are uncertain of the exact mechanism.
S2: Although leprosy affects both the sexes, in most parts of the world males are affected more than females at a ratio of 2:1

34.    With reference to ‘Lisbon Declaration’, consider the following statements
1. It aims to protect biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction
2. The theme of the declaration is ‘Our Ocean, Our Future: call for action’
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
It aims to protect biodiversity in Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction, which lie outside the 200-mile (322-kilometre) exclusive economic zones of countries.
Statement 2 Incorrect
The Ocean Conference adopted the declaration entitled “Our Ocean, Our Future, Our Responsibility”as the outcome document, and recommends that the General Assembly endorse it, at its 76th session.
 Context – UN Ocean Conference ended recently with adoption of Lisbon Declaration.

35.    ‘miR444’ seen in news recently is a
 a) Ransomware
 b) Attack Helicopter
 c) RNA
 d) Prognostic biomarker
Solution(c)
The gene transcription factor MADS27, which regulates nitrate absorption, root development and stress tolerance, is activated by the micro-RNA, miR444, therefore offering a new way to control these properties of the plant. This ‘miR444’ can be used to increase nitrate absorption, enhance root development and help the plant to tolerate more stress.
Context – Researchers have found a new pathway that regulates nitrate absorption in plants.

36.    Consider the following statements.
1. The National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) was established through an act of Parliament.
2. The Disaster Management (DM) Act of 2005, provides to collect and use the donations at the local level, with mandatory audit provisions.
3. The NDRF is not answerable under the RTI Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
A statutorily constituted National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF), was established under the Disaster Management (DM) Act of 2005. The NDRF is mandated to be accountable, and answerable under the RTI Act, being a public authority, and auditable by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The DM Act provided for a Disaster Response Fund — state and district level funds (besides the national level) and also to collect and use the donations at the local level, with mandatory transparency and audit provisions.

37.    Consider the following statements about National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
1. It is a Constitutional Body.
2. It was established in compliance with the Paris Principles of Human Rights, 1991.
3. It is composed of a Chairperson and eight other members.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Explanation: here the directive word is not correct!!
S1: NHRC is a statutory body established on 12th October, 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993.
S2: NHRC was established in compliance with the Paris Principles of Human Rights, 1991 which were adopted for the promotion and protection of Human Rights and were endorsed by the United Nations at its General Assembly of 1993.
S3: The Commission consists of a Chairperson, five full-time Members and seven deemed Members. The statute lays down qualifications for the appointment of the Chairperson and Members of the Commission.

38.    Consider the following statements about ‘National Investigation Agency (NIA)’
1. NIA is a non-statutory body which functions under the supervision of Home ministry
2. NIA similar to CBI should take states’ consent before initiating an investigation within a state
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (d)
Statement analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
NIA is a statutory body which came into existence with the enactment of the National Investigation Agency Act 2008 by the Parliament of India, which was passed after the 26/11 terror attack in Mumbai.
Statement 2 Incorrect
The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the primary counter-terrorist task force in India. The agency is empowered to deal with the investigation of terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states under a written proclamation from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
 Context: NIA was in news due to several high profile cases being assigned to the agency

39.    With reference to National Statistics Day, consider the following statements:
1. The National Statistics Day is being observed in India since 2007.
2. It was observed to honor the Indian-based scientist and statistician Professor P C Mahalanobis.
3. The theme of Statistics Day, 2022 is ‘Data for Sustainable Development’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
The National Statistics Day is being observed in India since 2007.
June 29, is national ‘Statistics Day’, in ‘recognition of the contributions made by Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, the ‘Plan Man’ of India.
The National Statistics Day 2022 was observed under the theme– “Data for Sustainable Development”.

40.    Consider the following statements about the RAMP scheme:
1. It is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme.
2. It aims to improve the condition of MSMEs in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
“Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP) is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme.
It has been launched tosupport various Resilience and Recovery Interventions of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME).
In addition to building the MoMSME’s capacityat the national level, the RAMP program will seek to scale up implementation capacity and MSME coverage in States.

41.    Consider the following statements:
1. In India, a person cannot be prosecuted more than once for the same offence.
2. Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees the right against double jeopardy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
A person cannot be prosecuted more than once for the same offence.
Article 20(2) of the Constitution guarantees the right against double jeopardy.
Multiple FIRs on the same incident would virtually mean multiple trials. Approaching the Supreme Court in such situations is a procedural safeguard against excessive litigation.
Other judgements:
In T T Anthony v State of Kerala, a 2001 verdict, the Supreme Court held that there cannot be a “second FIR”on the same issue.
In 2020, the Supreme Court in the case of Arnab Goswami v Union of Indiaexpanded this ruling and said that similar FIRs in different jurisdictions also violate fundamental rights.

42.    Right to Internet in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Temporary suspension of Telecom Services (public emergency and public safety) Rules 2017 under Indian Telegraph Act, 1885:It governs suspension, shutdown or any disruption in telcom services on the ground of Public emergency but only upto 15 days at once
Supreme court observations:
Right to internet is a fundamental right (subject to reasonable restrictions)included in the freedom of expression under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution.
Restrictions on fundamental rights could not be in exercise of arbitrary powers.These freedoms could only be restricted as a last resort if “relevant factors” have been considered and no other options are there.
Any order passed to restrict or suspend judicial scrutiny will be subject to judicial scrutiny.
Suspension of internet services indefinitely is also a violation of telecom rules.

43.    With reference to Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC), consider the following statements:
1. It is the largest naval exercise including four Quad countries (including India) and others in the Pacific Rim.
2. It is held biennially from June-July and is administered by US Navy’s Indo-Pacific Command.
3. It aims to train countries to ensure the safety of sea lanes and security on the world’s oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) is the largest naval exerciseincluding four Quad countries (including India) and others in the pacific rim. It is held biennially from June-July and is administered by US Navy’s Indo-Pacific Command. It aims to train countries to ensure the safety of sea lanes and security on the world’s oceans.

44.    Consider the following statements regarding Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
1. GSLV was developed to launch low-Earth Orbit satellites into polar and sun synchronous orbits.
2. PSLV was developed to launch the heavier INSAT class of geosynchronous satellites into orbit.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation: here the directive word is incorrect!!
Difference between PSLV and GSLV:
India has two operational launchers- Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
PSLV was developed to launch low-Earth Orbit satellites into polar and sun synchronous orbits. It has since proved its versatility by launching geosynchronous, lunar and interplanetary spacecraft successfully.
On the other hand, GSLV was developed to launch the heavier INSAT class of geosynchronous satellites into orbit. In its third and final stage, GSLV uses the indigenously developed cryogenic upper stage.

45.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Patents’ in India
1. The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks under Ministry of Corporate Affairs is the body responsible for the Indian Patent Act
2. Both Indian as well as foreign applicants can file for a patent under the provisions of this act
3. Term for protection of product patent shall be for 10 years
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 2 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) 3 only
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1  Incorrect
The Patents Act, 1970 is the legislation that till date governs patents in India. It first came into force in 1972. The Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks or CGPDTM is the body responsible for the Indian Patent Act. It comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Statement 2 Correct
The jurisdiction for filing the patent application depends upon: Indian applicant(s): determined according to place of residence, place of business of the applicant or where the invention actually originated. Foreign applicant(s): determined by the address for service in India.
Statement 3 Incorrect
Term for protection of product patent shall be for 20 years.
Context – There is a proposal to reduce the pre-grant opposition procedure under the Indian Patents act.

46.    With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicle, consider the following statements:
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV MK III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication-satellites to the highly elliptical (typically 250 x 3.6000 Km) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). The satellite in GTO is further raised to its final destination, viz., Geo-synchronous Earth orbit (GEO) of about 3.6000 Km altitude (and zero degree inclination on equatorial plane) by firing its in-built on-board engines. Due to their geo-synchronous nature, the satellites in these orbits appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth, thus avoiding the need of a tracking ground antenna and hence are useful for the communication applications.
GSLV Mk 3 is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-one, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.

47.    Snake Island’ seen in news frequently lies in
 a) Black Sea
 b) South China Sea
 c) Mediterranean Sea
 d) Baltic Sea
Solution(a)
Snake Island, also known as Serpent Island or Zmiinyi Island, is an island belonging to Ukraine located in the Black Sea, near the Danube Delta, with an important role in delimiting Ukrainian territorial waters. On 24 February 2022, two Russian navy warships attacked and captured Snake Island.[4] It was since heavily bombarded by Ukraine
Context – Russia announced that it had withdrawn troops from the Snake Island in a “gesture of goodwill”

48.    Consider the following phenomena :
1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
S1:Einstein’s theory of relativity has important astrophysical implications. For example, it implies the existence of black holes—regions of space in which space and time are distorted in such a way that nothing, not even light, can escape—as an end-state for massive stars.
There is ample evidence that the intense radiation emitted by certain kinds of astronomical objects is due to black holes; for example, micro quasars and active galactic nuclei result from the presence of stellar black holes and super massive black holes, respectively.
The bending of light by gravity can lead to the phenomenon of gravitational lensing, in which multiple images of the same distant astronomical object are visible in the sky. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
S2:General relativity also predicts the existence of gravitational waves, which have since been observed directly by the physics collaboration LIGO. In addition, general relativity is the basis of current cosmological models of a consistently expanding universe. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
S3:General relativity is Einstein’s law of gravity, his Justification of that fundamental force which holds us to the surface of the Earth. Gravity, Einstein asserted, is caused by warping of space and time or space-time. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

49.    Consider the following statements
1. Vice-President is a member and chairman of Council of States.
2. Vice-President can be removed only through a formal impeachment process similar to that of President.
3. Dr S. Radhakrishnan was elected as Vice President continuously for two terms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Vice-President is not a member, however he/she is the chairman of Council of States. There is no exact procedure mentioned in Indian Constitution for the removal of Vice President.

50.    Consider the following statements:
1. Constitution of India vests the superintendence, direction and control of the conduct of election to the office of the Vice-President of India in the Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha.
2. As per Article 66 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by the members of the Electoral College.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Article 324 of the Constitution read with the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952 and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974, vests the superintendence, direction and control of the conduct of election to the office of the Vice-President of India in the Election Commission of India.
As per Article 66 of the Constitutionof India, the Vice-President is elected by the members of the Electoral College.
Electoral College consists of:
Elected members of Rajya Sabha.
Nominated members of Rajya Sabha.
Elected members of Lok Sabha.