Sunday, 31 July 2022

Daily Current Affairs Questions July 2022 Part 25

 

Daily Current Affairs Questions

July 2022 Part 25

Why in News

1.       Article 142

2.       Barry Sinclair

3.       Battery Swapping Policy

4.       Benjamin Andrew Stokes

5.       Board of Trade (BOT)

6.       Boris Johnson

7.       Bundelkhand Expressway

8.       Byju’s

9.       cervical cancer

10.    Citizens of India

11.    Coffee Board

12.    Collar of the Supreme Order of the Chrysanthemum

13.    Commonwealth Games

14.    Constitution Part IX-A

15.    Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC)

16.    Denesh Ramdin

17.    Droupadi Murmu

18.    edible oils.

19.    Election Commission

20.    Enforcement Directorate (ED)

21.    eurozone

22.    FIFA World Cup

23.    Financial Stability Report

24.    Freedom of Religion

25.    fundamental rights

26.    G20 Heads of State and Government Summit

27.    Global Manufacturing Risk Index

28.    Green Strategic Partnership

29.    GST rate

30.    Human Papillomavirus Vaccine

31.    India – South Korea:

32.    Infosys Ltd

33.    International Monetary Fund (IMF):

34.    James Webb Telescope

35.    Jose Eduardo dos Santos

36.    Line of Actual Control (LAC)

37.    Mario Draghi

38.    Paper Import Monitoring System (PIMS)

39.    Red Panda

40.    start-up company

41.    Trading partners

42.    UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs’

43.    UN Principles for People with Disabilities (PwDs),

44.    United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

45.    Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act

46.    Wholesale Price Index (WPI)

47.    World Paper Bag Day

48.    world's oldest known male giant panda

49.    Zonal Councils(ZC)

50.    Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)


 


1.       Consider the following statements:
1. Article 142 of the Indian constitution provides power to the Supreme Court to do “complete justice” where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy.
2. There are specific rules provided by the constitution of India to guide the Supreme Court to invoke article 142 to do “complete justice”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Article 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties, where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy.
In those situations, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus to a dispute in a manner that would fit the facts of the case.
There is no specific guideline or rule provided by the law which explains when, where, and under which circumstances the Apex Court can invoke the said article to do “complete justice”.

2.       Former cricketer ‘Barry Sinclair’ recently (in July’22) passed away. He is the former captain of which country? New Zealand
Explanation:

Former New Zealand cricket captain and batter Barry Sinclair passed away at the age of 85 in Wellington, New Zealand.
i. He captained the team in 3 Tests, initially taking over from injured Murray Chapple on the 2nd Test against England at Dunedin in 1966, retaining them for the final Test of the series at Auckland, and for the next Test against India.

3.       Consider the following statements:
1. Draft Battery Swapping Policy was proposed by Ministry of Heavy Industries.
2. Draft Battery Swapping Policy has the provision of financial incentive.
Which of above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both1 and 2
d) Neither of these
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The government think tank NITI Aayog on 21 April, 2022 released the draft battery-swapping policy targeted at electric two-wheelers and three-wheelers, proposing incentives for electric vehicles with swappable batteries, subsidies to firms manufacturing swappable batteries, technical and testing requirements and reduction of GST, among other things.
Draft battery swapping policy provides direct and indirect financial support to Battery Providers (for the cost of batteries) and EV users.

4.       In July 2022, Which Captain of the England Test team, announced his retirement from the One Day Internationals (ODIs) format, while Tamim Iqbal, current captain of which country in ODIs announced his retirement from T20 International Matches. Benjamin Andrew Stokes; Bangladesh
Explanation:
The New-Zealand born, English cricketer, Ben Stokes (full name: Benjamin Andrew Stokes), Captain of the England Test team, has announced his retirement from the One Day Internationals (ODIs) format after England’s first ODI match against South Africa on 19th July 2022 in Chester-le-Street, Durham, England.
i. Ben Stokes played his 105th and final ODI against South Africa in Durham.
ii. Bangladeshi Cricketer Tamim Iqbal, the current captain of Bangladesh in ODIs has announced his retirement from T20 International with effect from 16th July 2022.
iii. Tamim Iqbal announced his retirement after the conclusion of the ODI series against the West Indies National Cricket Team.

5.       In July 2022, Government of India nominated 29 non-official members from various sectors to the Board of Trade (BOT), the advisory body on foreign trade policy. Name the union minister who is the current (as of July’22) chairperson of BOT. Piyush Goyal
Explanation:
The Government of India (GoI) has nominated 29 non-official members from large and small enterprises with diverse sectoral and geographical representation to the Board of Trade (BOT), the advisory body on foreign trade policy. The chairperson of the board Union Minister of Commerce and Industry.
i. The BOT, which is chaired by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, advises the GoI on policy initiatives to boost India’s foreign trade.
ii. The GoI amalgamated the Council of Trade Development and Promotion with the Board of Trade (BOT) in 2019 to improve consistency in the consultation process with all stakeholders, both at the Central and State levels, for promoting exports and imports.

6.       In July 2022, Boris Johnson announced his resignation as Prime Minister (PM) of the United Kingdom (UK). Which of the following books are authored by Boris Johnson?
1) The Dream of Rome
2) Seventy-Two Virgins
3) Why We Want You to Be Rich
4) Only 1 & 2
5) Only 2 & 3
Answer-4) Only 1 & 2
Explanation:
United Kingdom (UK) Prime Minister (PM), Boris Johnson announced his resignation as Prime Minister of the UK after he was abandoned by ministers and own party’s lawmakers. He also stepped down as Conservative Party leader.
i. He was forced to quit when 3 cabinet members and more than 40 ministers resigned on 5 July 2022 for demanding his resignation. However, he would serve as the PM until his successor was elected.
ii. He has been serving as PM of the United Kingdom (UK) and Leader of the Conservative Party since 2019.
Famous Books by Boris Johnson:
‘’Seventy-Two Virgins’’
‘’The Dream of Rome’’
‘’The Churchill Factor: How One Man Made History’’

7.       In July 2022, PM Narendra Modi inaugurated the how long Bundelkhand Expressway at Kaitheri village in Uttar Pradesh (UP). 296 km
Explanation:
Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi inaugurated the 296 km long Bundelkhand Expressway at Kaitheri village in Orai tehsil of Jalaun, Uttar Pradesh (UP). Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister (CM) Yogi Adityanath was also present at the inauguration ceremony.
i. It passes through seven districts of UP and was constructed at a cost of around Rs 14,850 crore. It was developed by Uttar Pradesh Expressway Industrial Development Authority (UPEIDA).
About the Bundelkhand Expressway:
It is the four-lane expressway, which will be expanded into six lanes, passes through seven districts of UP- Chitrakoot, Banda, Mahoba, Hamirpur, Jalaun, Auraiya and Etawah.
It extends from NH (National Highway)-35 at Gonda village near Bharatkoop in Chitrakoot district to near Kudrail village in Etawah district, where it merges with the Agra-Lucknow Expressway.

8.       First Indian company to sponsor FIFA World Cup? – Byju’s

9.       Consider the following statements with reference to cervical cancer:
1. It is a common sexually transmitted infection. 
2. It is the second most prevalent cancer form and the second leading cause of cancer death in women of reproductive age.
3. It is mostly caused by long-term infection with particular forms of Human Papillomavirus (HPV).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Cervavac, a vaccine developed by the Serum Institute of India (SII), has recently acquired market authorization from the Drugs Controller General of India (DGCI). 
It is India's first Quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus Vaccination (qHPV) designed to protect women from cervical cancer.
Cervical cancer is a prevalent sexually transmitted infection. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It’s a type of cancer that occurs in the cells of the cervix, the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina.
It is mostly caused by long-term infection with particular forms of Human Papillomavirus (HPV). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
It is the second most prevalent cancer form and the second leading cause of cancer death in women of reproductive age (15-44). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Indian Perspective: According to the World Health Organization's International Agency for Research on Cancer, India accounts for roughly one-fifth of the global burden, with 1.23 lakh cases and around 67,000 fatalities every year.

10.    Consider the following statements:
1. The
citizens of India owe allegiance to both the Union and State.
2. In India, only a citizen by birth is eligible for the office of President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2 
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Answer : (A)

11.    In July 2022, Coffee Board has signed an MoU with whom to develop climate-resistant varieties of the coffee crops. ISRO
State-run Coffee Board is planning to focus on developing new varieties that will be resistant to the changing climatic patterns. A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between the Coffee Board and ISRO was signed with regard to breeding climate-resilient varieties and assess the carbon sequestration potential in coffee among others.

12.    In July 2022, The Japan Government honored the former PM Shinzo Abe with the Collar of the Supreme Order of the Chrysanthemum, posthumously. Shinzo Abe became the which PM to receive the award under the post-war constitution. 4th
Explanation:
The Government of Japan honored the former Prime Minister (PM) Shinzo Abe with the Collar of the Supreme Order of the Chrysanthemum, posthumously. It is Japan’s highest award.
i. Shinzo Abe became the fourth PM to receive the award under the post-war constitution. Before Shinzo Abe, other former PMs including Shigeru Yoshida, Eisaku Sato and Yasuhiro Nakasone were also awarded with the same honor.
About the award:
It is the highest honor that a Japanese national can receive in his/her lifetime.
It was introduced by Emperor Meiji of Japan in 1876.
The Supreme Order of the Chrysanthemum is the most prestigious award in Japan.
The Grand Cordon of the Supreme Orders of the Chrysanthemum was established in 1876, and the Collar of the Supreme Orders of the Chrysanthemum in 1888.
Note- India awarded Shinzo Abe the Padma Vibhushan in the field of public affairs in 2021.

13.    How many member Indian contingent has recently been announced by IOA for Commonwealth Games? – 322 member

14.    Consider the following statements
1. Part IX (B) of the Constitution deals with ULBs.
2. Schedule 12 contains more subjects than Schedule 11.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Part IX and Part IX-A deal with PRIs and ULBs respectively.
Schedule 12 contains 18 subjects while Schedule contains 29 subjects.

15.    In India, the Section 41 of Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) is associated with which of the following?
A  Cognizance of offences by Magistrates
B Protection against prosecution for acts done under preceding sections
C Special Judicial Magistrates
D Arrest of persons without warrant
Explanation
Section 41 of Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) talks about the conditions when the police may arrest without warrant.
Any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant, arrest any person-
who has been concerned in any cognizable offence
who has been proclaimed as an offender either under CrPC or by order of the State Government
in possession of a suspected stolen property
who obstructs a police officer while in the execution of his duty
who is reasonably suspected of being a deserter from any of the Armed Forces of the Union
whose request (either oral or written) for arrest has been received from another police officer
Hence, option D is correct.

16.    Denesh Ramdin, who announced his retirement from international cricket recently, was the captain of which nation's team?   West Indies 
Former West Indies captain and wicketkeeper-batsman Denesh Ramdin announced his retirement from international cricket on July 18, 2022 with immediate effect. The cricketer had played his last match for West Indies in a T20I in December 2019. He had played 74 Tests, 139 ODIs and 71 T20Is. He had made his debut in Test cricket in July 2005 against Sri Lanka.

17.    Droupadi Murmu had served as the 9th Governor of which state between 2015 and 2021?  Jharkhand 
Droupadi Murmu had served as the 9th Governor of Jharkhand between 2015 and 2021. She had become India’s first woman tribal governor and the first female tribal leader from Odisha to be appointed as a governor of an Indian state. She also served as a member of the Odisha Legislative Assembly twice from the Rairangpur constituency, representing the BJP. 

18.    Consider the following statements:
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils.
2. India is the world's second-largest consumer and number one importer of vegetable oil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
India is the world's second-largest consumer and number one importer of vegetable oil, and it meets 55-60 percent of its need through imports.
The domestic consumption of edible oils is around 250 lakh tonnes, while the domestic production is only 111.6 lakh tonnes. The gap between demand and supply of edible oils is about 56 percent and is met through imports.
The Ministry of Agriculture data shows that India is the largest importer of vegetable oils in the world followed by China and the USA.

19.    Consider the following statements:
1. An act of parliament governs the power of the Election Commission to recognise political parties and allot symbols.
2. The Election Commission is the only authority to decide disputes among rival groups or sections of a recognised political party staking claim on its name and symbol
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the EC to recognise political parties and allot symbols.
Under Paragraph 15 of the 1968 order, the EC is the only authority to decide issues on a dispute or a merger. The Supreme Court upheld its validity in Sadiq Ali and another vs. ECI in 1971.

20.    Consider the following statements:
1. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Ministry of Finance.
2. The ED was initially formed under the Department of Economic Affairs for handling violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
On 1st May 1956, an ‘Enforcement Unit’ was formed, in the Department of Economic Affairs, for handling Exchange Control Laws violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In the year 1957, this Unit was renamed as ‘Enforcement Directorate’.
ED enforces the following laws:
Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999 (FEMA)
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)

21.    In July 2022, Croatia became which country in the eurozone to adopt the euro currency from 2023 by replacing the current currency, the Croatian Kuna. 20th
Explanation:
Croatia will become the 20th member of the
eurozone to adopt Euro currency from 1 January 2023, replacing the current currency Croatian Kuna. The European Union’s (EU) finance minister formally approved the adoption of the euro single currency.
i. It is the first expansion of the currency bloc in almost eight years since the euro has dropped to its lowest level against the US dollar in 20 years. Croatia’s currency Kuna has comparatively low inflation and low-interest rates, a stable currency regime.
About Croatia:
Capital– Zagreb
President- Zoran Milanović
Official language– Croatian

22.    First Indian company to sponsor FIFA World Cup? – Byju’s

23.    Consider the following statements:
1. The Financial Stability Report is published annually by the RBI to discuss development issues related to the financial sector.
2. The Financial Stability and Development Council is headed by the Governor of RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Financial Stability Report (FSR) which is published biannually by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reflects the collective assessment of the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC - headed by the Governor of RBI) on risks to financial stability and the resilience of the financial system. Hence, statement 1 is not correct but statement 2 is correct.
The Report discusses issues relating to development and regulation of the financial sector.
In a Financial Stability Report released by the RBI in December 2021, there is a projection of the gross NPAs of banks rising from 6.9% in September 2021 to 8.1% of total assets by September 2022 (under a baseline scenario) and to 9.5% under a severe stress scenario.

24.    Consider the following statements with respect to Freedom of Religion enshrined in the Constitution:
1. It includes the freedom to not follow any religion.
2. It bars all religious conversions.
3. It is not applicable to foreign nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 
(d) 1 only

25.    First, the difficulties in its rollout, and later the sanctions imposed by the UK and the US on Russia have hindered the use and distribution of the Sputnik V vaccine. For all practical purposes, an individual vaccinated with Sputink V is regarded unvaccinated. This had restricted lakhs of Indians from visiting these two countries. In such a condition, the fundamental rights provided under which of the following articles of Indian constitution have been violated?
1. Article 15
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1, 2 and 3
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 3 only
Explanation
Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
The right to life is not merely confined to animal existence or survival but also includes the right to live with human dignity and all those aspects of life which go to make a man’s life meaningful, complete and worth living.
In Satwant Singh Sawhney v. D. Ramarathnam Assistant Passport Officer (1967), the right to travel abroad was read as an intrinsic part of Article 21.
Again in 2020, the Supreme Court, in Parvez Noordin Lokhandwalla v. State of Maharashtra, held that the right to travel abroad is a part of the fundamental right to dignity and personal liberty.
However, the given condition is not violative of either Article 15 or Article 19 of the Indian Constitution as -
Article 15 provides that no citizen shall be discriminated on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 19 guarantees the right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
The freedom of movement has two dimensions, viz, internal (right to move inside the country) (article 19) and external (right to move out of the country and right to come back to the country) (article 21).
Hence, option D is correct.

26.    Consider the following statements:
1. The 17th
G20 Heads of State and Government Summit will take place at November 2022 in Bali.
2. The G20 or Group of Twenty is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union (EU).
Both 1 and 2
About:
It is an informal group of 19 countries and the European Union (EU), with representatives of the International Monetary Fundand the World Bank.
It does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters.
Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States and the EU.
The 17th G20 Heads of State and Government Summit will take place in 2022 on 15-16 November in Bali.

27.    Global Manufacturing Risk Index is released by:
a) World Bank
b) IMF
c) World Economic Forum
d) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
It is released by the US-based property consultant Cushman & Wakefield.
It assesses the most advantageous locations for global manufacturing among 47 countries in Europe, the Americas, and Asia-Pacific (APAC).
In the Global Manufacturing Risk Index 2021, India became the second most sought-after manufacturing destination globally, driven mainly by cost competitiveness.

28.    Green Strategic Partnership has been launched by India jointly with which country?
a) Germany
b) United Kingdom
c) United States
d) Denmark
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
India has launched Green Strategic Partnership with Denmark as its partner for the fight against Climate Change.
It is a mutually beneficial arrangement to advance political cooperation, expand economic relations and green growth, create jobs and strengthen cooperation on addressing global challenges and opportunities with a focus on an ambitious implementation of the Paris Agreement and the UN Sustainable Development Goals.

29.    How much percent GST will be levied on pre-packaged and labeled food items?  5 percent
The new
GST rate for pre-packed, labeled food items including rice, wheat, atta, paneer, curd, jaggery, lassi, butter milk, labeled meat (except frozen) and fish has now been fixed at 5 percent. Dried makhana, puffed rice, meslin flour, labeled meat and fish will also attract 5 percent GST. All these items were exempted from GST tax earlier. However, loose, unbranded and unlabelled goods will continue to remain exempted from GST. The new GST rates came into effect from July 18, 2022.

30.    In July 2022, Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) approved India’s 1st indigenous Quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus Vaccine (qHPV) to treat cervical cancer in women.
Which company will manufacture the qHPV? Serum Institute of India

Explanation:
Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) has approved India’s 1st indigenous Quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus Vaccine (qHPV) to treat cervical cancer in women for market authorisation.
i. The qHPV vaccine will be manufactured by the Serum Institute of India (SII), Pune, Maharashtra and launched by the end of 2022.
ii. Recently, The National Technical Advisory Group on Immunisation (NTAGI) had also approved the qHPV after reviewing the clinical trial data of the vaccine.
Note- Cervical cancer is the 2nd most frequent cancer among women in India between 15 years and 44 years.

31.    Consider the following statements with reference to the relations between India – South Korea:
1. The two countries have signed Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).
2. In the past five years, there has been active engagement by both the countries in the US led multilateral security intiiatives.
3. Sahyog-Hyeoblyeog is an initiative of India and South Korea to facilitate investment from Korea which provides guidance, assistance and handholding of investors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 and 3 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
India – South Korea
Political Ties:
During the Korean War (1950- 53), India played a major role in a cease-fire agreement signed between both the warring sides (North Korea and South Korea) and the ceasefire was declared on 27th July 1953.
In May 2015, the bilateral relationship was upgraded to ‘special strategic partnership’.
India has a major role to play in South Korea’s Southern Policy under which Korea is looking at expanding relations beyond its immediate region.
Similarly, South Korea is a major player in India’s Act East Policy.
However, during the past five years, India and South Korea have experienced considerable divergence in their respective national objectives. There was a clear drift by South Korea away from multilateral security initiatives led by the United States, such as the Quad (the U.S., Australia, India and Japan); meanwhile, India has been actively participating in them.
During the presidency of Moon Jae-In, South Korea was forced to sign the “three no’s” agreement with China. Under this agreement, Korea agreed to: no additional Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) deployment; no participation in the U.S.’s missile defence network, and no establishment of a trilateral military alliance with the U.S. and Japan. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Trade Relations:

The trade and economic relations between India and South Korea have gathered momentum in recent years with annual bilateral trade reaching USD21.5 billion in 2018, crossing the USD20 billion mark for the first time.
The bilateral Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CEPA), set in place since 2010, has spurred trade and investments both ways. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India has signed CEPAs with South Korea and Japan and in 2021, it formally launched negotiations with UAE on the India-UAE CEPA.
To facilitate investment from Korea, India has launched a "Korea Plus” facilitation cell under ‘Invest India’ to guide, assist and handhold investors.
Defence Ties:

So far, the Indian and South Korean Coast Guards have conducted five exercises with an aim to enhance interoperability.
The most recent of these exercises was held off the coast of Chennai, named Sahyog-Hyeoblyeog 2018.
Sahyog - Hyeoblyeog is part of a proposed establishment of a MoU between the two Coast Guards to improve maritime security in the Indian Ocean Region. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

32.    In July 2022, who  recently (in July’22) signed a definitive agreement to acquire BASE life science for how much Euro? . Infosys; 110 million
Explanation:
Infosys Ltd signed a definitive agreement to acquire BASE life science, a leading technology and consulting firm in the life sciences industry, for up to 110 million Euro (about USD 111 million). The acquisition is expected to close during the second quarter (Q2) of FY23.
i. The acquisition of Denmark-based BASE life science is to deepen life sciences domain capabilities and strengthen footprint across Europe and will help global life sciences companies realize business value from cloud-first digital platforms and data, to speed-up clinical trials and scale drug development.
ii. BASE has about 200 industry experts across Denmark, Switzerland, UK, Germany, France, Italy, and a nearshore technology hub in Spain. Founded in 2007.

33.    Consider the following statements regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF):
1. The IMF was conceived at a UN conference in Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, United States.
2. Countries are not eligible for membership of the IMF unless they are members of the World Bank.
3. Any state, whether or not a member of the United Nations, may become a member of the IMF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 and 3 only
B 2 only
C 1 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The IMF, also known as the Fund, was conceived at a UN conference in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, United States, in July 1944. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The 44 countries at that conference sought to build a framework for economic cooperation to avoid a repetition of the competitive devaluations that had contributed to the Great Depression of the 1930s.
The IMF, as per Bretton Woods agreement to encourage international financial cooperation, introduced a system of convertible currencies at fixed exchange rates, and replaced gold with the U.S. dollar (gold at $35 per ounce) for official reserve.
IMF Members: Any state, whether or not a member of the UN, may become a member of the IMF in accordance with IMF Articles of Agreement and terms prescribed by the Board of Governors. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Membership in the IMF is a prerequisite to membership in the World Bank,
the Countries are not eligible for membership in the World Bank unless they are members of the IMF (vice versa is not true). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

34.    Consider the following statements regarding the James Webb Telescope:
1. It is a large infrared telescope.
2. Webb is an international collaboration between NASA and ISRO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is a space telescope designed primarily to conduct infrared astronomy.
As the largest optical telescope in space, its greatly improved infrared resolution and sensitivity allows it to view objects too old and distant. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
JWST was launched in December 2021 on an Ariane 5 rocket from Kourou, French Guiana.
It is an international collaboration between National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), the European Space Agency (ESA), and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

35.    Former President Jose Eduardo dos Santos has passed away. He is belongs to which country? Angola
Former President of Angolan, Jose Eduardo dos Santos has passed away at the age of 79.

36.    Consider the following statements regarding the Line of Actual Control (LAC) between India and China:
1. It was designated in 1972, following the Shimla Agreement between the two countries.
2. India considers the length of LAC to be longer than what China does.
3. Along the LAC, the patrolling points are decided by the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Line of Actual Control (LAC) is the demarcation that separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory.
LAC is different from the Line of Control (LoC) with Pakistan:
The LoC emerged from the 1948 ceasefire line negotiated by the United Nations (UN) after the Kashmir War.
It was designated as the LoC in 1972, following the Shimla Agreement between the two countries. It is delineated on a map signed by the Director General of Military Operations (DGMO) of both armies and has the international sanctity of a legal agreement.
The LAC, in contrast, is only a concept – it is not agreed upon by the two countries, neither delineated on a map or demarcated on the ground. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
India considers the LAC to be 3,488 km long,
while the Chinese consider it to be only around 2,000 km. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) between India and China, Indian Army has been given certain locations that its troops have access to patrol the area under its control.
These points are known as patrolling points, or PPs, and are decided by the China Study Group (CSG). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
CSG was set-up in 1976, when Indira Gandhi was the prime minister, and is the apex decision-making body on China.

37.    In July 2022, Mario Draghi resigned from his Prime Minister position in which country? Italy
Explanation:
The Prime Minister (PM) of Italy, Mario Draghi submitted his resignation to President Sergio Mattarella after the withdrawal of support of key coalition parties.
i. He will remain as the caretaker Prime Minister until a new leader is appointed. The legislature’s current 5-year term is due to expire in 2023.
ii. The new election will be held at the end of September and beginning of October 2022. However the official dissolution of parliament was not announced by the President.
iii. He was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Italy in February 2021. ii.Prior to his appointment as PM, he served as President of the European Central Bank (ECB) between 2011 and 2019.

38.    In July 2022, the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) introduced the Paper Import Monitoring System (PIMS) to change the import policy for major paper products.
The implementation of PIMS will be effective from which date?. 1st October 2022

Explanation:
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoCI) has introduced the Paper Import Monitoring System (PIMS) by amending the import policy of major paper products from ‘Free’ to ‘Free subject to compulsory registration under PIMS’.
i. The implementation of PIMS will be effective from October 1, 2022. Meanwhile, the online registration facility will be available from July 15, 2022.
ii. This could also help the “Make in India” and “Atmanirbhar” initiative in this category.

39.    Consider the following statements with reference to Red Panda:
1. It is the state animal of Sikkim.
2. It is listed as critically endangered in the IUCN Red list.
3. It is protected under Appendix I of CITES.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
There are only two different panda species in the world, the Giant Pandas and the Red Pandas.
Red Pandas are also the state animal of Sikkim. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Red Pandas are shy, solitary and arboreal animals and considered an indicator species for ecological change.
India is home to both the (sub) species:
Himalayan red panda (Ailurus fulgens)
Chinese red panda (Ailurus styani)
Siang river in Arunachal Pradesh splits the two phylogenetic species.
It is found in the forests of India, Nepal, Bhutan and the northern mountains of Myanmar and southern China.
Protection Status:
Red Pandas: IUCN Red List: Endangered. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
CITES: Appendix I. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I.

40.    Consider the following statements:
1. The term unicorn refers to a privately held start-up company with a value of over $1 billion.
2. A decacorn is a company that has attained a valuation of more than $ 10 billion.
3. No company in India has still achieved a decacorn status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The term unicorn refers to a privately held start-up company with a value of over $1 billion. It is commonly used in the venture capital industry. The term was first popularised by venture capitalist Aileen Lee.
A decacorn is a company that has attained a valuation of more than $ 10 Bn.
As of May 2022, 47 companies the world over have achieved the decacorn status.
India has four start-ups namely, Flipkart, BYJU’s, Nykaa and Swiggy, added in the decacorn cohort.

41.    Consider the following statements:
1. In FY 2022 China is the largest trading partner of India.
2. Among India’s top 10 trading partners, the US is the only country with which India has a positive trade balance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
US Emerges as India's Largest Trade Partner in FY 2022, Surpasses China. The US surpassed China to become India's top trading partner in FY 2021-22. Statement 1 Not correct
India maintained a positive trade balance with the US, recording a surplus trade of US$32.79 billion. In fact, as per the statistics, among India’s top 10 trading partners, the US is the only country with which India has a positive trade balance. Statement 2 correct.

42.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs
1. It is one of the specialized organs of the United Nations responsible for coordinating the economic and social fields of the organization
2. It is part of the United Nations Secretariat and a member of the United Nations Development Group
Select the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
The United Nations Economic and Social Council. ECOSOC serves as the central forum for discussing international economic and social issues, and formulating policy recommendations addressed to member states and the United Nations System
Statement 2 Correct
The United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA) is part of the United Nations Secretariat and is responsible for the follow-up to major United Nations Summits and Conferences. It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group
Context – UN DESA recently released a report titled ‘World Population Prospects’

43.    Consider the following statements:
1. As per the UN Principles for People with Disabilities (PwDs), a person with disability has the right to free legal assistance.
2. An underlying issue with India’s Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 is that it is not in line with the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The UN Convention on the Rights of PwD, which was adopted in 2006, defines persons with disabilities as those “who have long-term physical, mental, intellectual or sensory impairments which in interaction with various barriers may hinder their full and effective participation in society on an equal basis with others”.
India ratified the Convention in October 2007.
The Parliament enacted the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 with a view to fulfilling the obligations under the UNCRPD. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
In 2020, the United Nations (UN) released its first-ever guidelines on access to social justice for People with Disabilities (PwD) to make it easier for them to access justice systems around the world.
The guidelines outline a set of 10 principles and detail the steps for implementation. These are:
Principle 1: PwD shall not be denied access to justice on the basis of disability.
Principle 2: Facilities and services must be universally accessible without discrimination of PwD.
Principle 3: PwD, including children with disabilities, have the right to appropriate procedural accommodations.
Principle 4: PwD have the right to access legal notices and information in a timely and accessible manner on an equal basis with others.
Principle 5: PwD are entitled to all substantive and procedural safeguards recognized in international law on an equal basis with others, and States must provide the necessary accommodations to guarantee due process.
Principle 6: PwD have the right to free or affordable legal assistance. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Principle 7: PwD have the right to participate in the administration of justice on an equal basis with others.
Principle 8: PwD have the right to report complaints and initiate legal proceedings concerning human rights violations and crimes.
Principle 9: Effective and robust monitoring mechanisms play a critical role in supporting access to justice for PwD.
Principle 10: All those working in the justice system must be provided with awareness-raising and training programmes addressing the rights of PwD.

44.    Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
1. The Paris Agreement under UNFCCC is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.
2. The Conference of the Parties (COP) meets bi-annually to assess progress in dealing with climate change.
3. Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 per cent by 2030 over 2005 levels is one of the commitments under India’s NDC
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 2 and 3 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Correct
The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change. It was adopted by 196 Parties at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016.
Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
Statement 2 Incorrect
Its supreme decision-making body, the Conference of the Parties (COP), meets annually to assess progress in dealing with climate change.
Statement 3 Correct
Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 per cent by 2030, over 2005 levels is one of the commitments made by India at COP 26.  India presented the following five nectar elements (Panchamrit) of India’s climate action: Reach 500 GW Non-fossil energy capacity by 2030. 50 per cent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030. Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now to 2030. Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 per cent by 2030, over 2005 levels. Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2070.
Context: India is on the verge of achieving her clean energy targets under INDC

45.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
It is applicable even if the offence is committed outside India but applies to Indian citizens only
The accused is eligible for default bail if the investigation is not completed within 180 days
Select the correct statement(s)
 a) 1 only
 b) 2 only
 c) Both 1 and 2
 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
Both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. It is applicable even if the offence is committed outside India. A charge sheet can be filed in maximum 180 days after the arrests.
Statement 2 Incorrect
The investigation has to be completed within 90 days and if not, the accused is eligible for default bail. A Special Court under the UAPA conducts trials.
 Context – A 19 year old student was arrested under the provisions of this act based on a facebook post recently.

46.    Consider the following statements:
1. A point of similarity in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is that they both are released by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
2. 2011-12 is taken as the base year to calculate all-India WPI.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Wholesale Price Index (WPI):
It measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
It is published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
However, the CPI, which measures price changes from the perspective of a retail buyer, is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
Major criticism for this index is that the general public does not buy products at wholesale price.
The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

47.    Every year, World Paper Bag Day is observed on which date  to raise awareness of the importance of using paper bags instead of plastic bags. July 12
Every year, World Paper Bag Day is observed on July 12 to raise awareness of the importance of using paper bags instead of plastic bags.

48.    How old was the world's oldest known male giant panda, who died recently?  35 years
The world's oldest male giant panda, An An, passed away at the age of 35 years on July 20, 2022. The panda's age was equivalent to human age of 105 years. The giant panda's health was showing steady deterioration over the past few weeks, with his food intake declining. He finally stopped eating and had to be euthanised. He had lived in Ocean Park, an marine and animal facility and Hong Kong theme park since 1999. The world's oldest female giant panda was Jia Jia, who died in 2016 at the age of 38 years. 

49.    Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Zonal Councils(ZC)
1. It is a constitutional body which has been established under Article 263
2. Rajasthan is a part of the western zonal council
3. The Union territories of Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep are not members of zonal councils
Select the correct statement/s:
 a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 3 only
 c) 1 and 3 only
 d) All the above
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Incorrect
Zonal Councils are advisory councils and are made up of the states of India that have been grouped into five zones to foster cooperation among them. These were set up under the Part-III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
Hence they are not constitutional bodies, but statutory bodies.
The Northeastern states are not covered by any of the Zonal Councils and their special problems are addressed by another statutory body, the North Eastern Council at Shillong, created by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971.
Statement 2 Incorrect
All States and UTs are grouped into 6 zones.
ZCs are headed by Home Minister.
Rajasthan belongs to Northern Zonal Council.
Other states in Northern ZC are Chandigarh, Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh and Punjab
Statement 3 Correct
The Union territories of Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep are not members of zonal councils.However, they are presently special invitees to the Southern Zonal Council.
Context: Honorable Home Minister presided over 30th meeting of Northern Zonal Council.

50.    In July 2022, the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) launched a Knowledge Portal developed by the Center of Excellence (CoE) for Khadi to provide design directions to the Khadi institutions. The KVIC is a statutory body of the Indian Constitution which comes under which ministry? Ministry of MSME
Explanation:
The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) launched a Knowledge Portal to provide design directions to the Khadi institutions.It was developed by the Center of Excellence (CoE) for Khadi.
i. The portal was inaugurated by Preeta Verma, Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of KVIC.
ii. The Center of Excellence for Khadi has been set up by KVIC, Ministry of MSME (Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises) at National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT) Delhi to support Khadi Institutions.
iii. KVIC is a statutory body of the Indian Constitution. It comes under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. It was established by Khadi and Village Industries Act, 1956.


 

 

 

 

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