Daily Current
Affairs
Questions
July 2022 Part 12
Index
1. African
Union
2. Alluri
Sitarama Raju
3. Angel investment
4. Artificial Intelligence in Defence’
5. Chekurinji
6.
Competition Commission of India
7. electromagnetic
aircraft launch system (EMALS)
8. Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986
9. External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)
10. Global biodiversity conclave’
11. Global Findex database
12. Goods and Services Tax (GST).
13. G-sec
14.
GST council
15. Ilaiyaraaja
16. Indian Naval
Air Squadron 324
17. INS Tarkash
18. Kai
Chutney’
19. Mekong River
20. Ministry of Culture
21. Ministry
of Tribal Affairs
22. Mitochondrial
DNA
23. Nairobi
Flies
24. Primary
Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
25. Primary
Agriculture Credit Societies (PACS)
26. private
sector banking
27. PSLV Orbital
Experimental Module (POEM)
28.
PSLV-C53’ mission
29.
Public Distribution System (PDS).
30.
Rare Earth Minerals
31. Rath
Yatra
32. Resolution
of the house
33. Seismology
and helioseismology
34. Seventh
Schedule
35. Shinzo Abe
36. Stand-Up
India Scheme
37. Startup School India (SSI)’ initiative
38. Udyami
Bharat Programme
39. Universal
Service Obligation Fund
40. Varroa mite
41. Vice
President of India
42. Western
Ghats
43. World
Summit of Information Society
44. World
Urban Forum
45. world-class Shopping Festival
46. world's
first multi-beam E-band Radio
47. YSR
Yantra Seva Yojana
48. Yun
Suk-ol
49. Yuri
Averbakh
50. Zuljanah
1. Consider the
following statements regarding the African Union
(AU):
1.
In 2002, the Organisation of African Unity was succeeded by the
African Union.
2.
All the countries of Africa are members of AU.
Which of the
above statements is/are not correct?
A 1 only B 2 only
C Both 1 and
2 D Neither 1 nor 2
African Union
§ The
African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states
that make up the countries of the African Continent.
§ The
African Union is celebrating its 20th Anniversary on 9th of July 2022.
§ In 1963, the Organisation
of African Unity (OAU) was founded by the independent states of
Africa. The organisation aimed to promote cooperation between
African states.
§ The 1980
Lagos Plan of Action was adopted by the Organisation of African Unity. The plan
suggested that Africa should minimise reliance upon the West by promoting
intra-African trade.
§ In 2002, the Organisation of African Unity was
succeeded by the African Union, which had as
one of its goals to accelerate the "economic integration of
the continent”. Hence statement 1 is correct.
§ The AU
is made up of 55 Member States which represent all the countries on the African
continent. AU Member States are divided into five
geographic regions. which were defined by the OAU in 1976. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
o Central
Africa
o Eastern Africa
o Northern
Africa
o Southern
Africa
o Western
Africa
2. Consider the
following statements about Alluri
Sitarama Raju:
1.
He played a major part as a leader in the Rampa Rebellion/Manyam
Rebellion of 1922.
2.
He asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of
force, not non-violence.
3.
He was nicknamed Manyam Veerudu by local villagers for his
heroic exploits.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2
only B 2
and 3 only
C 1 and 3
only D 1, 2 and 3
§ Alluri
Sitarama Raju was an Indian revolutionary involved in the Indian independence
movement.
o He was
born in present-day Andhra Pradesh in 1897 or 1898.
o He became
a sanyasi at the age of 18 and gained a mystical aura among the hill and tribal
peoples with his austerity, knowledge of astrology and medicine, and his
ability to tame wild animals.
§ At a very
young age, Raju channelled the discontent of the hill people in Ganjam,
Visakhapatnam, and Godavari into a highly effective guerrilla resistance
against the British.
§ He became
involved in anti-British activities in response to the 1882 Madras Forest Act,
which effectively restricted the free movement of Adivasis (tribal communities)
in their forest habitats and prevented them from practicing a traditional form
of agriculture known as podu (shifting cultivation).
§ Rising
discontent towards the British led to the Rampa Rebellion/Manyam
Rebellion of 1922, in which he played a major part as a leader. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
o The Rampa
Rebellion coincided with Mahatma Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement. He
persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking.
o But at the
same time, he asserted that India could be liberated only by the
use of force, not non-violence. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
§ He was
nicknamed "Manyam Veerudu" (Hero of the Jungle) by
local villagers for his heroic exploits. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
§ In 1924,
Raju was taken into police custody, tied to a tree, and shot by a public
execution, effectively ending the armed rebellion.
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Angel investment is a form of equity financing where the investor supplies funding in
exchange for taking an equity position in the company.
2. Angle investment is riskier because the invested
capital does not have to be paid back in the event of the business failing.
3. Angel funds in India are regulated by RBI under the
umbrella regulations for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2
and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only d. 1,
2 and 3
Answer : a
Angel Investment
Angel investment is a form of equity financing where the investor supplies
funding in exchange for taking an equity position in the company.
Angel funds invest in very early-stage businesses providing capital for
start-ups or expansion.
Angle investment is much riskier than debt financing as unlike a loan,
invested capital does not have to be paid back in the event of the business
failing.
The angel fund will have a say in how the business is run and will also
receive a portion of the profits when the business is sold.
Angel funds in India are regulated by SEBI under the umbrella regulations
for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs).
4. Where is the ‘Artificial Intelligence in
Defence’ (AIDef) symposium and exhibition organised? New Delhi
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated the first ever ‘Artificial
Intelligence in Defence’ (AIDef) symposium and exhibition in New Delhi.
It was organised by Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence, to
showcase the cutting edge AI-enabled solutions developed by the Services,
research organisations, Industry and start-ups and launch of AI products for
the market. A ‘GenNext AI’ Solutions Competition was also organised.
5. Which one of
the following best describes ‘Chekurinji’?
A It's a fish
species of Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary.
B It's a
plant species endemic to the Agastyamala Biosphere reserve.
C It's a
recently discovered ancient Human Species.
D It's a
species of insect native to East Africa.
§ Chenkurinji (Gluta
travancorica), is a plant species endemic to the Agasthyamala
Biosphere Reserve.
o This
Anacardiaceae family tree was once abundant in the hills on the southern parts
of Aryankavu Pass, but its presence has been rapidly declining over the years.
o It's used
to lower blood pressure and treat arthritis.
o It’s a
native species of South India.
§ Recently
‘Save Chenkurinji’, a campaign has been launched to protect it from climate
change.
o It aims to
plant thousands of saplings as part of the campaign in the ghat sectors of the
Kollam and Pathanamthitta districts.
§ Hence, option B is correct.
6.
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Competition Commission of India’
1. It is a
statutory body within the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is responsible
for enforcing the Competition Act of 2002
2. The
commission is also required to give an opinion on competition issues on a
reference received from a statutory authority established under any law
3. CCI also
approves combination under the act so that two merging entities do not overtake
the market.
Choose
the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d)
All the above
Solution(c)
Statement
Analysis:
The Competition Commission of India
(CCI) is the chief national competition regulator in India. It is a statutory
body within the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and is responsible for enforcing
the Competition Act, 2002 in order to promote competition and prevent
activities that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India
The commission is also required to
give an opinion on competition issues on a reference received from a statutory
authority established under any law and to undertake competition advocacy,
create public awareness and impart training on competition issues.
CCI also approves combination under
the act so that two merging entities do not overtake the market.
Context –
CCI approved proposed combination involving Google International LLC and Bharti
Airtel Limited
7.
Consider the following statements:
1. The
electromagnetic aircraft launch system (EMALS)
is used in launching an aircraft from the deck of naval aircraft carriers.
2.
EMALS uses both steam power and linear induction force to catapult the aircraft
and launch it.
3. The
INS Vishal is the only aircraft carrier in India that consists of EMALS
technology.
Which
of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1
only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2
only d) 1 and 3 only
Answer
: a
Electromagnetic
Aircraft Launch System (EMALS)
Catapult
Assisted Take-off But Arrested Recovery (CATOBAR)
An
aircraft on board a carrier needs extra help to get airborne since the length
of the runway on deck is insufficient to achieve the speed needed for take-off.
One of
the ways to provide this extra push is by the use of catapults.
In this,
an aircraft takes off from a completely flat deck with the help of catapults.
Once
the catapult is released, the aircraft attached to the catapult moves forward
with great speed in a short time, which helps it to gain the speed required to
take off before it reaches the end of the runway.
There
are two types of catapult systems — steam-powered, and electromagnetic ones
called EMALS.
While
the former uses steam pressure to fire catapults, EMALS uses linear induction
motors.
The
electromagnetic force generated is used to launch the aircraft.
Is
India using EMALS?
In
2017, the U.S. provided India with its EMALS technology, developed by the U.S.
defence company General Atomics Aeronautical Systems Inc.
India
explored the possibility of installing the system, but the Navy dropped the
plan due to budget constraints, as per the Indian Defence Research Wing.
However,
the state-owned Bharat Electronics Limited in Bengaluru is reportedly working
on an EMALS model that could be tested for CATOBAR operations on Indian
warships in the near future.
Presently,
India’s sole aircraft carrier INS Vikramaditya works on a Short Take-Off But
Arrested Recovery, or STOBAR mechanism with an angular ski-jump.
India’s
second aircraft carrier named INS Vikrant, set to be commissioned later this
year, will use the CATOBAR system to launch aircraft.
8. With
reference to the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986,
consider the following statements:
1.
It was enacted under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution.
2.
Central government as per the Act has the power to direct the
closure, prohibition or regulation of any industry, operation or process.
3.
Non-compliance or Contravention to any of the provisions of the
Act is considered as an offence.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2
only B 2
and 3 only
C 1 and 3
only D 1, 2 and 3
§ The
Environment (Protection) Act, (EPA) 1986, establishes the framework for
studying, planning, and implementing long-term requirements of environmental
safety and laying down a system of speedy and adequate response to situations
threatening the environment.’
§ The EPA
Act was enacted under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution which
provides for the enactment of legislation for giving effect to international
agreements. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Article
48A of the Constitution specifies that the State shall endeavour to protect and
improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the
country.
o Article
51A further provides that every citizen shall protect the environment.
§ The
Central government as per the Act has the power to direct:
o The closure, prohibition or regulation of any
industry, operation or process. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o The
stoppage or regulation of the supply of electricity or water or any other
service.
§ Non-compliance or Contravention to
any of the provisions of the Act is considered as an offence.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
9. As per the RBIs liberalised norms, what is the new limit of External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) under
automatic route? USD 1.5 billion
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) liberalised norms to boost inflows of
foreign exchange. The measures include easing norms for FPI investment in debt
market, and increasing the External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) limit under the
automatic route from USD750 million or its equivalent per financial year to USD
1.5 billion.
Exemption from Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) on
Incremental FCNR (B) and NRE Term Deposits was also announced.
10. Which city is the host of ‘2022 Global
biodiversity conclave’? Bonn
The 2022 Global biodiversity conclave is organised in Bonn, Germany.
Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem
Services (IPBES) announced that Assessment on the Sustainable Use of Wild
Species will be released.
Sustainable use of wild species keeping in mind the well-being of communities
that depend on them for livelihood will be the focus of the report to be
released.
11. Which institution released the ‘Global Findex database 2021’? World Bank
The World Bank released the Global Findex Database 2021: Financial
Inclusion, Digital Payments, and Resilience in the Age of COVID-19
It surveyed how people in 123 economies use financial services throughout 2021.
As per the report, large share of the global population without formal banking
lives in India and China because of their size. The report also found that
women are more likely to be unbanked than men.
12. As per the recent notification by the Finance Ministry, what is the GST
applied for sale of the Indian national flag? 0 per cent
As per the recent notification by the Finance Ministry, sale of the Indian
national flag is exempt from the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
The Indian national flag, irrespective of whether machine made or of polyester,
is exempt from the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Hand-woven, hand-spun national
flags made of cotton, silk, wool or Khadi are already exempt from GST.
13. Consider the following statements:
1. Every G-sec has a face value, coupon payment, and price, and is the safest investment
in any economy.
2. The price of the bond may or may not be equal to the face value of the
bond.
If G-sec yields are going up, it implies that lenders are demanding more
from private sector firms or individuals.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 1
and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only d. 1,
2 and 3
Answer : d
G-Sec
G-secs, or government securities or government bonds, are instruments that
governments use to borrow money.
Governments routinely keep running into deficits — that is, they spend more
than they earn via taxes.
That is why they need to borrow from the people.
G-sec yields change over time; often several times during a single day.
This happens because of the manner in which G-secs are structured.
Every G-sec has a face value, a coupon payment, and a price.
The price of the bond may or may not be equal to the face value of the
bond.
G-secs are the safest investments in any economy, and the G-sec yield is
the lowest risk-free interest rate in any economy.
If G-sec yields are going up, it would imply that lenders are demanding
even more from private sector firms or individuals; that’s because anyone else
is riskier when compared to the government.
If G-sec yields start going up, it means lending to the government is
becoming riskier.
14.
Consider the following statements on GST council
1. It is a constitutional body which was constituted by the
101st constitutional amendment act 2016.
2. The quorum of the council is 10 per cent of the total number
of members present and voting
3. Center has one-third of the voting rights in the council.
Choose
the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d)
All the above
Solution(c)
Statement
Analysis:
GST was constituted by 101st constitutional
amendment act 2016 by adding Article 279A.
One-half of the total numbers of
members of the Council is the quorum for conducting a meeting.
Every decision of the Council is to
be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of
the members present and voting at the meeting. The vote of the central
government shall have a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast in the
meeting. (ii) The votes of all the state governments combined shall have a
weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast in that meeting.
Context-
GST council held its 47th meet recently.
15. Ilaiyaraaja, who was recently nominated
to Rajya Sabha, is an eminent personality in which field? Music
Legendary music director Ilaiyaraaja was recently nominated to Rajya Sabha,
along with veteran athlete PT Usha, film screenwriter V Vijayendra Prasad and
spiritual leader Veerendra Heggade.
The nominations are done by the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
While PT Usha is from Kerala, Ilaiyaraaja is from Tamil Nadu, Veerendra Heggade
is from Karnataka and Vijayendra Prasad is from Andhra Pradesh.
16. Consider
the following statements regarding “Indian Naval Air Squadron 324”:
1.
It has been named KESTRELS.
2.
It is the Western Seaboard's first Naval Squadron to use
Imported Advanced Light Helicopters.
3.
It is equipped with ALH MK III helicopters which have
state-of-the-art equipment.
Which of the
above statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2
only B 2
and 3 only
C 1 and 3
only D 1,
2 and 3
§ Recently,
the Indian Navy commissioned a new Indian Naval Air Squadron 324 at eastern
Naval Command.
§ It has
been named "KESTRELS," which are birds of prey
and have good sensory capabilities, symbolising the aircraft's and air
squadron's intended role. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
§ The unit
is the Eastern Seaboard's first Naval Squadron to
use indigenously designed and built Advanced Light
Helicopters. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
§ It's equipped with ALH MK III helicopters which
have state-of-the-art equipment which includes modern surveillance radar and
electro-optical sensors. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
17. Indian Navy’s stealth frigate INS Tarkash conducted a Maritime Partnership Exercise with which country’s navy? Sudan
Indian Navy’s stealth frigate INS Tarkash, visited Djibouti and conducted a
Maritime Partnership Exercise with Sudan Navy ships Almazz and Nimer in the Red
Sea near the Sudan Naval Base.
This is a part of its long range overseas deployment. It is also on a
deployment to Rio de Janerio, Brazil.
18. Scientists of which Indian
state has recently sought a GI tag for its Red Ant chutney under the food
category?
In the
Mayurbhanj district in Odisha, the red ants are consumed as Chutney or a watery
semi-solid paste which is known as ‘Kai Chutney’,
and now scientists have sought a Geographical Indications (GI) tag for the
dish.
19. Consider
the following statements regarding the Mekong River:
1.
Its origin is in the Himalayan region.
2.
The river passes through all the mainland nations of south-east
Asia.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only B 2 only
C Both 1 and
2 D Neither 1 nor 2
Mekong River
§ The Mekong
River is the longest river in Southeast Asia, the 7th longest in Asia, and the
12th longest in the world. It has a length of about 4,350 km.
§ Rising in southeastern Qinghai province, China
(eastern part of Tibetan plateau), it flows through the
eastern part of the Tibet Autonomous Region. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
§ It forms
part of the international border between Myanmar (Burma) and Laos,
as well as between Laos and Thailand. The river then
flows through Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam before draining
into the South China Sea south of Ho Chi Minh City.
o Vientiane,
the capital of Laos, and Phnom Penh, the capital of Cambodia, both stand on its
banks.
o About three-fourths
of the drainage area of the Mekong lies within the
four countries the river traverses on its lower course—Laos, Thailand,
Cambodia, and Vietnam. Hence statement 2 is correct.
20. Which Union Ministry identified and published poems, writings and
publications that were banned by the British Government? Ministry of Culture
The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry for
the 75-week-long Amrit Mahosav celebrations.
It has identified poems, writings and publications that the British government
banned and put them as catalogue, which has been published on the website by
the National Archives of India. These works are in nine regional languages
Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Marathi, Kannada, Odiya, Punjabi, Sindhi, Telugu,
Tamil and Urdu.
21. Ministry of Tribal Affairs recently launched the
second phase of the ‘Going Oline as Leaders Programme (GOAL)’ programme. Which
of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched it in partnership with Facebook India.
2. It aims to digitally upskill 10 lakh youth from tribal communities.
Select the correct answer using the
codes below:
A
Only 1 B Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2 D Neither 1 nor 2
Ministry of Tribal Affairs, in
partnership with Facebook India, has launched the second phase of the Going
Oline as Leaders Programme (GOAL) programme.
GOAL 2.0 aims to identify, mobilise, and connect 2,500 renowned leaders
from the industry who can personally mentor 5,000 youth (women) from tribal
communities across the country. It also aims to digitally upskill 10 lakh youth
from tribal communities. The partnership will create a platform for the
Self-Help Group and those associated with the Tribal Co-operative Marketing
Federation of India (TRIFED) to take their products global.
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Mitochondrial DNA is a double-stranded, circular chromosome found inside the
cellular organelles.
2. While nuclear DNA is encoded for the genetic information of only the
nucleus, mitochondrial DNA is encoded for the genetic information of the entire
cell.
3. While mitochondrial DNA is polyploidy, nuclear DNA is monoploidy.
Which of the above statement(s)is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2
only
c. 3 only d. 1,
2 and 3
Answer : a
Mitochondrial and Nuclear DNA
Mitochondrial DNA is a double-stranded, circular chromosome found inside
the cellular organelles called mitochondria.
Located in the cytoplasm, mitochondria are the site of the cell's energy
production and other metabolic functions.
Mitochondrial DNA is monoploidy while nuclear DNA is polyploidy.
The main difference between mitochondrial DNA and nuclear DNA is that
mitochondrial DNA is encoded for the genetic information required by mitochondria
whereas nuclear DNA is encoded for the genetic information required by the
entire cell.
23. With
reference to Nairobi Flies, consider the following statements:
1.
They are species of insect native to West Africa.
2.
These insects don’t bite and release a substance called Pederin
when disturbed.
3.
They thrive in areas with high rainfall.
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2
only B 2 and 3 only
C 3 only D 1 and 3 only
Explanation
§ Nairobi
Flies is a species of insect native to East Africa. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
§ Nairobi
flies, also known as Kenyan flies or dragon bugs, are small, beetle-like
insects of two species:
o Paederus
Eximius.
o Paederus
sabaeus.
§ They are
orange and black in colour and thrive in areas with high rainfall, as
has been seen in Sikkim in recent weeks. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
§ Like most
insects, they are attracted to Bright lights.
§ These
insects usually don't bite but if they are disturbed
during their stay on human skin, they could release a potent acidic substance
that can cause burns on human skin. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o The released substance is called Pederin and
it can cause irritation on the skin, which leads to lesions or unusual marks or
coloring of the skin.
24. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) was recently seen in
the news. In this regard, consider the following statements about the ‘Urban
Cooperative Banks’ in India:
1. They are supervised and
regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
2. They can issue equity shares and
preference shares.
3. They were brought under the
purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, through an Amendment in 1966.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A
1 only B 2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3
Cabinet has recently approved the
digitisation of 63,000 Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). Urban Cooperative Banks are supervised and
regulated by the Urban Banks Department of the Reserve Bank of India. Thus, the
first statement is not correct. Urban
Cooperative Banks can issue equity shares and preference shares. Thus, the
second statement is correct. Urban
Cooperative Banks were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act,
1949, through an Amendment in 1966. Thus, the third statement is also correct.
25. The Union Cabinet has recently
approved the Computerisation of Primary Agriculture
Credit Societies (PACS). Consider the following statements about it:
1. It aims to computerise all the
PACS of North East India and bring them on a common platform at the National
level.
2. This project proposes the
computerisation of about 63,000 functional PACS in 5 years with a total budget
outlay of Rs. 2516 crore.
3. For those states where
computerisation of PACS has been completed, Rs. 50000 per PACS will be reimbursed
provided they agree to integrate with the common software.
Which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes below:
A
1 and 2 B 2 and 3
C
1 and 3 D 1, 2 and 3
The Union Cabinet has recently
approved the Computerisation of Primary Agriculture Credit Societies (PACS). It
aims to computerise all the PACS throughout the Country and bring them on a
common platform at the National level, and has a Common Accounting System (CAS)
for their day-to-day business. This project proposes the computerisation of
about 63,000 functional PACS in 5 years with a total budget outlay of Rs. 2516
crore. The central government will provide 1528 crore for this purpose. For
those states where computerisation of PACS has been completed, Rs. 50000 per
PACS will be reimbursed provided they agree to integrate with the common
software, and their hardware meets the required specifications. The software
should have been commissioned after February 1, 2017..
26. Consider
the following statements:
1. Total assets in the private sector banking is more than public sector banking.
2. The mergers of banks was proposed by P J Nayak committee in 2014.
Which of the above given statements is/ are correct?
a) 1only b) 2only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Total assets in the public and private banking sectors were US$ 1,602.65
billion and US$ 878.56 billion, respectively.
In 2014, P J Nayak committee suggested that the government should privatise or
merge some PSBs.
27.
Consider the following statements:
1. The
PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM)
is a platform that will help perform in-orbit experiments using the third and
fourth stages of the PSLV.
2.
POEM has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control System for attitude
stabilization, which controls the aerospace vehicle within permitted limits.
Which
of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. 1
only b. 2
only
c. Both
1 and 2 d. Neither
1 nor 2
Answer
: b
PSLV
Orbital Experimental Module (POEM)
The
PSLV Orbital Experimental Module is a platform that will help perform in-orbit
experiments using the final, and otherwise discarded, stage of ISRO’s workhorse
rocket, the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
The
PSLV is a four-stage rocket where the first three spent stages fall back into
the ocean, and the final stage (PS4) — after launching the satellite into orbit
— ends up as space junk.
POEM
has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude
stabilization, which stands for controlling the orientation of any aerospace
vehicle within permitted limits.
The
NGC will act as the platform’s brain to stabilize it with specified accuracy.
28.
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘PSLV-C53’ mission
1. It is the 53rd mission of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(PSLV) and the first mission using PSLV-Core Alone variant.
2. The PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM) onboard performs
in-orbit scientific experiments using the spent PS4 stage as an orbital
platform
Select
the correct statement(s)
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Solution(b)
Statement
Analysis:
The PSLV-C53 is the 55th mission of
the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and 15th mission using PSLV-Core
Alone variant. PSLV-C53 is the second dedicated commercial mission of NSIL.
The PSLV Orbital Experimental
Module (POEM) activity is performs in-orbit scientific experiments using the
spent PS4 stage as an orbital platform. It is first time that PS4 stage would
orbit the earth as a stabilized platform. Attitude stabilization is achieved
using a dedicated NGC system. POEM derives the power from the solar panels
mounted around the PS4 tank and a Li Ion battery.
Context-
PSLV-C53 was successfully launched .
29. Consider the following statements regarding Public Distribution
System (PDS).
1. The concept of a buffer stock was first
introduced during the Second Five Year Plan.
2. The Central Government takes the
responsibility for procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of
foodgrains, at subsidised prices.
3. The responsibility of distribution to
consumers including target groups through a network of fair price shops (FPSs)
rests with the State Governments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3
c) 2 only d) 1, 3
Solution: b)
PDS is operated under the joint responsibility of the Central and State
Governments. The Central Government takes the responsibility for
procurement, storage, transportation and bulk allocation of foodgrains, at
subsidised prices. The responsibility of distribution to
consumers including target groups through a network of various fair price shops
(FPSs) rests with the State Governments.
The buffer stock provides the basic and most flexible instrument for
moderating short-term effects of supply or production shortfalls. The concept of a buffer stock
was first introduced during the 4th Five Year Plan (1969-74) and
a buffer stock of 5 million tonnes of foodgrains was envisaged. The buffer
stock figures are normally reviewed after every 5 years.
30. Consider the following statements regarding Rare Earth Minerals.
1. The magnets made from rare earths are
more powerful than conventional ones.
2. India holds 2nd largest reserves after
China.
3. Theyare called’rare
earth’ because earlier it was difficult to extract
them from their oxides forms technologically.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 b) 3 only
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3
Solution: d)
The rare earth minerals (REM) are a set of seventeen metallic elements.
These include the fifteen lanthanides on the periodic table in addition to
scandium and yttrium that show similar physical and chemical properties to the
lanthanides.
They are called ‘rare earth‘ because
earlier it was difficult to extract
them from their oxides forms technologically.
For instance, magnets made from rare earths are many times
more powerful than conventional ones.
India has the world’s fifth-largest reserves of rare earth
elements, nearly twice as much as Australia, but it imports
most of its rare earth needs in finished form from China.
31. The Vice President of India has
recently greeted the nation on the eve of Rath Yatra.
Consider the following statements in this regard:
1. The Rath Yatra of Odisha depicts
the annual journey of Lord Jagannatha.
2. Lord Jagannatha is considered to
be an incarnation of Lord Vishnu.
Which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes below:
A
Only 1 B Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2 D Neither 1 nor 2
The Vice President of India has
recently greeted the nation on the eve of Rath Yatra. The Rath Yatra of Odisha depicts the annual
journey of Lord Jagannatha. Lord Jagannatha is considered to be an incarnation
of Lord Vishnu. Devotees pull the
chariot of the Lord Jagannatha during the Rath Yatra. The splendour and
grandeur of the Rath Yatra are truly unparalleled. .
32. Which can be removed from the office by a resolution of the house passed by a majority of “all
the then members of the house”?
1. Speaker of Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assembly.
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
3. The Vice-president of India
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only b)
1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
· Effective Majority of the house means more than 50% of the effective
strength of the house. This implies that out of the total strength, we deduct
the vacant seats. When the Indian Constitution mentions “all the then members”,
that refers to the effective majority.
· The effective majority is used in the case of:
· Removal of the Vice-president of India.
· Removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assembly.
33. Consider
the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion
(A): A major difference between geo-seismology and helioseismology is that while the
Earth is solid, the layers in the Sun are fluid.
Reason
(R): There are no shear waves in the Sun following the
quakes.
a)
Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
b)
Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A
is true and R is false.
d)
Both A and R are false.
Answer
: a
Helioseismology
Seismology
literally means the study of earthquakes.
There
are, thus, different types of waves generated by natural quakes as well as
explosions made by people.
Helioseismology
is a technique used to study the Sun.
Derived
from the words Helios (Sun), seismos (quake), and logos (study of),
helioseismology is both similar and different from geo-seismology.
The
study of the waves generated by quakes and explosions (seismic waves) and what
they reveal about the interior of the Earth.
A
major difference between geo-seismology and helioseismology is that while the
Earth is solid, the layers in the Sun are fluid.
Hence,
there are no shear waves in the Sun following the quakes.
34. Which of these are part of the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
1. Agriculture
2. Health
3. Police
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and
3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
Agriculture, Health, and Police come under the state list of the Seventh
Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
35. Shinzo Abe, who was recently
assassinated, is the former Prime Minister of which country? Japan
Japan’s former Prime Minister Shinzo Abe passed away he was shot at a political
campaign event in the city of Nara.
Abe’s speech was part of a campaign for his former party, the Liberal
Democratic Party, as upper house elections in Japan are due to take place in
this week.
36. Which of
the statements are correct regarding Stand-Up India Scheme?
1.
It is meant to promote entrepreneurship at the grass-root level
focusing on economic empowerment and job creation.
2.
Women entrepreneurs above 18 years of age under this scheme are
eligible for the credit facility.
3.
Loans under the scheme are available for both Greenfield and
Brownfield projects.
Choose the
correct answer using the codes given below:
A 1, 2 and 3 B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2
only D 1
and 3 only
§ Stand Up
India Scheme was launched in April 2016 to promote entrepreneurship
at the grass-root level focusing on economic empowerment and job
creation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
§ It aims
to leverage the institutional credit structure to
reach out to the underserved sector of people such as SCs, STs, and Women
Entrepreneurs.
§ The SC/ST
and/or women entrepreneurs; above 18 years of age are eligible under
the scheme. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
§ Loans
under the scheme are available for only Greenfield projects.
Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
37. Which company launched ‘Startup School India (SSI)’ initiative? Google
Tech Major Google announced the launch of Start-up School India (SSI) as
part of the Google for Start-ups initiative.
This is a platform under which Google will bring together investors,
entrepreneurs and programmers and provide opportunities to start-ups from small
cities to interact and learn from them. Google aims to reach out to at least
10,000 start-ups with this programme.
38.
Consider the following statements regarding the Udyami
Bharat Programme:
1. It
is an initiative of the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise.
2.
Under the program, the MUDRA Yojana, SFURTI, and Emergency Credit Line
Guarantee Scheme were launched.
Which
of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1
only b) 2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor
2
Answer
: c
Udyami
Bharat Programme
Udyami
Bharat is reflective of the continuous commitment of the government, right from
day one, to work towards the empowerment of MSMEs.
The
program is carried out by the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises.
The
government has launched several initiatives from time to time like MUDRA
Yojana, Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme, Scheme of Fund for Regeneration
of Traditional Industries (SFURTI), etc.
In
order to provide necessary and timely support to the MSME sector, which has
helped benefit crores of people across the country.
39. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Telegraph Act, 2003 gives statutory status to the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF).
2. The objective of USOF is to provide widespread and non-discriminatory
access to quality ICT services at affordable prices to people in rural and
remote areas.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only b. 2
only
c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither
1 nor 2
Answer : d
Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF)
The Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act, 2003 giving statutory status to the
Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) was passed by both Houses of
Parliament in December 2003.
The objectives of the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) are:
Provide widespread and non-discriminatory access to quality ICT services at
affordable prices to people in rural and remote areas.
Provide an effective and powerful linkage to the hinterland thereby
mainstreaming the population of rural and remote parts of the country.
Ensure that universal services are provided in an economically efficient
manner.
Ensure that by developing hitherto unconnected areas, the benefits of
inclusive growth are reaped by our nation, bringing in its wake rapid
socio-economic development and improved standards of living.
40. Consider
the following statements regarding “Varroa mite”:
1.
It's a parasitic insect that infects and feeds on honeybees.
2.
Varroa mites can feed and live on adult honeybees only.
3.
It is also known as Varroa Destructor.
Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
A 1 and 2
only B 2
and 3 only
C 1 and 3
only D 1,
2 and 3
Explanation
§ Australian
authorities have killed millions of honeybees over the past two weeks in an
effort to stop a potentially catastrophic parasite plague named Varroa mite.
§ Its
parasitic insect infects and feeds on honeybees. The small pests, which are
reddish-brown in colour, have been capable of eradicating entire colonies of
honeybees. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
§ Although
Varroa mites can feed and live on adult honey bees, they primarily feed and
reproduce on larvae and pupae in developing brood, causing malformation and
weakening as well as virus transmission. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
§ It is
often known as the varroa destructor. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
41. Which of the following are the
members of the electoral college for the purpose of election of the Vice President of India?
1. Elected and nominated members of
both the houses of the Parliament.
2. Elected members of legislative
assemblies of states and Union Territories (UTs).
Select the correct answer using the
codes below:
A Only 1 B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2 D
Neither 1 nor 2
Electoral college for the purpose
of election of the Vice President of India consisting of members (elected as
well as nominated) of both Houses of Parliament, by the system of proportional
representation using single transferable votes and the voting is by secret
ballot.
42. Which of
the following statements is/are correct regarding the Western Ghats?
1.
Doddabetta Peak is the highest peak of the Western Ghats.
2.
The mountains of the Western Ghats are Block Mountains.
3.
It is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Choose the
correct statement using the codes given below:
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only
C 2 and 3
only D 1 and 3 only
§ The
Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri Hills, are
well known for their rich and unique assemblage of flora and fauna.
§ It is
recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
§ The
mountains of the Western Ghats are Block Mountains formed
due to the down warping of a part of land into the Arabian Sea. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
§ The peak
of Anamudi in Kerala is the highest peak in the Western Ghats, as
well as the highest peak in India outside the Himalayas. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
43. In which country the World Summit of Information Society 2022 has been organized? –
Switzerland
44. India Forum for Nature-Based
Solutions was launched at the 11th World Urban Forum.
It was held in which country? Poland
45. Which city
will host a world-class
Shopping Festival in
2023? Delhi
Delhi will host a world-class 'Delhi Shopping Festival' from January
28 to February 26, 2023. This announcement was made by Delhi Chief Minister
Arvind Kejriwal in a live address on July 6, 2022. The Delhi CM said that the
30-day Delhi shopping festival will be the biggest shopping festival in India.
It will offer people an unparalleled shopping experience with heavy
discounts.
46. Which company has recently
developed the world's first multi-beam E-band Radio
that communicates from one tower to multiple towers simultaneously while
delivering multi GBPS throughput to each of these towers?
GigaMesh is
a network solution that wirelessly provides fibre-like backhaul capacity and
paves the road for 5G. The technology is developed by Astrome and supported by
AI & Robotics Technology Park, the Technology Innovation Hub (TIH) at the
Indian Institute of Science (IISc)ARTPARK. It is the world's first multi-beam
E-band Radio that communicates from one tower to multiple towers simultaneously
while delivering multi GBPS throughput to each of these towers. A single GigaMesh device can provide up to 40
links with 2+ Gbps capacity, communicating up to a range of ten kilometres. The
flexibility in range makes it suitable for both extending rural coverage and
decongesting the dense urban networks.
With India's majority population living in rural areas, Astrome can help
improve domestic internet connectivity.
47. Which state government has
recently launched YSR Yantra Seva Yojana?
– Andhra Pradesh
48. Yun Suk-ol has become the President of which
country- South Korea
49. Which oldest
chess grandmaster in the world has passed away – Yuri Averbakh
50. Name the country that recently (in July ’22) launched a solid-fueled
rocket named “Zuljanah” into space. Iran
Iran launched its second solid-fuelled rocket named “Zuljanah” with a satellite
carrier into space by the Ministry of Defense and Armed Forces Logistics.
The Zuljanah is a three-stage satellite launcher using a combination of solid
and liquid fuels.
About Zuljanah:
i. It’s a solid-fueled 25.5-meter-long rocket which can carry a satellite of
220 kilograms into space. The rocket weighs 52 tons and can reach an orbit of
500 kilometers above the surface.
ii. It will gather data in low-earth orbit as well as promote Iran’s space
industry.
iii. The rocket’s name, Zuljanah, comes from the name of the horse of Imam
Hussein, the grandson of the Prophet Muhammad.
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