Daily Current
Affairs Questions
July 2022 Part 23
Why in News
1. Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve
2. Aviation sector
3. Ayushman Bharat scheme
4. Bail
5. Balance of Payments (BoP)
6. Barak Valley
7. Bharat Net Project
8.
BioRRAP
9. Canalized goods
10. Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)
11. Cloudbursts
12. Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
13. Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital
14.
Contempt Of Court
15.
crypto
profits
16.
Dark energy and Dark matter
17. Forest Conservation Rules (2022)
18. G20:
19. Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index
20. Global Gender Gap Index
21. Global Gender Gap Index’
22. Higgs boson particle
23. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
24. Hydrogen fuel
25. Incheon Strategy
26. Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
27. India Penal Code (IPC)
28. India Rankings 2022 for Higher Educational Institutes
29.
IS40M
30. IT(Information Technology) Act
31. James Webb Space Telescope(JWST)
32. Monkeypox
33. National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research
34. National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research
35. National Emblem
36. National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), 2022
37. National Security Council
38. Natural Farming
39. Open Network for Digital Commerce
40. Paracel Islands’
41. Parliament of India
42.
phone tapping
43. political system
44. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana(PMFBY)
45. Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models
46. RAMP Scheme
47. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
48. Secularism
49. Skill Council for Green Jobs
50. Sodium ion battery
1. Which Biosphere Reserve encompasses Shendurney Wildlife
Sanctuary, Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary, Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary
a) Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve
b) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
c) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
d) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
Solution(a)
The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is a biosphere reserve in India established in 2001,
located in the southernmost end of the Western Ghats and includes 3,500.36 km2
(1,351.50 sq mi) of which 1828 km2 is in Kerala and 1672.36 km2 is in Tamil
Nadu. It encompasses the following wildlife sanctuaries: Shendurney Wildlife
Sanctuary, Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary, Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, and Kalakkad
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve. Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve became part of
World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2016.
Context – Researchers have identified a new species of evergreen tree
belonging to the genus Miliusa from the Agasthyamala biosphere reserve in the
southern arm of the Western Ghats in the Thiruvananthapuram district
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Aviation sector:
1. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is
responsible for regulating safety issues in the field of Civil Aviation.
2. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) regulates tariff for the
aeronautical services, and other airport charges for services at airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation, primarily dealing
with safety issues. It is responsible for regulation of air transport
services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air
safety, and airworthiness standards.
The DGCA also co-ordinates all regulatory functions with the International
Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO). Hence statement 1 is correct.
AERA:
Airports Economic Regulatory
Authority of India (AERA) was established in 2009
as a statutory body under “The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority
of India Act, 2008”.
AERA was established to regulate tariffs for the aeronautical services,
determine other airport charges for services rendered at major airports
and to monitor the performance standards of such airports. Hence statement 2
is correct.
3. Consider the following statements about Ayushman Bharat scheme:
1. It will provide free coverage of up to Rs 5 lakh per
family per year at any Government or even empanelled private hospitals all over
India.
2. It is available for secondary and tertiary medical care
facilities only.
3. This scheme is fully financed by the Government of
India.
Which of following statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3only
d) All of these
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Ayushman Bharat scheme will provide free coverage of up to
Rs 5 lakh per family per year at any Government or even empanelled private
hospitals all over India for secondary and tertiary medical care facilities.
The funding for the scheme is shared – 60:40 for all States and UTs with their
own legislature, 90:10 in Northeast states and Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal and
Uttarakhand and 100% Central funding for UTs without legislature.
4. With reference to ‘Bail’, consider the following
statements
1. The Code of Criminal Procedure defines the terms
bailable offence and non-bailable offence
2. Non-bailable offences are non-cognisable which enables the police officer to
arrest without a warrant
3. A Bailable offence is defined as an offence which is shown as bailable in
the First Schedule of the Code
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All the above
Solution(c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
The
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 does not define bail, although the terms
bailable offence and non-bailable offence have been defined in section 2(a) of
the Code.
Statement 2 Incorrect
Non-bailable offences are cognisable, which enables the police officer to
arrest without a warrant. In such cases, a magistrate would determine if the
accused is fit to be released on bail.
Statement 3 Correct
A Bailable offence is defined as an offence which is shown as bailable in
the First Schedule of the Code or which is made bailable by any other law, and
non-bailable offence means any other offence.
Context – Supreme Court
underlined the need for reform in the law related to bail and called on the
government to consider framing a special legislation
5. Consider the following statements regarding Balance of Payments (BoP):
1. BoP can be defined as a systematic statement of all
economic transactions of a country with the rest of the world for usually one
year.
2. Although it reveals the financial status of a country, it cannot be used as
an indicator to determine the appreciation/depreciation of a country’s currency
value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Balance of Payment (BoP) of a country can be defined as a systematic statement of
all economic transactions of a country with the rest of the world during a
specific period usually one year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It indicates whether the country has a surplus or a deficit on trade.
When exports exceed imports, there is a trade surplus and when imports exceed
exports there is a trade deficit.
Purposes of calculation of BoP:
Reveals the financial and economic status of a country.
Can be used as an indicator to determine whether the country’s
currency value is appreciating or depreciating. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
Helps the Government to decide on fiscal and trade policies.
Provides important information to analyze and understand the economic dealings
of a country with other countries.
6. Barak Valley,
recently in the news, is located in which of the following States?
A Arunachal Pradesh
B Uttarakhand
C Assam
D Bihar
Explanation
The Barak Valley is located in the southern region of
the Indian state of Assam. The main city of the valley is Silchar.
The region is named after the Barak River.
The Barak valley consists of three administrative districts of Assam -
namely Cachar, Karimganj, and Hailakandi.
Therefore, option C is correct.
7. Consider following statements about Bharat Net Project:
1. It is implemented by Bharat Broadband Network Limited
(BBNL).
2. It intends to cover all 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats.
3. The types of equipment for the programme are
indigenously designed and are manufactured in India, under the “Make in India”
initiative.
Which of the above statements
is/are Not Correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 only
d) None
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
It is implemented by Bharat Broadband Network Limited
(BBNL).
The objective of this project is to provide accessible broadband services to
citizens and institutions in rural and remote areas with the participation of
states and private sector.
It intends to cover all 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats.
The types of equipment for the programme are indigenously designed and are
manufactured in India, under the “Make in India” initiative.
8.
With reference
to regarding BioRRAP, consider the following
statements:
1.BioRRAP provides a single route to direct the applicant to regulatory
agencies providing requisite approval relevant to the biological research.
2. It will increase efficacy in functioning of agencies regulating various
aspect of biological research.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Answer : (B)
The Portal BioRRAP Biological Research Regulatory Approval Portal (BioRRAP)
will cater to all those seeking regulatory approval required for biological
research and development activity in the country.
9. Canalized goods in foreign trade of India refers to
a) Items to be imported by the private agencies.
b) Items to be subsidized.
c) Items that cannot be exported or imported.
d) Items that may only be imported using specific
procedures or methods of transport.
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Canalized goods are items that may only be imported using
specific procedures or methods of transport.
Goods in this category can be imported only through canalizing agencies.
The main canalized items are currently petroleum products, bulk agricultural
products, such as grains and vegetable oils, and some pharmaceutical products.
10. Consider the following statements in context of Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):
1. It is a constitutional body under the Consumer
Protection Act (CPA) 2019.
2. In accordance with CPA 2019, the National Commission has pecuniary
jurisdiction over goods and services worth more than two crores.
3. E-commerce platforms are under the jurisdiction of the CCPA.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A 1 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Central Consumer Protection
Authority (CCPA)
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 established the
Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) as a statutory body (not a
constitutional body). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
It is empowered to regulate abuses of consumer rights, unfair trade
practises, and false or misleading marketing that are detrimental to the
public's interest.
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 promulgates a three-tier quasi-judicial
mechanism for redressal of consumer disputes namely district
commissions, state commissions and national commission.
The new pecuniary jurisdiction, subject to other provisions of the Act, shall
be as under:
District Commissions shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints
where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration does not
exceed 50 lakh rupees.
State Commissions shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where
value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds 50 lakh rupees
but does not exceed 2 crore rupees.
The National Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints
where value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds 2 crore
rupees. Hence statement 2 is correct.
To facilitate consumers in filing their complaint online, the Central
Government has set up the E-Daakhil Portal.
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution notified
and made effective the provisions of the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce)
Rules, 2020 under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
To safeguard consumer rights while shopping online, CCPA has also issued
an Advisory to all marketplace e-commerce entities to ensure that
details of sellers as mandated under sub-rule (5) of rule 6 of the Consumer
Protection (E-commerce) Rules, 2020 including name and contact number of
the grievance officer are provided in a clear and accessible manner, displayed
prominently to users on the platform.
11. With reference to ‘Cloudbursts’, consider the following
statements
It is an extreme amount of precipitation in a short
period of time sometimes accompanied by hail and thunder
Cloudbursts are infrequent as they occur only via orographic lift
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
A
cloudburst is an extreme amount of precipitation in a short period of time,
sometimes accompanied by hail and thunder, which is capable of creating flood
conditions.
Statement 2 Incorrect
cloudbursts are infrequent as they occur only via orographic lift or
occasionally when a warm air parcel mixes with cooler air, resulting in sudden
condensation
Context – There was a cloudburst
in Amarnath, J&K resulting in loss of lives.
12. Consider the following statements about Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC):
1. The CrPC clearly defines the word bail.
2. The CrPC empowers Magistrates to grant bail for
bailable offences as a matter of right.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The CrPC does not define the word bail but only categorises
offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’.
Statement 1 Not Correct.
The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offences as a matter
of right. Statement 2 correct.
13. Consider the following statements about Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas:
1. It was constituted under Air pollution Act, 1981 as per
Supreme Court order.
2. It also dissolves the Environment Pollution Prevention
and Control Authority established in the NCR in 1998.
3. The powers of the Commission also supersede that of any
other body in matters of air pollution.
Which of above statements is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of these
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Commission for Air Quality Management in National
Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance, 2020 sets up a Commission for Air
Quality Management in National Capital Region (NCR) and Adjoining Areas.
But Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and
Adjoining Areas, Act 2021 provide it a statutory status.
The Commission has replaced the Supreme Court-appointed Environment Pollution
(Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) which had been running for 22 years.
The powers of the Commission will also supersede that of any other body in
matters of air pollution.
14.
Consider the following statements about ‘Contempt Of Court’
1. The Constitution of India defines both Civil and Criminal contempt
of the Supreme Court and the High Court
2. The consent of the Attorney General of India is required when contemptuous
acts or words are alleged to have occurred outside a courtroom
3. Lower Judicial courts by themselves cannot by themselves punish for Contempt
of Court
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
The
Contempt of Courts Act 1971 categorizes the offence of contempt into civil and
criminal contempt, not the Constitution. Article 129 and 215 of the
Constitution of India empower the Supreme Court and High Court respectively to
punish people for their respective contempt.
Statement 2 Correct
When contemptuous acts or words are alleged to have occurred outside a
courtroom, proceedings for contempt in the High Courts or Supreme Courts can
only be carried out if with the permission of the relevant law officer. In the
case of High Courts, the consent of the State’s Advocate General is required,
and in the case of the Supreme Court, the consent of either the Attorney
General of India or the Solicitor General of India is required
Statement 3 Correct
Under Article 215 of the Constitution of India, High Court being a court of
record has inherent power in respect of contempt of itself as well as of its subordinate
courts even in the absence of any express provision in any Act. Thus, lower
judicial courts are dependent on High courts.
Context: An Indian fugitive businessman was
sentenced for contempt of court
15. According to the
recently released report, what is the position of India in terms of crypto profits in the year 2021? – 21st
As per the
StockApps report, crypto investors made $162.7 billion in profits in 2021. This
significant amount of profit represented an increase of nearly 400% from 2020.
In the previous year,
In 2021, the United States investors made the highest profits
followed by Germany and the UK.
cryptocurrencies
bitcoin and ether accounted for 93% of gains made in 2021
Cryptocurrency emerged in India for the first time around 2009 in the form of
Bitcoin. The first commercial transaction occurred in 2010, followed by the
first cryptocurrency exchange in 2013.
16.
Consider the following statements regarding Dark energy and Dark matter
1. Dark energy is distributed evenly throughout the universe
2. Dark matter is a hypothetical form of matter constituting major part of the
universe
3. The XENON1T is a dark matter research project operated by NASA.
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Solution (a)
Statement analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
Dark
energy makes up approximately 68% of the universe and appears to be associated
with the vacuum in space. It is distributed evenly throughout the universe, not
only in space but also in time – in other words, its effect is not diluted as
the universe expands. The even distribution means that dark energy does not
have any local gravitational effects, but rather a global effect on the
universe as a whole.
Statement 2 Incorrect
The total mass-energy content of the universe contains 5% ordinary matter
and energy, 27% dark matter, and 68% of a form of energy known as dark energy.
Statement 2 Incorrect
XENON1T was operated deep underground at the INFN Laboratori Nazionali del
Gran Sasso in Italy.
It is a deep underground research facility featuring increasingly ambitious
experiments aiming to detect dark matter particles.
The experiments aim to detect particles in the form of Weakly Interacting
Massive Particles (WIMPs) by looking for rare interactions via nuclear recoils
in a liquid xenon target chamber.
Context: The concept was in news because of
recent research work at CERN.
17. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Forest Conservation Rules (2022)’ which was notified recently
1. The Rules mandate the requirement of attaining a gram
sabha NOC before diverting forest land for a project
2. It sets up an Advisory Committee and a screening committee at State/Union
Territory (UT) government-level
3. States are given the responsibility of settling forest rights of forest
dwellers (Forest Rights Act, 2006)
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
The new
Forest Conservation Rules do not mention the earlier requirement of attaining a
gram sabha NOC before diverting forest land for a project. They also allow
forest rights to be settled after the final approval for forest clearances has
been granted by the Centre
Statement 2 Incorrect
It constituted an Advisory Committee, a regional empowered committee at
each of the integrated regional offices and a screening committee at
State/Union Territory (UT) government-level.
Statement 3 Correct
States are given the responsibility of settling forest rights of forest
dwellers (Forest Rights Act, 2006) and allowing diversion of forest land.
Context – The new rules were
issued recently.
18. Consider the following statements regarding G20:
1. It is an informal group of 20 members.
2. India, China and Canada are among its members.
3. The meeting of G-20 for the year 2023 will be held in Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
It is an informal group of 19 countries and
the European Union (EU), founded in 1999, with representatives of the
International Monetary Fund and the World Bank. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
Its members are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France,
Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico,
Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United
States and the EU. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The G-20 has no fixed headquarters, and the secretariat moves by
rotation between the countries hosting or assuming Presidency of the grouping
each year.
India will steer the international body as its President from 1st December 2022
to 30th November 2023, which will lead to the G20 summit to be hosted here.
Jammu and Kashmir will be hosting the 2023 meetings of G-20. Hence statement
3 is correct.
Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal was appointed as India’s
Sherpa for the G20. The Ministry of External Affairs had said that India will
hold the G20 presidency from December 1, 2022 and will convene the G20 leaders’
summit in 2023 for the first time.
19. Consider the following statements in context of Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index 2022:
1. It was released by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
2. It measures the gender gap based on economic, political and health factors.
3. India’s ranking in GGG Index 2022 is 135 out of 146 countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) ranked India
at 135 out of 146 countries in its Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index for
2022. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
India’s overall score has improved from 0.625 (in 2021) to 0.629,
which is its seventh-highest score in the last 16 years.
In 2021, India was ranked 140 out of 156 countries.
The gender gap is the difference between women and men as reflected in
social, political, intellectual, cultural, or economic attainments or
attitudes.
GGGI benchmarks countries on their progress towards gender parity in
four Key dimensions with Sub Metrices.
Economic Participation and Opportunity
Educational Attainment
Health and Survival
Political Empowerment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
On each of the four sub-indices as well as on the overall index the GGG
index provides scores between 0 and 1, where 1 shows full gender parity and
0 is complete imparity.
It is the longest-standing index, which tracks progress towards closing
these gaps over time since its inception in 2006.
20. Consider the following statements regarding India’s
status in the Global Gender Gap Index 2022:
1. India’s overall score has improved.
2. Out of the four dimensions that the index takes into account; India has
performed its best in gender parity in terms of political empowerment.
3. Globally, Iran, Pakistan and Afghanistan are the only three countries that
have performed worse than India in terms of women’s economic participation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) ranked
India at 135 out of 146 countries in its Global Gender Gap (GGG) Index for
2022.
India’s overall score has improved from 0.625 (in 2021) to 0.629, which
is its seventh-highest score in the last 16 years. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
In 2021, India was ranked 140 out of 156 countries.
The Global Gender Gap Index benchmarks the current state and evolution of
gender parity across four dimensions: economic participation and opportunity,
educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment.
In terms of Political Empowerment, India ranks the highest (48th
out of 146) out of four indicators. Notwithstanding its rank, its score is
quite low at 0.267. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Some of the best ranking countries in this category score much better.
For instance, Iceland is ranked 1 with a score of 0.874 and Bangladesh is
ranked 9 with a score of 0.546.
In terms of Economic Participation and Opportunity (Percentage of women in
labour force, Wage Equality for similar work, Earned income):
India ranks a lowly 143 out of the 146 countries in contention even
though its score has improved over 2021 from 0.326 to 0.350.
In 2021, India was pegged at 151 out of the 156 countries.
India’s score is much lower than the global average, and only Iran, Pakistan
and Afghanistan are behind India on this metric. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
21. With reference to ‘Global Gender Gap Index’, consider the following statements
1. It is a report released by World Economic Forum
2. Only Finland, Norway and Sweden have achieved gender parity according to the
report
3. India ranks highest in the ‘Educational Attainment’ sub-index relative to
her ranking
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
The
Global Gender Gap Index is released by the World Economic Forum.
Statement 2 Incorrect
Although no country achieved full gender parity, the top 10 economies
closed at least 80% of their gender gaps, with Iceland (90.8%) leading the
global ranking. Iceland is followed by Finland (86%, 2nd), Norway (84.5%, 3rd)
Statement 3 Incorrect
Educational Attainment sub-index includes metrics such as literacy rate and
the enrolment rates in primary, secondary and tertiary education. Here India
ranks 107th out of 146. Political Empowerment sub-index includes metrics such
as the percentage of women in Parliament, the percentage of women in
ministerial positions etc. Of all the sub-indices, this is where India ranks
the highest (48th out of 146).
Context – The report for the year
2022 was released recently.
22. Consider the following statements about Higgs boson particle:
1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary
particles have mass.
2. The Higgs boson is called the God particle.
3. The Higgs boson could be an exotic portal for finding
solid proofs of dark matter.
Which of following statements
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of these
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Higgs boson particle is a part of invisible energy field
i.e. Higgs field in the universe. This is a fundamental particle which provides
mass to other particles existing in the universe, resulting in the creation of
stars, planets, etc.
The Higgs boson is called the God particle.
The Higgs boson could be an exotic portal for finding solid proofs of dark
matter.
23. Consider the following statements regarding Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
1. Many people with HPV don’t develop any symptoms but
can still infect others through sexual contact
2. Cervavac is the country’s first indigenously developed vaccine against HPV
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
Human
papillomavirus (HPV) is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI).
Many people with HPV don’t develop any symptoms but can still infect others
through sexual contact. Symptoms may include warts on the genitals or
surrounding skin. There’s no cure for the virus and warts may go away on their
own. Treatment focuses on removing the warts. A vaccine that prevents the HPV
strains most likely to cause genital warts and cervical cancer is recommended
for boys and girls.
Statement 2 Correct
The Pune-based Serum Institute has indigenously developed the country’s
first vaccine against HPV. Cervavac is India’s first quadrivalent human
papillomavirus vaccine (qHPV) vaccine. Although, two vaccines licensed globally
are available in India — a quadrivalent vaccine (Gardasil, from Merck) and a
bivalent vaccine (Cervarix, from GlaxoSmithKline).
Context: Drugs Controller General
Of India granted market authorization to manufacture CERVAVAC.
24. Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogen fuel:
1. Green Hydrogen is generated by renewable energy or
from low-carbon power
2. It is easier and less expensive to store Hydrogen since Hydrogen is lighter
than air
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (a)
Statement analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
Green
hydrogen is hydrogen generated by renewable energy or from low-carbon power.
Green hydrogen has significantly lower carbon emissions than grey hydrogen,
which is produced by steam reforming of natural gas, which makes up the bulk of
the hydrogen market
Statement 2 Incorrect
Hydrogen is difficult to store due to its low volumetric energy density. It
is the lightest of and simplest of all elements, being lighter than helium, and
so is easily lost into the atmosphere. Hydrogen is very hard to move around.
When talking about hydrogen, just moving even small amounts is a very expensive
matter. For that reason alone, the transport and storage of such a substance is
deemed impractical
Context: IISC team Develops technology to
produce hydrogen from biomass
25. ‘Incheon Strategy’ seen in news is used in the context of
a) Anti-microbial
resistance
b) Gender equality
c) Rights of disabled persons
d) South-South co-operation
Solution(c)
The Incheon strategy provides the Asian and Pacific region, and the world,
with the first set of regionally agreed disability-inclusive development goals.
It comprises 10 goals, 27 targets and 62 indicators, including ensuring
disability-inclusive disaster risk reduction and management. The Incheon
strategy builds on the Convention on the rights of persons with disabilities
and the Biwako millennium framework for action and Biwako plus five towards an
inclusive, barrier-free and rights-based society for persons with disabilities
in Asia and the Pacific.
Context – It was in news as draft Rights of Persons with Disabilities bill
was opened for consultation.
26. ‘Index of Industrial Production (IIP)’ is released by
a) Labour Bureau
b) National Statistics Office
c) Department for Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade
d) NITI Aayog
Solution(b)
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a composite indicator that
measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of
industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base
period. In India, the first official attempt to compute the Index of Industrial
Production (IIP) was made much earlier than the first recommendation on the
subject came at the international level. With the inception of the Central
Statistical Organization (now known as National Statistics Office (NSO)) in
1951, the responsibility for compilation and publication of IIP was vested with
it.
Context – IIP for the month of May was recently released.
27. “Whoever, with deliberate and malicious intention of
outraging the religious feelings of any class, either spoken or written, or by
signs, insults or attempts to insult the religion or the religious beliefs of
that class, shall be punished with imprisonment or with fine, or both.”
The above-mentioned provision is related to which of the
following sections of India Penal Code (IPC)?
A Section 295-A
B Sections 505(1)
C Section 153-A
D Section 298-C
Explanation
Section 295(A) of Indian Penal
Code
It says that whoever, with deliberate and malicious
intention of outraging the religious feelings of any class of [citizens of
India], [by words, either spoken or written, or by signs or by visible
representations or otherwise], insults or attempts to insult the religion or
the religious beliefs of that class, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to [three years], or with fine,
or with both.
It seeks to preserve harmony in a multi-religious society by sanctioning penal
action against those attempting to disturb the peace.
In 1957, even a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court upheld its
constitutionality.
Other IPC Provisions Related to Hate Speech
Sections 153A and 153B of the IPC: Punishes acts that cause enmity and
hatred between two groups.
Section 500 of IPC, which is on punishment for defamation, reads,
“Whoever defames another shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term
which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.”
Sections 505(1) and 505(2): Make the publication and circulation of
content which may cause ill-will or hatred between different groups an offence.
Hence, option A is correct.
28. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘India Rankings 2022 for Higher Educational Institutes’
1. This is the first time the ranking parameters included
‘Innovation and Entrepreneurship’
2. The report released by Ministry of Education is based on the methodology of
National Institutional Ranking Framework
3. Outreach and Inclusivity has the highest weightage in the NIRF used to rank
Higher Educational Institutions
Choose the correct statement(s) using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
From next year NIRF ranking categories will also include Innovation and
Entrepreneurship. NIRF rankings categories can be increased as per the needs.
Statement 2 Correct
The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is a methodology adopted by
the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to rank institutions of higher
education in India.
Statement 3 Incorrect
Teaching, Learning and Resources and Research and Professional Practice have
the highest weightage in NIRF (0.3). Outreach and Inclusivity and Perception
have the lowest weightage (0.1). Graduation outcomes have 0.2 weightage.
Context – India Rankings 2022 was
released by the Union Education Minister.
29.
‘IS40M’ seen in
news recently is related to
a) Translation device
b) Standard certification
c) Oilseeds
d) Space debris
Solution(d)
The ISRO System for Safe and Sustainable Space Operations & Management
(IS4OM) is ISRO’s holistic approach to ensure the safety of space assets and
sustaining the utilization of outer space for national development. S4OM
facility will aid India in achieving its SSA (Space Situational Awareness)
goals by providing a comprehensive and timely information of the Space
environment to users.
Context – Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science &
Technology inaugurated the “ISRO System for Safe & Sustainable Operation”
(IS4OM) at ISRO Control Centre, in Bengaluru.
30. Consider the following statements IT(Information Technology) Act 2000:
1. The recent ban on Chinese apps which were accused of
spying was based on Section 66A of IT Act 2000
2. Supreme Court(SC) in Shreya Singhal vs Union of India had struck down
section 69A of the IT Act 2000
Select the INCORRECT statement(s)
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
IT Act
2000 is the primary law in India dealing with cybercrime and electronic
commerce.
Section 69A: It confers on the Central and State governments the power to issue
directions “to intercept, monitor or decrypt any information generated,
transmitted, received or stored in any computer resource”.
Accordingly, Union Government banned few Chinese apps.
Statement 2 Incorrect
Section 66A and restriction of free speech; its establishment as an
amendment to the original act in 2008. SC struck down this section.
Section 66A: It empowered police to make arrests over what policemen, in terms
of their subjective discretion, could construe as “offensive” or “menacing” or
for the purposes of causing annoyance, inconvenience, etc.
It prescribed the punishment for sending messages through a computer or any
other communication device like a mobile phone or a tablet, and a conviction
could fetch a maximum of three years in jail.
Context: Twitter’s petition on section 69A of
IT act 2000, challenging Central Government’s orders to ban content on Twitter.
31. Consider the following statements Regarding James Webb Space Telescope(JWST)
1. It is a joint collaboration between NASA, ESA(European
Space Agency)and CSA(Canadian space agency)
2. The JWST will observe mainly in the ultraviolet and visible part of the
spectrum
3. JWST operates in a halo orbit circling around a point in space known as the
Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point.
Select the correct statement/s:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution (c)
Statement analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
It is a
joint collaboration between NASA ESA(European Space Agency)and CSA(Canadian
space agency). JWST was launched in
December 2021 on an Ariane 5 rocket from Kourou, French Guiana.
Statement 2 Incorrect
Unlike Hubble, which observes in the near ultraviolet, visible, and near
infrared (0.1–1.7 μm) spectra, JWST will observe in a lower frequency range,
from long-wavelength visible light (red) through mid-infrared (0.6–28.3 μm).
Statement 3 Correct
JWST operates in a halo orbit, circling around a point in space known as
the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point, approximately 1,500,000 km (930,000 mi) beyond
Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
Context: NASA recently shared
photos taken by JWST
32. Consider the following statements about ‘Monkeypox’
1. There are no treatments specifically for monkey pox
virus infections.
2. Human-to-human transmission is only possible through direct contact
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
Monkeypox is an infectious viral disease that can occur in humans and some
other animals. There are no treatments specifically for monkeypox virus
infections. However, monkeypox and smallpox viruses are genetically similar,
which means that antiviral drugs and vaccines developed to protect against
smallpox may be used to prevent and treat monkeypox virus infections.
Statement 2 Incorrect
It may spread from infected animals by handling infected meat or via bites
or scratches. Human to human transmission can occur through exposure to
infected body fluids, contaminated objects( which is indirect contact), by
small droplets and possibly the airborne route.
Context: A confirmed case of Monkeypox virus
infection was detected in Kerala.
33. Consider the following statements regarding “National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research”:
1. It is an autonomous Research and Development
Institution under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
2. It is responsible for Year-round maintenance of the two Indian stations
(Maitri & Bharati) in Arctic Circle.
3. It is designated as the nodal organization for the co-ordination and
implementation of the Indian Antarctic Programme.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 3 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR)
was established as an autonomous Research and Development Institution of the
Ministry of Earth Sciences (formerly Department of Ocean Development) on the
25th May 1998. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Year-round maintenance of the two Indian stations (Maitri & Bharati) in
Antarctica is the primary responsibility of the Centre.
Maitri (1989) and Bharati (2011) were established, for carrying out research by
the Indian scientists in all disciplines of polar research.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
It is designated as the nodal organization for the co-ordination and
implementation of the Indian Antarctic Programme, including the
maintenance of India’s permanent station in Antarctica. Hence, statement 3
is correct.
34. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research’
1. It is responsible for the India’s research activities
in the Polar and Southern Ocean realms
2. It is an autonomous Research and Development body under Ministry of Science
and Technology
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
National
Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) is India’s premier R&D
institution responsible for the country’s research activities in the Polar and
Southern Ocean realms.
Statement 2 Incorrect
The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research, (NCPOR) is an autonomous
Indian research and development institution under Ministry of Earth Sciences,
Government of India which is responsible for administering the Indian Antarctic
Programme.
Context – The institution was in
news.
35. With reference to Indian National Emblem, consider the following
statements:
1. It was adopted on 26th January 1950.
2. Animals demonstrated on the pillar are bull, elephant, deer and lion.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
National Emblem of India is a
representative seal of the Republic of India that is adapted from the Lion Capital of Ashoka Pillar
(based in Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh.)
India adopted it as the State Emblem on 26th January 1950.
The motto of the Indian National Emblem is ‘Satyamev Jayate’ or ‘Truth Alone
Triumphs.’ Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The animals demonstrated on the pillar are horse, bull, elephant, and
lion. Deer is not present.
The elephant denotes Buddha’s outset (the dream of a white elephant
entering her womb dreamt by Buddha’s mother at the time of Buddha’s
conception).
The bull symbolizes Zodiac sign of Buddha- Taurus.
The horse signifies Buddha’s horse, which he rode at the time of
departing from the citadel.
The lion indicates enlightenment. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
36. Consider the following statements about ‘NIRF Rankings
2022’:
1. National Institutional Ranking
Framework (NIRF), 2022 was launched by the Ministry of
Education.
2. NIRF Ranking 2022 ranks only Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the
country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Ministry of Education has published the
seventh edition of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF),
2022. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Participation in NIRF was made compulsory for all government-run
educational institutions since 2018.
NIRF is the government's first attempt to rate Higher Education
Institutions (HEIs) of the Country only. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The best institutions are listed in 11 categories: overall national rating
of universities, engineering, college, medical, management, pharmacy, law,
architecture, dental, and research.
37. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘National Security Council’
1. It is a statutory agency tasked with advising the
Prime Minister’s office on matters of national security
2. The Union Ministers for Defence, Home, Finance and External Affairs are
members of NSC
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Incorrect
The
National Security Council (NSC) of India is an executive government agency
tasked with advising the Prime Minister’s Office on matters of national
security and strategic interest. It was established by the former Prime
Minister of India Atal Bihari Vajpayee on 19 November 1998, with Brajesh Mishra
as the first National Security Advisor. Prior to the formation of the NSC,
these activities were overseen by the Principal Secretary to the preceding
Prime Minister.
Statement 2 Correct
Besides the National Security Advisor (NSA), the Deputy National Security
Advisors, the Ministers of Defence, External Affairs, Home, Finance of the
Government of India, and the Vice Chairman of the NITI Aayog are members of the
National Security Council.
Context – India’s NSCS Hosted
meeting of BIMSTEC Expert Group on Cyber Security
38. With reference to Natural Farming, consider the following
statements:
1. Mizoram is the world's first fully organic state.
2. Natural farming is synced with Sustainable Development Goal-1.
3. Participatory Guarantee System (PGS) certification is aimed at promoting
Natural Farming.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Natural farming is defined as a “chemical- free farming and livestock
based”. North East India has traditionally been organic, and the
consumption of chemicals is far less than the rest of the country.
Sikkim is the first state in the world which became a fully organic
state. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
Natural farming is in sync with the Sustainable Development Goal-2
i.e., targeting ‘end hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition
and promote sustainable agriculture’. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
Participatory Guarantee System (PGS) is a process of certifying organic
products produced by natural farming. It ensures that their production takes place
in accordance with laid-down quality standards. The certification is in the
form of a documented logo or a statement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
39. With reference to the Open Network for Digital Commerce, consider the following statements:
1. It is a freely accessible government-backed platform
that aims to democratise e-commerce.
2. Providers and consumers would be able to use any compatible application of
their choice for exchange of information and carrying out transactions over
ONDC.
3. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public
Distribution.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Open Network for Digital Commerce
(ONDC):
ONDC is a freely accessible
government-backed platform that aims to democratise e-commerce by moving it from a platform-centric model to an open
network for buying and selling goods and services. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
It is a not-for-profit organization that will offer a network to enable
local digital commerce stores across industries to be discovered and engaged by
any network-enabled applications.
Under ONDC, it is envisaged that a buyer registered on one participating
e-commerce site (for example, Amazon) may purchase goods from a seller on
another participating e-commerce site (for example, Flipkart).
Providers and consumers would be able to use any compatible application of
their choice for exchange of information and carrying out transactions over
ONDC. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence,
statement 3 is not correct.
40. Which one of the following statements best reflects the
issue with ‘Paracel Islands’, frequently seen in the news
a) Group of
artificial islands made by a country in the South China Sea
b) It is a disputed island between China
and Vietnam
c) It is one of the archipelagos of
Philippines
d) It is home to an active volcano which
erupts frequently
Solution(b)
The Paracel Islands is a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea. The
archipelago is approximately equidistant from the coastlines of the People’s
Republic of China (PRC) and Vietnam; and approximately one-third of the way
from central Vietnam to the northern Philippines. It is disputed between China,
Vietnam, Taiwan and Philippines.
Context – There was an incident involving a US destroyer with the Chinese
forces in the Paracel Islands.
41. With regard to Parliament of India,
consider the following statements:
1. It is not a sovereign body.
2. The Council of ministers at the centre is responsible to Lok Sabha
individuallhy and collectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Parliament of India is the supreme
legislative body of the Republic of India.
It consists of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Rajya Sabha represents the council of states and the upper house.
While Lok Sabha represents the house of people and the lower house.
The Parliament of India is not a sovereign body because:
Its authority is confined to jurisdiction earmarked by the
constitution.
Presence of certain fundamental rights of citizens in the constitution. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
Article 75 of the Constitution says that the council of ministers (COM)
shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Lok Sabha can eliminate the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence
motion in the Lok Sabha. There is no such provision in the case of Rajya
Sabha.
Article 75 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It
states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President,
which means that the President can remove a minister even at a time when the
COM enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
However, the President removes a minister only on the advice of the Prime
Minister.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
42.
With reference
to regarding phone tapping, consider the
following statements:
1.It is regulated under the Indian Telegraphic Act, 1885.
2.Both Central and State Governments have a right to tap phones under Section
5(2) of the IndianTelegraphic Act, 1885.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Answer : (B)
Phone tapping is authorized by Rule 419A of the Indian Telegraph (Amendment)
Rules, 2007.
43. With reference to political system of India and United Kingdom, consider the following statements:
1. Prime Minister of both nations has to be appointed
from the Lower House.
2. Both Nations have a presence of Cabinet system.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
In the United Kingdom, the Prime Minister has
to be elected from the lower House
Whereas in India, Prime Minister can be from either House of Parliament.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The Cabinet is the main body that controls policy and coordinates
activities of governmental departments.
India and United Kingdom have Cabinet System. It is chaired by the Prime
Minister and consists of most of the ministerial heads of departments, as well
as some additional members. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
44. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana(PMFBY)’
1. The Scheme covers all Food & Oilseeds crops and
Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops
2. The scheme is compulsory for loanee farmers availing Crop Loan /KCC (kisan
credit card) account for notified crops
3. Premium payable will be 2% for all Kharif crops, 1.5% for Rabi crops and 5%
for Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops.
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement
1 Correct
PMFBY
aims to provide a comprehensive insurance cover against failure of the crop
thus helping in stabilizing the income of the farmers. The Scheme covers all
Food & Oilseeds crops and Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops for which
past yield data is available and for which requisite number of Crop Cutting
Experiments (CCEs) are being conducted under General Crop Estimation Survey
(GCES).
Statement 2 Incorrect
The scheme was earlier compulsory for loanee farmers availing Crop Loan
/KCC account for notified crops and voluntary for other others, but has been
made voluntary since 2020 when reforms in the scheme were introduced. The
scheme is being administered by Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Statement 3 Correct
The Maximum Premium payable by the farmers will be 2% for all Kharif Food
& Oilseeds crops, 1.5% for Rabi Food & Oilseeds crops and 5% for Annual
Commercial/Horticultural Crops. The difference between premium and the rate of Insurance
charges payable by farmers shall be shared equally by the Centre and State.
Context: Andhra Pradesh has
decided to rejoin PMFBY.
45. Consider the following statements in context of Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models:
1. The Build-Own-Operate-Transfer (BOOT) model provides
ownership rights to private parties as per negotiated terms.
2. In the Swiss challenge model, a public authority receives an unsolicited bid
and invites third parties to match it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Public-Private Partnership:
PPP is an arrangement between government and private
sector for the provision of public assets and/or public services.
Public-private partnerships allow large-scale government projects,
such as roads, bridges, or hospitals, to be completed with private funding.
In this type of partnership, investments are undertaken by the private
sector entity, for a specified period of time.
These partnerships work well when private sector technology and innovation
combine with public sector incentives to complete work on time and within
budget.
Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT)
Model:
Under the BOT model, a private player is granted a
concession to finance, build and operate a project for a specified
period of time (20- or 30-year concession period), with the developer
recouping the investments by way of user charges or tolls charged from
customers using the facility, and thereby taking on a certain amount of
financial risk.
It is a conventional Public-Private Partnership model in which a private
partner is responsible for designing, building, operating (during the
contracted period) and transfer back the facility to the public sector.
The private sector partner has to bring the finance for the project and take
the responsibility to construct and maintain it.
Build-Own-Operate-Transfer
(BOOT):
It has four provisions like Build, Own, Operate and
Transfer.
In this variant of BOT, after the negotiated period of time, the project is
transferred to the government or to the private operator.
The concession from the state provides the concessionaire to own, or at
least possess, the assets that are to be built and to operate them for a period
of time: the life of the concession. The concession agreement between the
state and the concessionaire will define the extent to which ownership,
and its associated attributes of possession and control, of the assets lies
with the concessionaire.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Swiss Challenges:
Swiss challenge method is a method of bidding, often used
in public projects, in which an interested party initiates a proposal for a
contract or the bid for a project.
The government then puts the details of the project out to the public and
invites proposals from others interested in executing it.
On the receipt of these bids, the original proposer gets an opportunity to
match the best bid. In case the original proposer fails to match the bid, the
project is awarded to the proposer of the best bid. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
46. Consider the following statements about the RAMP Scheme:
1. It is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme.
2. It is launched by Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
3. The scheme aims to create a local supply chain for Make
in India, which can reduce India's dependence on foreign countries.
Which of the above statement/s
is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) Scheme:
It is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme.
It is launched by Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises.
The scheme aims to create a local supply chain for Make in India, which can
reduce India's dependence on foreign countries.
47. Consider the following statements in context of Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
1. RBI was established in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of
India Act, 1934.
2. RBI governor is the sole authority to decide repo rate.
3. All the coins and notes are issued by the RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1,
1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Though originally privately owned, since nationalisation in 1949, the Reserve
Bank is fully owned by the Government of India. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
Monetary Policy Committee: It is a statutory multi-member body
institutionalised under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, for maintaining
price stability, while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
The Governor of RBI is ex-officio Chairman of the committee.
The MPC determines the policy interest rate (repo rate) required to achieve
the inflation target (4%). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Reserve bank of India has the sole right to issue currency notes of various
denominations except one-rupee notes under Section 22 of Reserve bank of
India Act. The one-rupee notes and coins are issued by the ministry of
finance and it bears the signature of the Finance Secretary. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.
48. Consider the following statements regarding Secularism:
The word ‘secular’ was not found in the original text of
the Indian Constitution, rather inserted through an Amendment.
The Indian concept of secularism envisages complete separation of religion and
state, neither the state nor the religion shall intervene in each other’s
affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Secularism means separation of religion from political,
economic, social and cultural aspects of life, religion being treated as a
purely personal matter.
It emphasizes dissociation of the state from religion and full freedom to all
religions and tolerance of all religions.
It stands for equal opportunities for followers of all religions, and no
discrimination and partiality on grounds of religion.
Secularism and the Indian Constitution:
There is a clear incorporation of all the basic principles of secularism
into various provisions of the constitution. However, the word ‘secular’ was
not found in the original text adopted but was inserted through the 42nd
Amendment Act of 1976. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Indian vs. Western Model of Secularism:
Over the years, India has developed its own unique concept of secularism
that is fundamentally different from the parallel western concept of secularism
in the following ways:
As per the western model of secularism, the “State” and the “religion” have
their own separate spheres and neither the state nor the religion shall
intervene in each other’s affairs.
Thus, the western concept of secularism requires complete separation of
religion and state.
However, in India, neither in law nor in practice any 'wall of separation'
between religion and the State exists. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
In India, both state and religion can, and often do, interact and intervene
in each other's affairs within the legally prescribed and judicially settled
parameters.
In other words, Indian secularism does not require a total banishment of
religion from the State affairs.
49. With reference to the Skill Council for Green Jobs, consider the following statements:
1. The Responsibility of Skill Council for Green Jobs is
aligned with the National Skill Development Mission.
2. This Council works under the Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The creation of the Skill Council for Green Jobs
(SCGJ) was approved in the 10th meeting of the National Skill
Qualifications Committee held in 2015.
Skill Council for Green Jobs is one of the most recently launched
initiatives of the Government of India aligned to the National Skill
Development Mission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The SCGJ was established as a not-for-profit, independent, industry-led
organization under the Societies Registration Act XXI, 1860.
It is promoted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) and
Confederation of Indian Industry (CII). Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
50. With reference to Sodium ion battery,
consider the following statements:
1. They are energy dense, non-flammable, and operate well
in colder temperatures.
2. They are cheaper to produce than their lithium counterparts.
3. They are more likely to cause fires than lithium-ion batteries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Sodium ion battery
They are rechargeable batteries which require sodium ion
movement between electrodes during the charging and discharging of the battery,
the cathode for these batteries is manufactured from sodium.
It's cheaper to produce than their lithium counterparts because of the abundance
of the raw materials required to make them. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
They are energy dense, non-flammable, and operate well in colder
temperatures. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Further they can store more energy per unit weight, this could make them
well-suited for larger applications such as electric vehicles.
They are less likely to experience thermal runaway, a condition that can
cause fires in lithium-ion batteries. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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