Daily Current Affairs Questions July 2022 Part 22

 

Daily Current Affairs Questions

July 2022 Part 22

Why in News

1.       Angel Investors

2.       Bonn Challenge

3.       Carbonisation

4.       Coffee Board of India

5.       constitution

6.       Currency Swap Agreement

7.       developing country

8.       Distributed ledger technology (DLT)

9.       Five Eyes Alliance

10.    Forest Rights Act

11.    Governor

12.    Governor

13.    Green manures

14.    Hard currency

15.    International Monetary Fund (IMF).

16.    Lake Baikal

17.    Landraces

18.    Methane

19.    Microfinance loans Directions

20.    Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)

21.    MSME Development Act

22.    Net-zero emission

23.    Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).

24.    Pre-Legislative Consultation Policy (PLCP)

25.    Programme Of Action (POA)

26.    Right to Information Act 2005

27.    Section 69A of the IT Act

28.    starred questions and unstarred questions

29.    State Development Loans (SDLs).

30.    Supreme Court

31.    Supreme Court

32.    Total fertility rate (TFR)

33.    UN-General Assembly

34.    Wet-bulb temperature

35.    World Bank Group

36.    World Heritage Site

37.    World Hypertension Day

38.    World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)

39.    World Kishwahili Language Day

40.    World Laughter Day

41.    World Metrology Day

42.    World No Tobacco Day

43.    World Press Freedom Day

44.    World Red Cross Day

45.    World Summit of Information Society

46.    World Turtle Day

47.    world’s longest pedestrian suspension bridge

48.    world’s tallest glass bridge

49.    world’s third largest cricket stadium

50.    Yuri Averbakh

 

1.       Consider the following statements regarding Angel Investors.
1. Angel Investors are high-net-worth individuals, who generally buy back failed firms for asset restructuring.
2. The funds angel investors provide may be a one-time investment to help the business propel or an ongoing injection of money to support and carry the company.
3. Often, angel investors are found among an entrepreneur’s family and friends.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2, 3
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
An angel investor (also known as a private investor, seed investor or angel funder) is a high-net-worth individual who provides financial backing for small startups or entrepreneurs, typically in exchange for ownership equity in the company.
Often, angel investors are found among an entrepreneur’s family and friends.
The funds that angel investors provide may be a one-time investment to help the business get off the ground or an ongoing injection to support and carry the company through its difficult early stages.

2.       Bonn Challenge, sometimes seen in the news, is related to:
a) Cyber security
b) Protectionof the migratory species
c) Persistent Organic Pollutants
d) Forest Landscape Restoration
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Bonn Challenge is a global goal to bring 150 million hectares of degraded & deforested landscapes into restoration by 2020 & 350 million hectares by 2030.
Launched by the Government of Germany & IUCN in 2011 & later endorsed & extended by the ‘New York Declaration on Forests’ in UN Climate Summit, 2014.
It is based on the Forest Landscape Restoration (FLR) approach, which aims to restore ecological integrity along with improving human wellbeing through multifunctional landscapes.

3.       Consider the following statements regarding Carbonisation.
1. It involves pyrolysis of organic carbon to produce coke.
2. Wood does not undergo carbonisation.
3. A major advantage of industrial carbonisation is that no carbon monoxide emissions are involved.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1, 2
 c) 1, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
 Fossil fuels generally are the products of the carbonisation of vegetable matter. The term carbonisation is also applied to the pyrolysis of coal to produce coke. Carbonisation is also a stage in the charcoal making process, and is considered the most important step of all since it has such power to influence the whole process from the growing tree to the final distribution of charcoal to various sources. The gas produced by carbonisation has a high content of carbon monoxide which is poisonous when breathed.

4.       Consider the following statements:
1. Coffee Board of India is a statutory organization.
2. Coffee production generally requires higher temperatures varying between 35°C and 40 °C
3. In India coffee is generally grown in the open, unlike other major producers where coffee is grown under the tree shade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Coffee Board of India is a statutory organization constituted under the Coffee Act, 1942.
Coffee plants require a hot and humid climate with temperatures ranging between 15°C and 28 °C and rainfall from 150 to 250 cm.
Frost, snowfall, high temperatures above 30°C, and strong sunshine are not good for coffee crops and are generally grown under shady trees.
India is one of the very few countries, where coffee is grown under the tree shade, unlike major producers such as Brazil and Vietnam, where it is grown in the open.

5.       The Indian constitution is a written one unlike in some of the other democracies. What does it imply?
1. All the laws made by Parliament are to be written down as a part of the constitution.
2. The form of government in India has been codified in the constitution to reduce political and administrative conflicts.
3. Only because of a written constitution, citizens are able to enjoy fundamental rights.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 2, 3
 c) 2 only
 d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
Solution: c)
Constitution specifies the structure, organisation, powers and functions of both the Central and state governments and prescribes the limits within which they must operate. Thus, it avoids the misunderstandings and disagreements between the two. All the laws made in India are codified separate from the constitution and maintained in a law book. They need not be a part of the constitution. Even in the UK where there is no written constitution, people enjoy several fundamental rights. However, only because our fundamental rights are written in the constitution, it is difficult to amend and change them as per the wishes of the political executive.

6.       Consider the following statements regarding Currency Swap Agreement.
1. A currency swap is a transaction in which two parties exchange an equivalent amount of money with each other but in different currencies.
2. Currency swap agreement will help a country tide over its foreign exchange crisis.
3. Currency swap agreements between countries help in reducing its reliance on the International Monetary Fund.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
 A currency swap is a transaction in which two parties exchange an equivalent amount of money with each other but in different currencies. The parties are essentially loaning each other money and will repay the amounts at a specified date and exchange rate. The purpose could be to hedge exposure to exchange-rate risk, to speculate on the direction of a currency, or to reduce the cost of borrowing in a foreign currency.
 Currency swap agreements between countries help in reducing its reliance on the International Monetary Fund.

7.       What are the benefits a country gets from the ‘developing country’ tag at the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
1. It gets longer timeframes to implement the WTO agreements.
2. It allows other countries to offer preferential treatment.
3. It gets Zero duty and zero quota access for all exports to the developed countries.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1 only
 b) 1 and 2 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
 What are the benefits of ‘developing country’ tag?
Certain WTO agreements give developing countries special rights through ‘special and differential treatment’ (S&DT) provisions, which can grant developing countries longer timeframes to implement the agreements and even commitments to raise trading opportunities for such countries.
WTO pacts are often aimed at reduction in government support to certain industries over time and set more lenient target for developing nations and grant them more time to achieve these targets compared to developed ones.
The classification also allows other countries to offer preferential treatment.
 Least Developed Countries (LDCs) are often exempted from certain provisions of WTO pacts. A country classified as an LDC, receives zero duty, zero quota access for most of its exports to developed countries.

8.       Consider the following statements regarding Distributed ledger technology (DLT).
1. Distributed ledger technology (DLT) is a digital system for recording the transaction of assets in which the details are recorded in multiple places at the same time.
2. Blockchain technologyis a specific kind of Distributed ledger technology.
3. Unlike traditional databases, distributed ledgers have a central data store or administration functionality.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 1 and 3 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
 Distributed ledger technology (DLT) and Block Chain technology:
Distributed ledger technology (DLT) is a digital system for recording the transaction of assets in which the transactions and their details are recorded in multiple places at the same time.
Unlike traditional databases, distributed ledgers have no central data store or administration functionality.
Whether distributed ledger technologies, such as blockchain, will revolutionize how governments, institutions and industries work is an open question.
Blockchain technology is a specific kind of DLT that came to prominence after Bitcoin, a cryptocurrency that used it, became popular.
Cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin use codes to encrypt transactions and stack them up in blocks, creating Blockchains. It is the use of codes that differentiates cryptocurrencies from other virtual currencies.

9.       Among the following options, which represent all members of the Five Eyes Alliance
A) US-UK-Australia-New Zealand-Japan
B) US-UK-Australia-Japan-Canada
C) US-UK-Australia-Japan-France
D) US-UK-Australia-New Zealand-Canada
Answer: (A)
Explanation: US-UK-Australia-New Zealand-Canada
These are the 5 members of The Five Eyes (FVEY), which is an intelligence alliance. They cooperate in sharing signal intelligence

10.    Which of the following is responsible for administering Forest Rights Act 2006?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest And Climate Change (MoEFCC).
b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
c) Ministry of Women and Child Development.
d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Ministry of Tribal Affairs administers FRA 2006.

11.    Consider the following statements.
1. According to the Constitution of India, The Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit.
2. The Governor always has to act on the aid and advice of the cabinet and cannot decide on his or her own on summoning the House.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
 “The Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the Legislature of the State to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit…” says Article 174 of the Constitution. The provision also puts on the Governor the responsibility of ensuring that the House is summoned at least once every six months.
There are a few instances where the Governor can summon the House despite the refusal of the Chief Minister who heads the Cabinet. When the Chief Minister appears to have lost the majority and the legislative members of the House propose a no-confidence motion against the Chief Minister, then the Governor can decide on his or her own on summoning the House.
But the actions of the Governor, when using his discretionary powers can be challenged in court.

12.    Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution has specified the process and the role of Governor in electing the speaker of State legislative assembly.
2. In State legislative assembly, Speaker decides the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
 The Constitution has not assigned any role to the Governor in the election of the Speaker under Article 178, which is exclusively the job of the House. It is only the House rule which says that the Governor shall fix the date.
 It is the Speaker who decides the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker.

13.    Consider the following statements regarding Green manures.
1. Green manures are crops grown specifically for maintaining soil fertility and structure.
2. Growing green manure can curtail the consumption of chemical fertilizers to a large extent by 25 to 30% .
3. Green manure increases the soil pH level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 only
 b) 1 and 2 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
 Green manures are crops grown specifically for maintaining soil fertility and structure. They are normally incorporated back into the soil, either directly, or after removal and composting. There are three main varieties of green manure, including Dhaincha, Cowpea, Sunhemp. Also some crops such as summer moong, mash pulses and guar act as green manure.
 Punjab’s per hectare fertiliser consumption, which is around 244 kg, is one of the highest in the country and is also higher than the national average. Growing green manure can curtail this consumption to a large extent by 25 to 30% and can save huge input cost for the farmers.
 Experts said that in Punjab high-intensity agricultural practices are prevalent as farmers take two-three crops in a year, which requires lots of chemical fertilisers such as urea, diammonium phosphate (DAP) etc. And this leads to deficiencies of micronutrients like iron and zinc, especially in the soils where rice is cultivated thus affecting productivity. In such a situation, green manuring helps improve soil health and enhance the productivity of the crops.
 Also, even the PH level of the soil in several parts of the state is more than 8.5 and 9 per cent and green manure is beneficial to maintain it at the required level which is 7 per cent.

14.    Hard currency is usually preferred because
1. It is seen as politically and economically stable.
2. It is not likely to depreciate or appreciate suddenly.
3. It is widely accepted around the world as a form of payment for goods and services.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
 Hard currency refers to money that is issued by a nation that is seen as politically and economically stable. Hard currencies are widely accepted around the world as a form of payment for goods and services and may be preferred over the domestic currency.
 A hard currency is expected to remain relatively stable through a short period of time, and to be highly liquid in the forex or foreign exchange (FX) market. The most tradable currencies in the world are the U.S. dollar (USD), European euro (EUR), Japanese yen (JPY), British pound (GBP), Swiss franc (CHF), Canadian dollar (CAD) and the Australian dollar (AUD). All of these currencies have the confidence of international investors and businesses because they are not generally prone to dramatic depreciation or appreciation.

15.    Consider the following statements regarding International Monetary Fund (IMF).
1. The IMF is a quota-based institution and quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance structure.
2. Any changes in quotas must be approved by two-third majority of the total voting power.
An individual member country’s quota broadly reflects its relative position in the world economy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 and 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The IMF is a quota-based institution. Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance structure. An individual member country’s quota broadly reflects its relative position in the world economy. Quotas are denominated in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), the IMF’s unit of account.
The IMF’s Board of Governors conducts general quota reviews at regular intervals (no more than five years). Any changes in quotas must be approved by an 85 percent majority of the total voting power, and a member’s own quota cannot be changed without its consent.

16.    Lake Baikal, World’s largest freshwater lake by volume and the world’s deepest lake, is situated in
 a) Kazakhstan
 b) Southern Siberia
 c) South America
 d) Africa
Solution: b)
 Lake Baikal is the largest freshwater lake in the world (by volume) and the world’s deepest lake. Somewhat crescent shaped, it is in the southern Siberia area of Russia.

17.    Consider the following statements regarding Landraces.
1. Landraces refer to naturally occurring variants of commonly cultivated crops.
2. These are improved variants of commercially grown crops, which are developed by selective breeding or through genetic engineering.
3. kalbhat, a scented rice is an example of landrace variant.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1 only
 b) 1 and 3 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
 Among the winners of this year’s Padma awards is Rahibai Popere, popularly known as Seedmother. Her Padma Shri is a recognition of her work that has helped save hundreds of landraces (wild varieties of commonly grown crops) at the village level.
 Landraces refer to naturally occurring variants of commonly cultivated crops. These are as opposed to commercially grown crops, which are developed by selective breeding (hybrids) or through genetic engineering to express a certain trait over others.
 Biodiversity allows a natural mechanism for crops to develop traits to face challenging situations. However, given the large-scale human interference in crop selection, that ability is now lost in most commercially crops
 Naturally occurring landraces have a large pool of still untapped genetic material, which can provide solutions. Genetic diversity is nature’s survival mechanism. The wider the gene pool, the more the chance of developing a trait that can help in surviving extreme climate events.
 kalbhat, a unique landrace of scented rice. Over the years, this variant had almost vanished from cultivators’ fields as hybrid variants became popular. It has better climate resilience than popularly grown rice and can withstand flood or drought better.

18.    Consider the following statements.
1. Methane is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere.
2. Human sources of methane are responsible for more than 50 per cent of global methane emissions.
3. According to Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change report, methane accounts for about half of the 1.0 degrees Celsius net rise in global average temperature since the pre-industrial era.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 3
 b) 2 only
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Methane is the second-most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, after carbon dioxide.
According to the latest Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change report, methane accounts for about half of the 1.0 degrees Celsius net rise in global average temperature since the pre-industrial era.
NASA notes that human sources (also referred to as anthropogenic sources) of methane are responsible for 60 per cent of global methane emissions. These emissions come primarily from the burning of fossil fuels, decomposition in landfills and the agriculture sector.

19.    Which of the following entities are regulated under the Regulatory Framework for Microfinance loans Directions, 2022 of RBI ?
1. Commercial Banks
2. Co-operative Banks
3. Non-Banking Financial Companies
4. Payment Banks
Which of the following statement/s above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1,2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The following entities are regulated under the Regulatory Framework for Microfinance loans Directions, 2022 of RBI:
All Commercial Banks (including Small Finance Banks, Local Area Banks, and Regional Rural Banks) excluding Payments Banks
All Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks/ State Co-operative Banks/ District Central Co-operative Banks
All Non-Banking Financial Companies (including Microfinance Institutions and Housing Finance Companies).

20.    Consider the following statements.
1. Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the parent ministry of the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
2. In the hills, clouds don’t easily dissipate and can get trapped over a certain area, bringing torrential showers and even a cloud burst.
3. Convergence of the winds flowing from opposite directions can lead to formation of cumulonimbus clouds over the hilly region.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
 Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the parent ministry of the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
 July has seen the monsoon revive over many parts of the country, including Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Moisture laden easterly winds have been travelling from lower levels, reaching up to western Himalayas. These winds have been colliding with the westerly winds flowing across the upper levels. Convergence of the winds flowing from opposite directions led to formation of cumulonimbus clouds over the Kashmir region.
In the hills, clouds don’t easily dissipate and can get trapped over a certain area, bringing torrential showers and even a cloud burst. Monsoons in previous years too have seen similar short torrents that have caused immense damage.

21.    Consider the following statements:
1. MSME Development Act, 2006 is the first legal measure to ensure timely payments by mandating buyers to pay interest to MSME for payment delay.
2. Samadhaan is a platform introduced by the government for MSMEs to raise disputes over the non-payment of dues.
Which of followingstatements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Interest of Delayed Payments (IDP) to Small Scale and Ancillary Industrial Undertakings Act, 1993 was the first legal measure to ensure timely payments by mandating buyers to pay interest to MSME if payments were due for more than 30 days.
Samadhaan is a platform introduced by the government for MSMEs to raise disputes over the non-payment of dues.

22.    Consider the following statements regarding net-zero emission.
1. Net-zero emission mean that a country would bring down its greenhouse gas emissions to near zero.
2. Countries are setting their Net-zero emission goal based on the 2015 Paris Agreement guidelines.
3. Net-zero emission can be achieved by creating more carbon sinks such as forests and relying on futuristic technologies such as carbon capture and storage.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 2 and 3 only
 b) 1 and 3 only
 c) 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: c)
 Net-zero, which is also referred to as carbon-neutrality, does not mean that a country would bring down its emissions to zero. Rather, net-zero is a state in which a country’s emissions are compensated by absorption and removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere.
Absorption of the emissions can be increased by creating more carbon sinks such as forests, while removal of gases from the atmosphere requires futuristic technologies such as carbon capture and storage.
 The net-zero goal does not figure in the 2015 Paris Agreement, the new global architecture to fight climate change. The Paris Agreement only requires every signatory to take the best climate action it can.

23.    Consider the following statements regarding Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
1. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) have the property of long-range environmental transport (LRET).
2. Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer and diseases of immune system.
3. As we move up the food chain, concentrations of POPs tend to decrease so that animals at the top of the food chain tend to have the low concentrations of these chemicals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 and 3 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 1, 2 and 3
 d) 1 and 2 only
Solution: d)
 Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer, damage to central & peripheral nervous systems, diseases of immune system, reproductive disorders and interference with normal infant and child development.
 Uniqueness of POPs:
POPs are lipophilic, which means that they accumulate in the fatty tissue of living animals and human beings.
In fatty tissue, the concentrations can become magnified by up to 70 000 times higher than the background levels.
As you move up the food chain, concentrations of POPs tend to increase so that animals at the top of the food chain such as fish, predatory birds, mammals, and humans tend to have the greatest concentrations of these chemicals.

24.    Consider the following statements regarding Pre-Legislative Consultation Policy (PLCP).
1. The Pre-Legislative Consultation Policy (PLCP) mandates that whenever the Government makes any laws, it must place a draft version of it in the public domain.
2. The policy also says that, a note explaining the law in simple language and justifying the proposal, its financial implication, impact on the environment and fundamental rights should be uploaded.
3. The PLCP was adopted through an act of Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 1 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
The Pre-Legislative Consultation Policy (PLCP) 2014mandates that whenever the Government makes any laws (bills, rules, regulations etc.), it must place a draft version of it in the public domain for at least 30 days.
The policy also says that along with the draft, a note explaining the law in simple language and justifying the proposal, its financial implication, impact on the environment and fundamental rights, a study on the social and financial costs of the bill, etc. should be uploaded.
The respective departments should also upload the summary of all the feedback that they receive on the circulated draft.
The PLCP was formulated based on the broad recommendations of the National Advisory Council headed by Sonia Gandhi (2013) and the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2002).
It aimed to create an institutionalized spacefor public participation in law-making processes.
This policy provides a forum for citizens and relevant stakeholdersto interact with the policymakers in the executive during the initial stages of law-making.
 The absence of a statutory or constitutional right has watered down its effect.

25.    Consider the following statements regarding Programme Of Action (POA) of the International Conference on Population and Development.
1. The Programme Of Action (POA) of the International Conference on Population and Development focuses on meeting the needs of individual women and men, rather than on achieving demographic targets.
2. It is against coercion in family planning.
3. India is a signatory to the Programme of Action (POA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
India is a signatory to the Programme Of Action (POA) of the International Conference on Population and Development, 1994, which is unequivocally against coercion in family planning.
The Programme of Action, adopted by acclamation on 13 September 1994, emphasizes the integral linkages between population and development and focuses on meeting the needs of individual women and men, rather than on achieving demographic targets.

26.    Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information Act 2005.
1. Under the provisions of Right to Information Act 2005, any citizen of India may request information from a public authority which is required to reply within thirty days.
2. The Act protects the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 guaranteed by the Constitution.
3. The Act completely exempts information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship from disclosure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 1 and 3 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
The Right to Information (RTI) is an act of the Parliament of India which sets out the rules and procedures regarding citizens’ right to information. According to the Act, any citizen of India may request information from a “public authority” (a body of Government or “instrumentality of State”) which is required to reply expeditiously or within thirty days. In case of matter involving a petitioner’s life and liberty, the information has to be provided within 48 hours.
 Although Right to Information is not included as a Fundamental Right in the Constitution of India, it protects the fundamental rights to Freedom of Expression and Speech under Article 19(1)(a) and Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 guaranteed by the Constitution.
 Section 8(1)(e) of the RTI Act 2005 exempts information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship from disclosure unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information.

27.    The Supreme Court of India had upheld the constitutionality of Section 69A of the IT Act (in Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, 2015), which empowers the Government to restrict access to online content in the interest of
1. Sovereignty and integrity of the country
2. Security of the state
3. Friendly relations with foreign states
4. Public order
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 2, 3
 c) 1, 3, 4
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
The Supreme Court had upheld the constitutionality of Section 69A of the IT Act (in Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, 2015), which empowers the Government to restrict access to online content in the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of the country, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states or for public order.

28.    Consider the following statements.
1. In both the Houses of Parliament, elected members enjoy the right to seek information from various ministries and departments in the form of starred questions and unstarred questions.
2. The admissibility of questions in Rajya Sabha is governed by Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States.
3. The questions in both the Houses of Parliament cannot be disallowed and is usually passed on to the next session of the Parliament if it cannot be taken up in the ongoing session.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 2 only
 b) 1 and 2 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
 In both Houses, elected members enjoy the right to seek information from various ministries and departments in the form of starred questions, unstarred questions, short notice questions and questions to private members.
 The admissibility of questions in Rajya Sabha is governed by Rules 47-50 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States.
 In Lok Sabha, the questions are examined for admissibility under Rules 41-44 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
 In both Houses, the first hour of every sitting is usually devoted to asking and answering of questions, and this is referred to as the ‘Question Hour’.
 The Rajya Sabha Chairman or the Lok Sabha Speaker has the authority to decide whether a question or a part is or is not admissible under the norms of the House, and disallow any question or a part. Once disallowed, it is often difficult for members to challenge the decision.

29.    Consider the following statements.
1. State-level securities are issued by various State governments and are referred to as State Development Loans (SDLs).
2. All SDLs are serviced by the RBI.
3. Normally the yield on state development loans is lower than the yield on government securities issued by the central government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 b) 1 and 2 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
 State-level securities are issued by various State governments and are referred to as State Development Loans (SDLs).
 All SDLs are serviced by the RBI through two funds called the Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF) and Guarantee Redemption Fund (GRF) that States maintain with the RBI.
SDLs usually give higher rates than G-Secs.

30.    Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India.
1. It has the jurisdiction to issue writs under Article 32 of the Constitution.
2. It has the original jurisdiction under Article 131 of the Constitution.
3. It has the power to make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3
 c) 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
 The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the world’s most powerful top court, on account of its wide power of judicial review. It has the jurisdiction to issue writs under Article 32 of the Constitution. It also has the original jurisdiction under Article 131 of the Constitution. There is also wide appellate power under Articles 132, 133, 134 and 136 of the Constitution. More significantly, the Supreme Court has the power to “make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it”, as per Article 142 of the Constitution.

31.    Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by Supreme Court with respect to Right to privacy.
1. Right to privacy is as sacrosanct as human existence and is inalienable to human dignity and autonomy.
2. This is an absolute right.
3. Any surveillance done on an individual by the state is an infringement of that person’s right to privacy.
4. Any violation of right to privacy by the state in national interest, has to follow procedures established by the law.
Select the correct answer code:
 a) 1, 2 and 3 only
 b) 3 and 4 only
 c) 1, 3 and 4 only
 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: c)
 The Court, pointing to its own judgment in K S Puttaswamy, has said that “right to privacy is as sacrosanct as human existence and is inalienable to human dignity and autonomy”. While agreeing that it is not an absolute right, the Court has said any restrictions “must necessarily pass constitutional scrutiny”.
 Any surveillance or snooping done on an individual by the state or any outside agency is an infringement of that person’s right to privacy. Hence, any violation of that right by the state, even in national interest, has to follow procedures established by the law.

32.    Consider the following statements.
1. India has officially hit a total fertility rate (TFR) of 2.0
2. Total fertility rate (TFR) of about 2.1 children per woman is called replacement-level fertility and if replacement level fertility is sustained over a sufficiently long period, each generation will exactly replace itself.
3. In India, the urban TFR is greater than the rural TFR.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
 The complete results of the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5) were made public.
 India has also officially hit a total fertility rate (TFR) of 2.0 that indicates a decrease from the 2.2 in the NFHS-4. According to the United Nations Population Division, a TFR of about 2.1 children per woman is called replacement-level fertility. If replacement level fertility is sustained over a sufficiently long period, each generation will exactly replace itself. The urban TFR is 1.6 and the rural TFR is 2.1

33.    Consider the following statements regarding UN-General Assembly.
1. UN-General Assembly is the deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the UN.
2. It elects the non-permanent members of the UN Security Council.
3. Each sovereign state gets one vote and permanent members enjoy Veto powers.
4. All the decisions at the General Assembly must be approved by two-thirds majority of Member States.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1, 2
 b) 1, 3, 4
 c) 1, 2, 3
 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: a)
What is UNGA?
Popularly known as the parliament of the world, where all the 193 UN member states are represented, the UNGA is the deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the UN.
 Roles and functions:
Takes a decision on important matters such as peace and security, discusses various global issues and budgetary matters.
Decides on matters such as the admission of new members.
Decisions are taken through a vote. Admission of new members and budgetary matters require a two-thirds majority, while the decision on other issues are taken by a simple majority.
Each sovereign state gets one vote and the votes are not binding on the membership, except in budgetary matters.
The Assembly has no binding votes or veto powers like the UN Security Council.
The UNGA can express world opinion, promote international cooperation in various fields and make recommendations to the UNSC and elect the Security Council’s non-permanent members.
 Each of the 193 Member States in the Assembly has one vote. Votes taken on designated important issues – such as recommendations on peace and security, the election of Security Council and Economic and Social Council members, and budgetary questions – require a two-thirds majority of Member States, but other questions are decided by a simple majority.
In recent years, an effort has been made to achieve consensus on issues, rather than deciding by a formal vote, thus strengthening support for the Assembly’s decisions. The President, after having consulted and reached agreement with delegations, can propose that a resolution be adopted without a vote.

34.    Consider the following statements regarding Wet-bulb temperature.
1. Wet-bulb temperature is used to measure both heat and humidity of a place.
2. It represents the lowest temperature air can reach by evaporation of water.
3. Generally a dry heatwave is more dangerous than a humid heatwave for human beings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 1 and 3 only
 c) 2 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
 When human beings feel hot, they cool themselves by sweating. However, if the humidity is too high, sweating no longer works and one risks dangerous overheating.
In this case, “wet-bulb” temperature is used to measure both heat and humidity, helping estimate whether conditions are safe for humans or not.
Measured on a different scale compared with normal temperatures, where 35 degrees Celsius is the maximum or threshold limit, wet-bulb temperature of 32 degrees can mean that even fit, acclimatised people will not be able to work easily.
 With climate change, the number of such potentially dangerous days, where high heat and humidity combine, are also increasing.
 At present, most of India experiences 12 to 66 days annually of this potentially deadly heat and high humidity combination with hotspots along the east coast.
 A humid heatwave was a lot more dangerous compared with a dry heatwave.
 While the human skin has a temperature of around 35 degrees Celsius, a wet-bulb with the same heat means sweat can no longer be used to cool the body.
 Wet-bulb temperature is measured by wrapping a wet cloth around the bulb of a thermometer. It represents the lowest temperature air can reach by evaporation of water. Internationally, the wet-bulb globe temperature is calculated by using a globe thermometer and additionally accounting for solar radiation and wind speed

35.    India is not a member of which of the following organization/agency of World Bank Group?
 a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
 b) International Development Association
 c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
 d) International Finance Corporation
Solution: c)
 The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) is an international arbitration institution established in 1966 for legal dispute resolution and conciliation between international investors and States. ICSID is part of and funded by the World Bank.
India has never been an ICSID member.

36.    India’s 40th World Heritage Site has been selected – Dholavira, Gujarat

37.    High blood pressure and hypertension is known as the “Silent Killer”. On which of the day World Hypertension Day is observed?  17th May
World Hypertension Day is observed every year on 17th May, to raise awareness and encourage hypertension prevention, detection, and treatment.

38.    Consider the following statements regarding World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).
1. WIPO was established under TRIPS agreement as a global forum for intellectual property (IP) services.
2. The predecessor to WIPO was the United International Bureaux for the Protection of Intellectual Property.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 (a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
 WIPO is the global forum for intellectual property (IP) services, policy, information and cooperation. Our mission is to lead the development of a balanced and effective international IP system that enables innovation and creativity for the benefit of all. Our mandate, governing bodies and procedures are set out in the WIPO Convention, which established WIPO in 1967.
 The predecessor to WIPO was the United International Bureaux for the Protection of Intellectual Property (BIRPI), which had been established in 1893 to administer the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works and the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.

39.    World Kishwahili Language Day is observed on which day? 7 July
World Kiswahili Day is celebrated on the 7th of July every year following a declaration by UNESCO member states in this regard

40.    World Laughter Day is celebrated on which of the day of every May to remind people to laugh and make those around them laugh?  First Sunday
World Laughter Day is celebrated on the first Sunday of every May to remind people to laugh and make those around them laugh

41.    World Metrology Day (WMD) is annually observed across the globe on 20th May. What is the theme for World Metrology Day 2022?  Measurement for Health
World Metrology Day (WMD) is annually observed across the globe on 20th May to create awareness about the Metrology, the science of measurement and its application. The theme for World Metrology Day 2022 is Metrology in the Digital Era.

42.    World No Tobacco Day is observed on 31st May globally. What is the theme of World No Tobacco Day for 2022 year? Tobacco: Threat to our environment
The theme for 2022 is Tobacco: Threat to our environment.

43.    This year’s World Press Freedom Day theme is “Journalism under digital siege”. On which day it is observed?  3rd May
World Press Freedom Day is observed globally on 3rd May every year.

44.    World Red Cross Day is observed with an aim to broaden the public’s understanding of the International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement. On which day it is observed?  8 May
World Red Cross Day is observed globally on 8th May every year.

45.    Recently in which country the World Summit of Information Society 2022 has been organized? – Switzerland

46.    The theme for World Turtle Day 2022 is “Shellebrate”. On which day World Turtle Day is observed every year by American Tortoise Rescue?  May 23
World Turtle Day is observed on May 23 every year by American Tortoise Rescue.

47.    In which country the world’s longest pedestrian suspension bridge ‘Sky Bridge 721’ has been opened recently? – Czech Republic

48.    In which country the world’s tallest glass bridge has been opened recently? – Vietnam

49.    In which city Sourav Ganguly has laid the foundation stone of the world’s third largest cricket stadium? – Jaipur

50.    Which oldest chess grandmaster in the world has passed away – Yuri Averbakh